fccexam.10000644000175000017500000000751712223324725010732 0ustar jtnjtn.TH HAMEXAM 1 .SH NAME fccexam \- Study guide for USA FCC commercial radio license examinations. .SH SYNOPSIS .B fccexam [option] .SH DESCRIPTION .B fccexam presents questions in random order from the selected question pool, and terminates when all questions have been answered correctly. The session may be interrupted with ^C, and resumed later. Some questions refer to figures. The figures for the selected question pool are displayed in a separate window using $PNG_VIEWER, if it is executable. If $PNG_VIEWER is undefined, eog(1), gwenview(1), gpicview(1), ristretto(1), will be used, whichever is first found to be an executable command. If $PNG_VIEWER is not an executable command (e.g. ""), or if none of the other viewers are installed, then questions which refer to figures will be noted and skipped. Licenses are issued by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC), but examinations are administered by COLEM examiners. See http://wireless.fcc.gov/commoperators/index.htm?job=home for information regarding USA commercial radio licenses. .SH OPTIONS If no pool is specified, usage, version, and help information is displayed. To initialize the question pool, one of the element numbers may be specified: .IP .B 1 Element 1, Basic radio law and operating practice. .B 3 Element 3, General Radiotelephone; Electronic fundamentals and techniques required to adjust, repair, and maintain radio transmitters and receivers. .B 5 Element 5, Radiotelegraph operating procedures and practices. .B 6 Element 6, Advanced technical, legal, and other matters applicable to the operation of all classes of radiotelegraph stations. .B 7 Element 7, GMDSS Radio Operating Practices. .B 7R Element 7R, Restricted GMDSS Radio Operating Practices. .B 8 Element 8, Ship Radar Techniques. .B 9 Element 9, GMDSS Radio Maintenance Practices and Procedures. The following abbreviations may be used to select multiple elements: .B T1 First Class Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 5, 6. .B T2 Second Class Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 5, 6. .B T3 Third Class Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 5. .B GROL General Radiotelephone Operator License: elements 1, 3. .B GROL+ General Radiotelephone Operator License + Radar: elements 1, 3, 8. .B MROP Marine Radio Operator Permit: element 1. .B GMDSS Global Maritime Distress Safety System Radio Operator: elements 1, 7. .B GMDSS+ GMDSS Radio Maintainer + Radar: elements 1, 7, 8, 9. .B RGMDSS Restricted GMDSS Radio Operator: elements 1, 7R. .B q The question pool is selected interactively. This is needed when starting the application from an icon. .SH FILES A directory ~/.fccexam is created to hold the names of the questions which remain to be answered correctly. .SH SEE ALSO For more information regarding licensing, ref. http://wireless.fcc.gov/commoperators/index.htm?job=home For information regarding amateur radio licensing (ham radio), see the package hamexam. .SH COPYRIGHT .B fccexam is Copyright (c) 2012-2013 John Nogatch . .B fccexam version 1.0.5, containing question pools as recent as 17-May-2013. This program is free software; you can redistribute it and/or modify it under the terms of the GNU General Public License as published by the Free Software Foundation; either version 2 of the License, or (at your option) any later version. This program is distributed in the hope that it will be useful, but WITHOUT ANY WARRANTY; without even the implied warranty of MERCHANTABILITY or FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR PURPOSE. See the GNU General Public License for more details. .SH BUGS The question pools, and number of questions required, are sometimes modified; ref. http://wireless.fcc.gov/commoperators/index.htm?job=question_pools Radiotelegraph Operator licenses also require Morse code proficiency elements, which are not provided by fccexam. .B fccexam does not automatically update the question pools from the FCC Web site. fccexam.desktop0000644000175000017500000000026111725442567012243 0ustar jtnjtn[Desktop Entry] Name=fccexam GenericName=fccexam Comment=FCC Radio Examination trainer Exec=fccexam q Icon=fccexam Terminal=true Type=Application Categories=Education;HamRadio; fccexam.png0000664000175000017500000000321011725443753011353 0ustar jtnjtnPNG  IHDR00WsBIT|d pHYsbb_'StEXtSoftwarewww.inkscape.org<IDATh{EҮ}`iPHM )*V0#S !HR HB Fc #p/N@O6:НSa5xO@R턹B<vo2 vkz(R-BH5 l{}[q|8܏o+>7 mtDWz(S7+^/?c{a`hW8`߃H<sp:&' k\DMD'FGGEiEE6؛ @qogOׇ`?1ϴ121ޙdhw6w^ c\لi~Y^`6Ȫ|Zvslm5sK~|ePͽH6oz('&n_DBrl vQyo\F˹+kZ}U6Vs]2N(.0[la[W ZpҒWgnZ+0+ة9X8ʶ~4752rM#r` 7f̬?Ki qܩw?2ԇkr7elbEMj͓(dcF?cC6]7K$kog+6DzQ#@Og-sĝASy< Z,|\!}[Vm{ +Z1q#h k\X&9XVh.4'kJt81nαyXa^Ɵ=UvT6z+kD#XWf v#FGFis-jnlZ.oƟ>/Gpȗ/EN4?0yLuiS=&#^pJ2;_gk2@xux2 S5ĝܨmOF`yOpA8sE`قsd~ps_~˄vQkpR=Ydo6#1%aR&P^?+x^ޅ##px Br r #b嗉 oW"}PBݧg8L)'7-.[$9Bds1Ď/S.j@64d.VNan <%\琩ť]Gy[ ȱ3{{ݔR image/svg+xml EXAM GROL GMDSS RADAR FCC Makefile0000644000175000017500000000116211726011135010663 0ustar jtnjtnbuild: echo "null build" clean: echo "null clean" dist: rm -f fccexam.orig.tar.gz tar zcvf fccexam.orig.tar.gz --exclude debian * install: mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share cp -r share $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/fccexam mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/bin ln -s ../share/fccexam/fccexam $(DESTDIR)/usr/bin/fccexam mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/man/man1 gzip -c fccexam.1 > $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/man/man1/fccexam.1.gz mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/applications cp fccexam.desktop $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/applications/fccexam.desktop mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/pixmaps cp fccexam.png $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/pixmaps/fccexam.png share/0000755000175000017500000000000012223354526010334 5ustar jtnjtnshare/element1.txt0000664000175000017500000014577311724273204012630 0ustar jtnjtnFCC Commercial Element 1 Question Pool (approved 25 June 2009) Subelement A – Rules & Regulations: 6 Key Topics, 6 Exam Questions Key Topic 1: Equipment Requirements 1-1A1 What is a requirement of all marine transmitting apparatus used aboard United States vessels? A. Only equipment that has been certified by the FCC for Part 80 operations is authorized. B. Equipment must be type-accepted by the U.S. Coast Guard for maritime mobile use. C. Certification is required by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). D. Programming of all maritime channels must be performed by a licensed Marine Radio Operator. 1-1A2 What transmitting equipment is authorized for use by a station in the maritime services? A. Transmitters that have been certified by the manufacturer for maritime use. B. Unless specifically excepted, only transmitters certified by the Federal Communications Commission for Part 80 operations. C. Equipment that has been inspected and approved by the U.S. Coast Guard. D. Transceivers and transmitters that meet all ITU specifications for use in maritime mobile service. 1-1A3 Small passenger vessels that sail 20 to 150 nautical miles from the nearest land must have what additional equipment? A. Inmarsat-B terminal. B. Inmarsat-C terminal. C. Aircraft Transceiver with 121.5 MHz. D. MF-HF SSB Transceiver. 1-1A4 What equipment is programmed to initiate transmission of distress alerts and calls to individual stations? A. NAVTEX. B. GPS. C. DSC controller. D. Scanning Watch Receiver. 1-1A5 What is the minimum transmitter power level required by the FCC for a medium-frequency transmitter aboard a compulsorily fitted vessel? A. At least 100 watts, single-sideband, suppressed-carrier power. B. At least 60 watts PEP. C. The power predictably needed to communicate with the nearest public coast station operating on 2182 kHz. D. At least 25 watts delivered into 50 ohms effective resistance when operated with a primary voltage of 13.6 volts DC. 1-1A6 Shipboard transmitters using F3E emission (FM voice) may not exceed what carrier power? A. 500 watts. B. 250 watts. C. 100 watts. D. 25 watts. Answer Key: 1-1A1: A 1-1A2: B 1-1A3: D 1-1A4: C 1-1A5: B 1-1A6: D Key Topic 2: License Requirements 1-2A1 Which commercial radio operator license is required to operate a fixed-tuned ship RADAR station with external controls? A. A radio operator certificate containing a Ship RADAR Endorsement. B. A Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher. C. Either a First or Second Class Radiotelegraph certificate or a General Radiotelephone Operator License. D No radio operator authorization is required. 1-2A2 When is a Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher license required for aircraft communications? A. When operating on frequencies below 30 MHz allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. B. When operating on frequencies above 30 MHz allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. C. When operating on frequencies below 30 MHz not allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. D. When operating on frequencies above 30 MHz not assigned for international use. 1-2A3 Which of the following persons are ineligible to be issued a commercial radio operator license? A. Individuals who are unable to send and receive correctly by telephone spoken messages in English. B. Handicapped persons with uncorrected disabilities which affect their ability to perform all duties required of commercial radio operators. C. Foreign maritime radio operators unless they are certified by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). D. U.S. Military radio operators who are still on active duty. 1-2A4 What are the radio operator requirements of a passenger ship equipped with a GMDSS installation? A. The operator must hold a General Radiotelephone Operator License or higher-class license. B. The operator must hold a Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit or higher-class license. C. The operator must hold a Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher-class license. D. Two operators on board must hold a GMDSS Radio Operator License or a Restricted GMDSS Radio Operator License, depending on the ship’s operating areas. 1-2A5 What is the minimum radio operator requirement for ships subject to the Great Lakes Radio Agreement? A. Third Class Radiotelegraph Operator’s Certificate. B. General Radiotelephone Operator License. C. Marine Radio Operator Permit. D. Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit. 1-2A6 What is a requirement of every commercial operator on duty and in charge of a transmitting system? A. A copy of the Proof-of-Passing Certificate (PPC) must be in the station’s records. B. The original license or a photocopy must be posted or in the operator’s personal possession and available for inspection. C. The FCC Form 605 certifying the operator’s qualifications must be readily available at the transmitting system site. D. A copy of the operator’s license must be supplied to the radio station’s supervisor as evidence of technical qualification. Answer Key: 1-2A1: D 1-2A2: C 1-2A3: A 1-2A4: D 1-2A5: C 1-2A6: B Key Topic 3: Watchkeeping 1-3A1 Radio watches for compulsory radiotelephone stations will include the following: A. VHF channel 22a continuous watch at sea. B. 121.5 MHz continuous watch at sea. C. VHF channel 16 continuous watch. D. 500 kHz. 1-3A2 All compulsory equipped cargo ships (except those operating under GMDSS regulations or in a VTS) while being navigated outside of a harbor or port, shall keep a continuous radiotelephone watch on: A. 2182 kHz and Ch-16. B. 2182 kHz. C. Ch-16. D. Cargo ships are exempt from radio watch regulations. 1-3A3 What channel must all compulsory, non-GMDSS vessels monitor at all times in the open sea? A. Channel 8. B. Channel 70. C. Channel 6. D. Channel 16. 1-3A4 When a watch is required on 2182 kHz, at how many minutes past the hour must a 3 minute silent period be observed? A. 00, 30. B. 15, 45. C. 10, 40. D. 05, 35. 1-3A5 Which is true concerning a required watch on VHF Ch-16? A. It is compulsory at all times while at sea until further notice, unless the vessel is in a VTS system. B. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is not required on Ch-16, provided the vessel monitors both Ch-13 and VTS channel. C. It is always compulsory in sea areas A2, A3 and A4. D. All of the above. 1-3A6 What are the mandatory DSC watchkeeping bands/channels? A. VHF Ch-70, 2 MHz MF DSC, 6 MHz DSC and 1 other HF DSC. B. 8 MHz HF DSC, 1 other HF DSC, 2 MHz MF DSC and VHF Ch-70. C. 2 MHz MF DSC, 8 MHz DSC, VHF Ch-16 and 1 other HF DSC. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 1-3A1: C 1-3A2: A 1-3A3 D 1-3A4: A 1-3A5: D 1-3A6: B Key Topic 4: Logkeeping 1-4A1 Who is required to make entries in a required service or maintenance log? A. The licensed operator or a person whom he or she designates. B. The operator responsible for the station operation or maintenance. C. Any commercial radio operator holding at least a Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit. D. The technician who actually makes the adjustments to the equipment. 1-4A2 Who is responsible for the proper maintenance of station logs? A. The station licensee. B. The commercially-licensed radio operator in charge of the station. C. The ship’s master and the station licensee. D. The station licensee and the radio operator in charge of the station. 1-4A3 Where must ship station logs be kept during a voyage? A. At the principal radiotelephone operating position. B. They must be secured in the vessel’s strongbox for safekeeping. C. In the personal custody of the licensed commercial radio operator. D. All logs are turned over to the ship’s master when the radio operator goes off duty. 1-4A4 What is the proper procedure for making a correction in the station log? A. The ship’s master must be notified, approve and initial all changes to the station log. B. The mistake may be erased and the correction made and initialized only by the radio operator making the original error. C. The original person making the entry must strike out the error, initial the correction and indicate the date of the correction. D. Rewrite the new entry in its entirety directly below the incorrect notation and initial the change. 1-4A5 How long should station logs be retained when there are entries relating to distress or disaster situations? A. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them. B. For a period of three years from the last date of entry, unless notified by the FCC. C. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard. D. For a period of one year from the last date of entry. 1-4A6 How long should station logs be retained when there are no entries relating to distress or disaster situations? A. For a period of three years from the last date of entry, unless notified by the FCC. B. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them. C. For a period of two years from the last date of entry. D. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard. Answer Key: 1-4A1: B 1-4A2: D 1-4A3: A 1-4A4: C 1-4A5: B 1-4A6: C Key Topic 5: Log Entries 1-5A1 Radiotelephone stations required to keep logs of their transmissions must include: A. Station, date and time. B. Name of operator on duty. C. Station call signs with which communication took place. D. All of these. 1-5A2 Which of the following is true? A. Battery test must be logged daily. B. EPIRB tests are normally logged monthly. C. Radiotelephone tests are normally logged weekly. D. None of the above. 1-5A3 Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship? A. Captain’s office. B. Sea cabin. C. At the GMDSS operating position. D. Anywhere on board the vessel. 1-5A4 Which of the following statements is true? A. Key letters or abbreviations may be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks if their meaning is noted in the log. B. Key letters or abbreviations may not be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks under any circumstances. C. All Urgency communications must be entered in the logbook. D. None of the above. 1-5A5 Which of the following logkeeping statements is true? A. Entries relating to pre-voyage, pre-departure and daily tests are required. B. Both a) and c) C. A summary of all required Distress communications heard and Urgency communications affecting the station’s own ship. Also, all Safety communications (other than VHF) affecting the station’s own ship must be logged. D. Routine daily MF-HF and Inmarsat-C transmissions do not have to be logged. 1-5A6 Which of the following statements concerning log entries is false? A. All Safety communications received on VHF must be logged. B. All required equipment tests must be logged. C. The radio operator must log on and off watch. D. The vessels daily position must be entered in the log. Answer Key: 1-5A1: D 1-5A2: B 1-5A3: C 1-5A4: A 1-5A5: B 1-5A6: A Key Topic 6: Miscellaneous Rules & Regulations 1-6A1 What regulations govern the use and operation of FCC-licensed ship stations in international waters? A. The regulations of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and Radio Officers Union. B. Part 80 of the FCC Rules plus the international Radio Regulations and agreements to which the United States is a party. C. The Maritime Mobile Directives of the International Telecommunication Union. D. Those of the FCC’s Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, Maritime Mobile Service, Washington, DC 20554. 1-6A2 When may the operator of a ship radio station allow an unlicensed person to speak over the transmitter? A. At no time. Only commercially-licensed radio operators may modulate the transmitting apparatus. B. When the station power does not exceed 200 watts peak envelope power. C. When under the supervision of the licensed operator. D. During the hours that the radio officer is normally off duty. 1-6A3 Where do you make an application for inspection of a ship GMDSS radio station? A. To a Commercial Operator Licensing Examination Manager (COLE Manager). B. To the Federal Communications Commission, Washington, DC 20554. C. To the Engineer-in-Charge of the FCC District Office nearest the proposed place of inspection. D. To an FCC-licensed technician holding a GMDSS Radio Maintainer’s License. 1-6A4 Who has ultimate control of service at a ship’s radio station? A. The master of the ship. B. A holder of a First Class Radiotelegraph Certificate with a six months’ service endorsement. C. The Radio Officer-in-Charge authorized by the captain of the vessel. D. An appointed licensed radio operator who agrees to comply with all Radio Regulations in force. 1-6A5 Where must the principal radiotelephone operating position be installed in a ship station? A. At the principal radio operating position of the vessel. B. In the chart room, master’s quarters or wheel house. C. In the room or an adjoining room from which the ship is normally steered while at sea. D. At the level of the main wheel house or at least one deck above the ship’s main deck. 1-6A6 By international agreement, which ships must carry radio equipment for the safety of life at sea? A. All ships traveling more than 100 miles out to sea. B. Cargo ships of more than 100 gross tons and passenger vessels on international deep-sea voyages. C. All cargo ships of more than 100 gross tons. D. Cargo ships of more than 300 gross tons and vessels carrying more than 12 passengers. Answer Key: 1-6A1: B 1-6A2: C 1-6A3: C 1-6A4: A 1-6A5: C 1-6A6: D Subelement B – Communications Procedures: 6 Key Topics, 6 Exam Questions Key Topic 7: Bridge-to-Bridge Operations 1-7B1 What traffic management service is operated by the U.S. Coast Guard in certain designated water areas to prevent ship collisions, groundings and environmental harm? A. Water Safety Management Bureau (WSMB). B. Vessel Traffic Service (VTS). C. Ship Movement and Safety Agency (SMSA). D. Interdepartmental Harbor and Port Patrol (IHPP). 1-7B2 What is a bridge-to-bridge station? A. An internal communications system linking the wheel house with the ship’s primary radio operating position and other integral ship control points. B. An inland waterways and coastal radio station serving ship stations operating within the United States. C. A portable ship station necessary to eliminate frequent application to operate a ship station on board different vessels. D. A VHF radio station located on a ship’s navigational bridge or main control station that is used only for navigational communications. 1-7B3 When may a bridge-to-bridge transmission be more than 1 watt? A. When broadcasting a distress message and rounding a bend in a river or traveling in a blind spot. B. When broadcasting a distress message. C. When rounding a bend in a river or traveling in a blind spot. D. When calling the Coast Guard. 1-7B4 When is it legal to transmit high power on Channel 13? A. Failure of vessel being called to respond. B. In a blind situation such as rounding a bend in a river. C. During an emergency. D. All of these. 1-7B5 A ship station using VHF bridge-to-bridge Channel 13: A. May be identified by the name of the ship in lieu of call sign. B. May be identified by call sign and country of origin. C. Must be identified by call sign and name of vessel. D. Does not need to identify itself within 100 miles from shore. 1-7B6 The primary purpose of bridge-to-bridge communications is: A. Search and rescue emergency calls only. B. All short-range transmission aboard ship. C. Navigational communications. D. Transmission of Captain's orders from the bridge. Answer Key: 1-7B1: B 1-7B2: D 1-7B3: A 1-7B4: D 1-7B5: A 1-7B6: C Key Topic 8: Operating Procedures-1 1-8B1 What is the best way for a radio operator to minimize or prevent interference to other stations? A. By using an omni-directional antenna pointed away from other stations. B. Reducing power to a level that will not affect other on-frequency communications. C. Determine that a frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting. D. By changing frequency when notified that a radiocommunication causes interference. 1-8B2 Under what circumstances may a coast station using telephony transmit a general call to a group of vessels? A. Under no circumstances. B. When announcing or preceding the transmission of Distress, Urgency, Safety or other important messages. C. When the vessels are located in international waters beyond 12 miles. D. When identical traffic is destined for multiple mobile stations within range. 1-8B3 Who determines when a ship station may transmit routine traffic destined for a coast or government station in the maritime mobile service? A. Shipboard radio officers may transmit traffic when it will not interfere with ongoing radiocommunications. B. The order and time of transmission and permissible type of message traffic is decided by the licensed on-duty operator. C. Ship stations must comply with instructions given by the coast or government station. D. The precedence of conventional radiocommunications is determined by FCC and international regulation. 1-8B4 What is required of a ship station which has established initial contact with another station on 2182 kHz or Ch-16? A. The stations must change to an authorized working frequency for the transmission of messages. B. The stations must check the radio channel for Distress, Urgency and Safety calls at least once every ten minutes. C. Radiated power must be minimized so as not to interfere with other stations needing to use the channel. D. To expedite safety communications, the vessels must observe radio silence for two out of every fifteen minutes. 1-8B5 How does a coast station notify a ship that it has a message for the ship? A. By making a directed transmission on 2182 kHz or 156.800 MHz. B. The coast station changes to the vessel’s known working frequency. C. By establishing communications using the eight-digit maritime mobile service identification. D. The coast station may transmit, at intervals, lists of call signs in alphabetical order for which they have traffic. 1-8B6 What is the priority of communications? A. Safety, Distress, Urgency and radio direction-finding. B. Distress, Urgency and Safety. C. Distress, Safety, radio direction-finding, search and rescue. D. Radio direction-finding, Distress and Safety. Answer Key: 1-8B1: C 1-8B2: B 1-8B3: C 1-8B4: A 1-8B5: D 1-8B6: B Key Topic 9: Operating Procedures-2 1-9B1 Under what circumstances may a ship or aircraft station interfere with a public coast station? A. In cases of distress. B. Under no circumstances during on-going radiocommunications. C. During periods of government priority traffic handling. D. When it is necessary to transmit a message concerning the safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. 1-9B2 Ordinarily, how often would a station using a telephony emission identify? A. At least every 10 minutes. B. At the beginning and end of each transmission and at 15-minute intervals. C. At 15-minute intervals, unless public correspondence is in progress. D. At 20-minute intervals. 1-9B3 When using a SSB station on 2182 kHz or VHF-FM on channel 16: A. Preliminary call must not exceed 30 seconds. B. If contact is not made, you must wait at least 2 minutes before repeating the call. C. Once contact is established, you must switch to a working frequency. D. All of these. 1-9B4 What should a station operator do before making a transmission? A. Except for the transmission of distress calls, determine that the frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting. B. Transmit a general notification that the operator wishes to utilize the channel. C. Check transmitting equipment to be certain it is properly calibrated. D. Ask if the frequency is in use. 1-9B5 On what frequency should a ship station normally call a coast station when using a radiotelephony emission? A. On a vacant radio channel determined by the licensed radio officer. B. Calls should be initiated on the appropriate ship-to-shore working frequency of the coast station. C. On any calling frequency internationally approved for use within ITU Region 2. D. On 2182 kHz or Ch-16 at any time. 1-9B6 In the International Phonetic Alphabet, the letters E, M, and S are represented by the words: A. Echo, Michigan, Sonar. B. Equator, Mike, Sonar. C. Echo, Mike, Sierra D. Element, Mister, Scooter Answer Key: 1-9B1: A 1-9B2: B 1-9B3: D 1-9B4: A 1-9B5: B 1-9B6: C Key Topic 10: Distress Communications 1-10B1 What information must be included in a Distress message? A. Name of vessel. B. Location. C. Type of distress and specifics of help requested. D. All of the above. 1-10B2 What are the highest priority communications from ships at sea? A. All critical message traffic authorized by the ship’s master. B. Navigation and meteorological warnings. C. Distress calls are highest and then communications preceded by Urgency and then Safety signals. D. Authorized government communications for which priority right has been claimed. 1-10B3 What is a Distress communication? A. Communications indicating that the calling station has a very urgent message concerning safety. B. An internationally recognized communication indicating that the sender is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate assistance. C. Radio communications which, if delayed, will adversely affect the safety of life or property. D. An official radio communication notification of approaching navigational or meteorological hazards. 1-10B4 What is the order of priority of radiotelephone communications in the maritime services? A. Alarm and health and welfare communications. B. Navigation hazards, meteorological warnings, priority traffic. C. Distress calls and signals, followed by communications preceded by Urgency and Safety signals and all other communications. D. Government precedence, messages concerning safety of life and protection of property, and traffic concerning grave and imminent danger. 1-10B5 The radiotelephone Distress call and message consists of: A. MAYDAY spoken three times, followed by the name of the vessel and the call sign in phonetics spoken three times. B. Particulars of its position, latitude and longitude, and other information which might facilitate rescue, such as length, color and type of vessel, and number of persons on board. C. Nature of distress and kind of assistance required. D. All of the above. 1-10B6 What is Distress traffic? A. All messages relative to the immediate assistance required by a ship, aircraft or other vehicle threatened by grave or imminent danger, such as life and safety of persons on board, or man overboard. B. In radiotelephony, the speaking of the word, “Mayday.” C. Health and welfare messages concerning property and the safety of a vessel. D. Internationally recognized communications relating to important situations. Answer Key: 1-10B1: D 1-10B2: C 1-10B3: B 1-10B4: C 1-10B5: D 1-10B6 A Key Topic 11: Urgency and Safety Communications 1-11B1 What is a typical Urgency transmission? A. A request for medical assistance that does not rise to the level of a Distress or a critical weather transmission higher than Safety. B. A radio Distress transmission affecting the security of humans or property. C. Health and welfare traffic which impacts the protection of on-board personnel. D. A communications alert that important personal messages must be transmitted. 1-11B2 What is the internationally recognized Urgency signal? A. The letters “TTT” transmitted three times by radiotelegraphy. B. The words “PAN PAN” spoken three times before the Urgency call. C. Three oral repetitions of the word “Safety” sent before the call. D. The pronouncement of the word “Mayday.” 1-11B3 What is a Safety transmission? A. A communications transmission which indicates that a station is preparing to transmit an important navigation or weather warning. B. A radiotelephony warning preceded by the words “PAN PAN.” C. Health and welfare traffic concerning the protection of human life. D. A voice call proceeded by the words “Safety Alert.” 1-11B4 The Urgency signal concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or person shall be sent only on the authority of: A. Master of ship. B. Person responsible for mobile station. C. Either Master of ship or person responsible for mobile station. D. An FCC-licensed operator. 1-11B5 The Urgency signal has lower priority than: A. Ship-to-ship routine calls. B. Distress. C. Safety. D. Security. 1-11B6 What safety signal call word is spoken three times, followed by the station call letters spoken three times, to announce a storm warning, danger to navigation, or special aid to navigation? A. PAN PAN. B. MAYDAY. C. SAFETY. D. SECURITE. Answer Key: 1-11B1: A 1-11B2: B 1-11B3: A 1-11B4: C 1-11B5: B 1-11B6: D Key Topic 12: GMDSS 1-12B1 What is the fundamental concept of the GMDSS? A. It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques. B. It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost commercial communications. C. It is intended to provide compulsory vessels with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels. D. It is intended to automate and improve emergency communications in the maritime industry. 1-12B2 The primary purpose of the GMDSS is to: A. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels. B. Provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications. C. Automate and improve emergency communications for the world’s shipping industry. D. Provide effective and inexpensive communications. 1-12B3 What is the basic concept of GMDSS? A. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation with minimum delay. B. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a Distress situation. C. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress will be rapidly alerted. D. All of these. 1-12B4 GMDSS is primarily a system based on? A. Ship-to-ship Distress communications using MF or HF radiotelephony. B. VHF digital selective calling from ship to shore. C. Distress, Urgency and Safety communications carried out by the use of narrow-band direct printing telegraphy. D. The linking of search and rescue authorities ashore with shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress or in need of assistance. 1-12B5 What is the responsibility of vessels under GMDSS? A. Vessels over 300 gross tons may be required to render assistance if such assistance does not adversely affect their port schedule. B. Only that vessel, regardless of size, closest to a vessel in Distress, is required to render assistance. C. Every ship is able to perform those communications functions that are essential for the Safety of the ship itself and of other ships. D. Vessels operating under GMDSS, outside of areas effectively serviced by shoreside authorities, operating in sea areas A2, and A4 may be required to render assistance in Distress situations. 1-12B6 GMDSS is required for which of the following? A. All vessels capable of international voyages. B. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. C. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coastal radio stations. D. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons. Answer Key: 1-12B1: D 1-12B2: C 1-12B3: D 1-12B4: D 1-12B5: C 1-12B6: B Subelement C – Equipment Operations: 6 Key Topics, 6 Exam Questions Key Topic 13: VHF Equipment Controls 1-13C1 What is the purpose of the INT-USA control settings on a VHF? A. To change all VTS frequencies to Duplex so all vessels can receive maneuvering orders. B. To change all VHF channels from Duplex to Simplex while in U.S. waters. C. To change certain International Duplex channel assignments to simplex in the U.S. for VTS and other purposes. D. To change to NOAA weather channels and receive weather broadcasts while in the U.S. 1-13C2 VHF ship station transmitters must have the capability of reducing carrier power to: A. 1 watt. B. 10 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 50 watts. 1-13C3 The Dual Watch (DW) function is used to: A. Listen to Ch-70 at the same time while monitoring Ch-16. B. Sequentially monitor 4 different channels. C. Sequentially monitoring all VHF channels. D. Listen on any selected channel while periodically monitoring Ch-16. 1-13C4 Which of the following statements best describes the correct setting for manual adjustment of the squelch control? A. Adjust squelch control to the minimum level necessary to barely suppress any background noise. B. Always adjust squelch control to its maximum level. C. Always adjust squelch control to its minimum level. D. Adjust squelch control to approximately twice the minimum level necessary to barely suppress any background noise. 1-13C5 The “Scan” function is used to: A. Monitor Ch-16 continuously and switching to either Ch-70 or Ch-13 every 5 seconds. B. Scan Ch-16 for Distress calls. C. Scan Ch-70 for Distress alerts. D. Sequentially scan all or selected channels. 1-13C6 Why must all VHF Distress, Urgency and Safety communications (as well as VTS traffic calls) be performed in Simplex operating mode? A. To minimize interference from vessels engaged in routine communications. B. To ensure that vessels not directly participating in the communications can hear both sides of the radio exchange. C. To enable an RCC or Coast station to only hear communications from the vessel actually in distress. D. To allow an RCC or Coast station to determine which transmissions are from other vessels and which transmissions are from the vessel actually in distress. Answer Key: 1-13C1: C 1-13C2: A 1-13C3: D 1-13C4: A 1-13C5: D 1-13C6: B Key Topic 14: VHF Channel Selection 1-14C1 What channel must VHF-FM-equipped vessels monitor at all times when the vessel is at sea? A. Channel 8. B. Channel 16. C. Channel 5A. D. Channel 1A. 1-14C2 What is the aircraft frequency and emission used for distress communications? A. 243.000 MHz - F3E. B. 121.500 MHz - F3E. C. 156.525 MHz - F1B. D. 121.500 MHz - A3E. 1-14C3 Which VHF channel is used only for digital selective calling? A. Channel 70. B. Channel 16. C. Channel 22A. D. Channel 6. 1-14C4 Which channel is utilized for the required bridge-to-bridge watch? A. DSC on Ch-70. B. VHF-FM on Ch-16. C. VHF-FM on Ch-13 in most areas of the continental United States. D. The vessel’s VHF working frequency. 1-14C5 Which channel would most likely be used for routine ship-to-ship voice traffic? A. Ch-16. B. Ch-08. C. Ch-70. D. Ch-22A. 1-14C6 What channel would you use to place a call to a shore telephone? A. Ch-16. B. Ch-70. C. Ch-28. D. Ch-06. Answer Key: 1-14C1: B 1-14C2: D 1-14C3: A 1-14C4: C 1-14C5: B 1-14C6: C Key Topic 15: MF-HF Equipment Controls 1-15C1 Which modes could be selected to receive vessel traffic lists from high seas shore stations? A. AM and VHF-FM. B. ARQ and FEC. C. VHF-FM and SSB. D. SSB and FEC. 1-15C2 Why must all MF-HF Distress, Urgency and Safety communications take place solely on the 6 assigned frequencies and in the simplex operating mode? A. For non-GMDSS ships, to maximize the chances for other vessels to receive those communications. B. Answers a) and c) are both correct. C. For GMDSS or DSC-equipped ships, to maximize the chances for other vessels to receive those communications following the transmission of a DSC call of the correct priority. D. To enable an RCC or Coast station to only hear communications from the vessel actually in distress. 1-15C3 To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a voice call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR operations. B. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. C. Select J3E mode for proper voice operations. D. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether FEC or ARQ is preferred. 1-15C4 MF/HF transceiver power levels should be set: A. To the lowest level necessary for effective communications. B. To the level necessary to maximize the propagation radius. C. To the highest level possible so as to ensure other stations cannot “break-in” on the channel during use. D. Both a) and c) are correct. 1-15C5 To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a TELEX call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR operations. B. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. C. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether ARQ or FEC is preferred. D. None of the above. 1-15C6 What is the purpose of the Receiver Incremental Tuning (RIT) or “Clarifier” control? A. It acts as a “fine-tune” control on the receive frequency. B. It acts as a “fine-tune” control on the transmitted frequency. C. It acts as a “fine-tune” control on both the receive and transmitted frequencies. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 1-15C1: D 1-15C2: B 1-15C3: C 1-15C4: A 1-15C5: B 1-15C6: A Key Topic 16: MF-HF Frequency & Emission Selection 1-16C1 On what frequency would a vessel normally call another ship station when using a radiotelephony emission? A. Only on 2182 kHz in ITU Region 2. B. On 2182 kHz or Ch-16, unless the station knows that the called vessel maintains a simultaneous watch on another intership working frequency. C. On the appropriate calling channel of the ship station at 15 minutes past the hour. D. On the vessel’s unique working radio channel assigned by the Federal Communications Commission. 1-16C2 What is the MF radiotelephony calling and Distress frequency? A. 2670 kHz. B. Ch-06 VHF. C. 2182 kHz. D. Ch-22 VHF. 1-16C3 For general communications purposes, paired frequencies are: A. Normally used with private coast stations. B. Normally used between ship stations. C. Normally used between private coast and ship stations. D. Normally used with public coast stations. 1-16C4 What emission must be used when operating on the MF distress and calling voice frequency? A. J3E – Single sideband telephony. B. A1A – On-off keying without modulation by an audio frequency. C. F3E – Frequency modulation telephony. D. A3E – Amplitude modulation telephony, double sideband. 1-16C5 Which of the following defines high frequency “ITU Channel 1212”? A. Ch-12 in the 16 MHz band. B. Ch-1216 in the MF band. C. The 12th channel in the 12 MHz band. D. This would indicate the 1st channel in the 12 MHz band. 1-16C6 For general communications purposes, simplex frequencies are: A. Normally used between ship stations and private coast stations. B. Normally used with public coast stations. C. Normally used between ship stations. D. Both a) and c) are correct. Answer Key: 1-16C1: B 1-16C2: C 1-16C3: D 1-16C4: A 1-16C5: C 1-16C6: D Key Topic 17: Equipment Tests 1-17C1 What is the proper procedure for testing a radiotelephone installation? A. A dummy antenna must be used to insure the test will not interfere with ongoing communications. B. Transmit the station’s call sign, followed by the word “test” on the frequency being used for the test. C. Permission for the voice test must be requested and received from the nearest public coast station. D. Short tests must be confined to a single frequency and must never be conducted in port. 1-17C2 When testing is conducted on 2182 kHz or Ch-16, testing should not continue for more than ______ in any 5-minute period. A. 2 minutes. B. 1 minute. C. 30 seconds. D. 10 seconds. 1-17C3 Under GMDSS, a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at sea? A. Daily. B. Annually, by a representative of the FCC. C. Weekly. D. Monthly. 1-17C4 The best way to test the MF-HF NBDP system is? A. Make a radiotelephone call to a coast station. B. Initiate an ARQ call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. C. Initiate an FEC call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. D. Initiate an ARQ call to a Coast Station and wait for the automatic exchange of answerbacks. 1-17C5 The best way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal is? A. Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal. B. Send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation. C. Send a message to another ship terminal. D. If the “Send” light flashes, proper operation has been confirmed. 1-17C6 When may you test a radiotelephone transmitter on the air? A. Between midnight and 6:00 AM local time. B. Only when authorized by the Commission. C. At any time (except during silent periods) as necessary to assure proper operation. D. After reducing transmitter power to 1 watt. Answer Key: 1-17C1: B 1-17C2: D 1-17C3: A 1-17C4: D 1-17C5: A 1-17C6: C Key Topic 18: Equipment Faults 1-18C1 Under normal circumstances, what do you do if the transmitter aboard your ship is operating off-frequency, overmodulating or distorting? A. Reduce to low power. B. Reduce audio volume level. C. Stop transmitting. D. Make a notation in station operating log. 1-18C2 Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output? A. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, power output is indicated. B. In SITOR communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. C. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes power meter to fluctuate slightly around the 60 watt reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF Power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. 1-18C3 If a ship radio transmitter signal becomes distorted: A. Reduce transmitter power. B. Use minimum modulation. C. Cease operations. D. Reduce audio amplitude. 1-18C4 What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system? A. A constant 30 volt reading on the GMDSS console voltmeter. B. After testing the station on battery power, the ammeter reading indicates a high rate of charge that then declines. C. After testing the station on battery power, a voltmeter reading of 30 volts for brief period followed by a steady 26 volt reading. D. None of the above. 1-18C5 Your antenna tuner becomes totally inoperative. What would you do to obtain operation on both the 8 MHz and 22 MHz frequency bands? A. Without an operating antenna tuner, transmission is impossible. B. It is impossible to obtain operation on 2 different HF bands, without an operating antenna tuner. C. Bypass the antenna tuner and shorten the whip to 15 ft. D. Bypass the antenna tuner. Use a straight whip or wire antenna approximately 30 ft long. 1-18C6 Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system that must be reported to the Master, then logged appropriately. A. Much higher noise level observed during daytime operation. B. No indication of power output when speaking into the microphone. C. When testing a radiotelephone alarm on 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna, the Distress frequency watch receiver becomes unmuted, an improper testing procedure. D. Failure to contact a shore station 600 nautical miles distant during daytime operation. Answer Key: 1-18C1: C 1-18C2: B 1-18C3: C 1-18C4: A 1-18C5: D 1-18C6: B Subelement D – Other Equipment: 6 Key Topics, 6 Exam Questions Key Topic 19: Antennas 1-19D1 What are the antenna requirements of a VHF telephony coast, maritime utility or ship station? A. The shore or on-board antenna must be vertically polarized. B. The antenna array must be type-accepted for 30-200 MHz operation by the FCC. C. The horizontally-polarized antenna must be positioned so as not to cause excessive interference to other stations. D. The antenna must be capable of being energized by an output in excess of 100 watts. 1-19D2 What is the antenna requirement of a radiotelephone installation aboard a passenger vessel? A. The antenna must be located a minimum of 15 meters from the radiotelegraph antenna. B. The antenna must be vertically polarized and as non-directional and efficient as is practicable for the transmission and reception of ground waves over seawater. C. An emergency reserve antenna system must be provided for communications on 156.800 MHz. D. All antennas must be tested and the operational results logged at least once during each voyage. 1-19D3 What is the most common type of antenna for GMDSS VHF? A. Horizontally polarized circular antenna. B. Long wire antenna. C. Both of the above. D. None of the above. 1-19D4 What is the purpose of the antenna tuner? A. It alters the electrical characteristics of the antenna to match the frequency in use. B. It physically alters the length of the antenna to match the frequency in use. C. It makes the antenna look like a half-wave antenna at the frequency in use. D. None of the above. 1-19D5 What advantage does a vertical whip have over a long wire? A. It radiates more signal fore and aft. B. It radiates equally well in all directions. C. It radiates a strong signal vertically. D. None of the above. 1-19D6 A vertical whip antenna has a radiation pattern best described by? A. A figure eight. B. A cardioid. C. A circle. D. An ellipse. Answer Key: 1-19D1: A 1-19D2: B 1-19D3: D 1-19D4: A 1-19D5: B 1-19D6: C Key Topic 20: Power Sources 1-20D1 For a small passenger vessel inspection, reserve power batteries must be tested: A. At intervals not exceeding every 3 months. B. At intervals not exceeding every 6 months C. Before any new voyage D. At intervals not exceeding 12 months, or during the inspection. 1-20D2 What are the characteristics of the Reserve Source of Energy under GMDSS? A. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time. B. Cannot be independent of the propelling power of the ship. C. Must be independent of the ship’s electrical system when the RSE is needed to supply power to the GMDSS equipment. D. Must be incorporated into the ship’s electrical system. 1-20D3 Which of the following terms is defined as a back-up power source that provides power to radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications when the vessel’s main and emergency generators cannot? A. Emergency Diesel Generator. C. Reserve Source of Diesel Power. B. Reserve Source of Energy. D. Emergency Back-up Generator. 1-20D4 In the event of failure of the main and emergency sources of electrical power, what is the term for the source required to supply the GMDSS console with power for conducting distress and other radio communications? A. Emergency power. C. Reserve source of energy. B. Ship’s emergency diesel generator. D. Ship’s standby generator 1-20D5 What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? A. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries). B. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications. C. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a distress alert. D. All newly constructed ships under GMDSS must have both emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications. 1-20D6 What is the meaning of “Reserve Source of Energy”? A. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship’s main and emergency sources of electrical power. B. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. C. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements. D. None of these. Answer Key: 1-20D1: D 1-20D2: C 1-20D3: B 1-20D4: C 1-20D5: D 1-20D6: A Key Topic 21: EPIRBs 1-21D1 What is an EPIRB? A. A battery-operated emergency position-indicating radio beacon that floats free of a sinking ship. B. An alerting device notifying mariners of imminent danger. C. A satellite-based maritime distress and safety alerting system. D. A high-efficiency audio amplifier. 1-21D2 When are EPIRB batteries changed? A. After emergency use; after battery life expires. B. After emergency use or within the month and year replacement date printed on the EPIRB. C. After emergency use; every 12 months when not used. D. Whenever voltage drops to less than 20% of full charge. 1-21D3 If a ship sinks, what device is designed to float free of the mother ship, is turned on automatically and transmits a distress signal? A. An emergency position indicating radio beacon. B. EPIRB on 2182 kHz and 405.025 kHz. C. Bridge-to-bridge transmitter on 2182 kHz. D. Auto alarm keyer on any frequency. 1-21D4 How do you cancel a false EPIRB distress alert? A. Transmit a DSC distress alert cancellation. B. Transmit a broadcast message to “all stations” canceling the distress message. C. Notify the Coast Guard or rescue coordination center at once. D. Make a radiotelephony “distress cancellation” transmission on 2182 kHz. 1-21D5 What is the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. A global satellite communications system for users in the maritime, land and aeronautical mobile services. B. An international satellite-based search and rescue system. C. A broadband military satellite communications network. D. A Wide Area Geostationary Satellite program (WAGS). 1-21D6 What is an advantage of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. It is compatible with the COSPAS-SARSAT Satellites and Global Maritime Distress Safety System (GMDSS) regulations. B. Provides a fast, accurate method for the Coast Guard to locating and rescuing persons in distress. C. Includes a digitally encoded message containing the ship’s identity and nationality. D. All of the above. Answer Key: 1-21D1: A 1-21D2: B 1-21D3: A 1-21D4: C 1-21D5: B 1-21D6: D Key Topic 22: SARTs 1-22D1 In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 3 GHz. B. S-band. C. 406 MHz. D. 9 GHz. 1-22D2 How should the signal from a Search And Rescue Radar Transponder appear on a RADAR display? A. A series of dashes. B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART. C. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. D. A series of twenty dashes. 1-22D3 What is the purpose of the SART’s audible tone alarm? A. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby. B. It informs survivors when the battery’s charge condition has weakened. C. It informs survivors when the SART switches to the “standby” mode. D. It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signaling on DSC. 1-22D4 Which statement is true regarding the SART? A. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one S-band navigational RADAR system. B. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by another vessel’s S-band navigational RADAR system. C. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one X-band navigational RADAR system. D. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by vessel’s X-band navigational RADAR system. 1-22D5 At what point does a SART begin transmitting? A. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the “on” position. B. It must be manually activated. C. If it has been placed in the “on” position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz RADAR signal. D. If it has been placed in the “on” position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in water. 1-22D6 How can a SART’s effective range be maximized? A. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation. B. The SART should be held as high as possible. C. Switch the SART into the “high” power position. D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching RADAR signal. Answer Key: 1-22D1: D 1-22D2: C 1-22D3: A 1-22D4: D 1-22D5: C 1-22D6: B Key Topic 23: Survival Craft VHF 1-23D1 Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 watts. C. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. 1-23D2 Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Operation on Ch-13. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. C. Simplex voice communications only. D. Operation on Ch-16. 1-23D3 With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate? A. Communication is permitted between survival craft. B. Communication is permitted between survival craft and ship. C. Communication is permitted between survival craft and rescue unit. D. All of the above. 1-23D4 Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on Ch-16. B. Operation on 457.525 MHz. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Any one of these. 1-23D5 Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristic(s)? A. Operation on Ch-16. B. Watertight. C. Permanently-affixed antenna. D. All of these. 1-23D6 What is the minimum power of the SCT A. Five watts. B. One watt. C. ¼ watt. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 1-23D1: C 1-23D2: A 1-23D3: D 1-23D4: A 1-23D5: D 1-23D6: B Key Topic 24: NAVTEX 1-24D1 NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. Immediately following traffic lists. B. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. C. On request of maritime mobile stations. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. 1-24D2 MSI can be obtained by one (or more) of the following: A. NAVTEX. B. SafetyNET. C. HF NBDP. D. All of the above. 1-24D3 Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 518 kHz. B. 2187.5 kHz. C. 4209.5 kHz. D. VHF channel 16 when the vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2. 1-24D4 What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system? A. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours. B. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. C. Programming the receiver to reject unwanted broadcasts. D. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours. 1-24D5 When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range? A. Local noontime. B. Middle of the night. C. Sunset. D. Post sunrise. 1-24D6 What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations? A. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore. B. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime. C. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km). D. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km). Answer Key: 1-24D1: B 1-24D2: D 1-24D3: A 1-24D4: C 1-24D5: B 1-24D6: C [END OF PROPOSED 2009 FCC COMMERCIAL ELEMENT 1 QUESTION POOL] share/E7R/0000775000175000017500000000000012223343500010721 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E7R/7R-32E10000664000175000017500000000031512223307264011552 0ustar jtnjtn32E1 B Which of the following would best be used for visual detection of a distressed vessel? A. A 9-GHz SART's beacon. B. An EPIRB's strobe light. C. A 121.5-MHz EPIRB beacon. D. A 406-MHz EPIRB beacon. share/E7R/7R-25D20000664000175000017500000000052512223307263011556 0ustar jtnjtn25D2 B Which of the following situations would normally use the Voice designation "Securite"? A. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). B. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. C. Messages containing information concerning the Safety of a mobile unit or person. D. Messages concerning On-scene communications. share/E7R/7R-2A40000664000175000017500000000026412223307260011465 0ustar jtnjtn2A4 C What equipment is programmed to initiate transmission of Distress alerts and calls to individual stations? A. NAVTEX B. GPS C. DSC Controller D. DSC Scanning Watch Receiver share/E7R/7R-47G10000664000175000017500000000050512223307265011564 0ustar jtnjtn47G1 C The quickest way to transmit a DSC Distress alert is: A. Select "Distress" priority from the menu and transmit an "all ships" call. B. Transmit a "MAYDAY" call on Ch-16. C. Press the "Distress Hot Key" as specified by the equipment manufacturer. D. Select "Distress Relay Select" from the menu and transmit the call. share/E7R/7R-19D10000664000175000017500000000021612223307262011554 0ustar jtnjtn19D1 C If a VHF-DSC Distress alert is transmitted what channel is used for follow-on voice transmission? A. Ch-12 B. Ch-70 C. Ch-16 D. Ch-13 share/E7R/7R-22D20000664000175000017500000000060412223307263011551 0ustar jtnjtn22D2 A A crewmember has accidentally transmitted a VHF-DSC Distress alert. What action should be taken? A. Stop the radio from repeating the alert then make an all stations call on Ch-16 canceling the inadvertent alert. B. Send a DSC call canceling the Distress alert. C. No specific action is necessary. D. Turn off the power and make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-70. share/E7R/7R-39F30000664000175000017500000000053412223307264011567 0ustar jtnjtn39F3 A How are NAVTEX broadcasts transmitted? A. Using FEC techniques. B. NAVTEX is transmitted by commercial coast radio stations following their traffic lists. C. NAVTEX is transmitted only when an Urgency or Distress broadcast is warranted. D. No more often than every two hours and should immediately follow the radiotelephone silent periods. share/E7R/7R-1A50000664000175000017500000000063612223307260011470 0ustar jtnjtn1A5 A What is the responsibility of compulsory GMDSS vessels? A. Every vessel must be able to perform communications functions essential for its own safety and the safety of other vessels. B. Vessels must transmit a DSC distress relay upon receipt of a DSC distress alert. C. Only the vessels closest to a Distress incident must render assistance. D. Vessels must immediately acknowledge all DSC distress alerts. share/E7R/7R-26D40000664000175000017500000000067512223307263011567 0ustar jtnjtn26D4 C The vessel's GMDSS operator fails to properly record the particulars of an incoming DSC Distress alert. Which statement is true? A. The details of the DSC alert are obtainable from the DSC address book. B. The details of the DSC Distress alert are irrevocably lost. C. The details of the DSC alert should be obtainable by accessing the DSC call data directory. D. The details of the DSC Distress alert are never stored for later review. share/E7R/7R-2A50000664000175000017500000000021012223307260011455 0ustar jtnjtn2A5 C What system provides accurate vessel position information to the GMDSS equipment? A. COSPAS-SARSAT B. EPIRB C. GPS D. Inmarsat-B share/E7R/7R-15C60000664000175000017500000000047612223307262011564 0ustar jtnjtn15C6 C Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true? A. All ship station MMSI must begin with a single zero and include the MID. B. All group station MMSI must begin with the MID. C. None of these answers are correct. D. All Coast Station MMSI must be 9 digits and begin with the MID and then two zeros. share/E7R/7R-39F60000664000175000017500000000036712223307264011576 0ustar jtnjtn39F6 C NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. Immediately following traffic lists. B. On request of maritime mobile stations. C. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. share/E7R/7R-43G60000664000175000017500000000054512223307265011571 0ustar jtnjtn43G6 C Proper and legal VHF operations require all of these except? A. The channel must be designated as valid for the nature or type of communications desired. B. Simplex, duplex and alpha channel modes must be correctly selected. C. The correct bandwidth must be selected by the operator. D. The power level must be appropriately chosen by the operator. share/E7R/7R-24D20000664000175000017500000000061512223307263011555 0ustar jtnjtn24D2 C Which of the following situations would normally use the Urgency priority? A. A crewmember falling over the side. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember with potential loss of life. C. A cargo shift or weather situation considered to be of greater hazard than would justify a Safety priority designation. D. An important meteorological warning concerning hazardous weather. share/E7R/7R-28E10000664000175000017500000000066612223307263011567 0ustar jtnjtn28E1 B How does the searching vessel's radar interrogate a survival craft SART? A. Activate the IFF interrogation system. B. The SART responds automatically and transmits the 12-blip signal when it detects the search craft or other vessels' X-Band radar signal. C. Maintains watch on VHF-FM Ch-70 for the SART's unique identifier. D. The SART responds automatically when it detects the search craft or other vessel's 10-cm radar signal. share/E7R/7R-42F50000664000175000017500000000043412223307265011563 0ustar jtnjtn42F5 C What services are available through Enhanced Group Calls? A. Maritime Safety Information and vessel traffic lists. B. Hourly NOAA weather broadcasts from the NWS. C. Maritime Safety Information and messages to pre-defined groups of subscribers. D. Coastal weather broadcasts. share/E7R/7R-38F30000664000175000017500000000105312223307264011563 0ustar jtnjtn38F3 B Which of the following statements is true? A. No NAVTEX receiver can be programmed to reject category A, B, D and L messages since they are mandatory to be received via NAVTEX. B. A GMDSS Radio Operator may choose to program certain NAVTEX receivers to reject category A, B, D and L messages if they are being received by another MSI system. C. Upon entering a new NAVTEX station's broadcast range, the GMDSS Radio Operator enters the station's SELCAL number. D. The GMDSS Radio Operator can select the "None" option in the message category menu. share/E7R/7R-47G40000664000175000017500000000045112223307265011567 0ustar jtnjtn47G4 B To send a Distress alert use the following procedure: A. Initiate a menu call to select Ch-16 for voice communications. B. Use the "Distress Hot Key" in an appropriate manner. C. Always insert the nature of the Distress first. D. Make a voice Mayday call on Ch-16 before any other action. share/E7R/7R-8B30000664000175000017500000000105712223307261011475 0ustar jtnjtn8B3 D Which statement is false regarding a GMDSS-equipped ship? A. A conditional or partial exemption may be granted, in exceptional circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the vessel is equipped. B. The regulations apply to all passenger ships regardless of size and cargo ships of 300 gross tons and upwards. C. Ships must carry at least two persons holding a GMDSS Radio Operator's license for Distress and Safety radio-communications purposes. D. Ships must have the required equipment inspected at least once every five years. share/E7R/7R-46G20000664000175000017500000000057212223307265011570 0ustar jtnjtn46G2 A What is the reason for the USA-INT control or function? A. It changes some channels that are normally duplex INT channels into simplex USA channels. B. It changes some channels that are normally simplex INT channels into duplex USA channels. C. When the control is set to "INT" the range is increased. D. It changes duplex USA channels to simplex for International use. share/E7R/7R-36E50000664000175000017500000000062412223307264011565 0ustar jtnjtn36E5 D What are the best resources for researching and planning equipment setups and updates prior to any potential Distress situation? A. NGA Pub. 117, Inmarsat handbook or manufacturer's equipment manuals. B. Inmarsat handbook, FCC Part 80 or ITU List of Coast stations. C. ITU List of Coast stations, IMO GMDSS handbook, FCC Part 80. D. Inmarsat handbook, NGA Pub. 117 or ITU List of Coast stations. share/E7R/7R-24D50000664000175000017500000000044712223307263011563 0ustar jtnjtn24D5 D The Urgency Priority should be used for: A. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). B. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. C. Messages concerning On-scene communications. D. Messages containing information concerning the Safety of a mobile unit or person. share/E7R/7R-41F10000664000175000017500000000015612223307265011557 0ustar jtnjtn41F1 A SafetyNETTM promulgates what type of information? A. MSI B. Traffic Lists C. News advisories D. MARAD share/E7R/7R-39F40000664000175000017500000000125212223307264011566 0ustar jtnjtn39F4 B What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver prints a particular type of message content from a programmed NAVTEX station? A. The serial number and type of message have already been received but additional printouts are generated to ensure receipt aboard the vessel. B. The serial number and type of message has not been previously received or the subject indicator has not been programmed for rejection. C. The subject indicator has been programmed for rejection by the operator but the message contains a priority override print command. D. The transmitting station ID covering your area has been programmed for rejection by the operator or has not been previously received. share/E7R/7R-12B50000664000175000017500000000022112223307262011543 0ustar jtnjtn12B5 D While underway, how frequently is the DSC controller required to be tested? A. Once a month B. Twice a week C. Once a week D. Once a day share/E7R/7R-49G10000664000175000017500000000054412223307265011571 0ustar jtnjtn49G1 A The DSC received call directory usually sorts and stores incoming calls in what manner? A. Received calls are typically divided into two directories distinguished by priority. B. All received calls are saved in a single category. C. Received calls are always divided into Distress and Urgency categories. D. Only received Distress calls are saved. share/E7R/7R-31E20000664000175000017500000000032312223307264011551 0ustar jtnjtn31E2 D What feature is not a component of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. 121.5 MHz emergency homing transmitter. B. Emergency transmission on 406.025 MHz. C. Float-free release bracket. D. Aural locator signal. share/E7R/7R-9B20000664000175000017500000000037712223307261011501 0ustar jtnjtn9B2 B Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found? A. These are located in CCIR #476. B. These are located in 47 CFR Part 80. C. These are located in FCC Part 83. D. These are published only by the U.S. Coast Guard. share/E7R/7R-49G50000664000175000017500000000037712223307265011601 0ustar jtnjtn49G5 A What precautions should be taken when reviewing received Distress messages? A. Take steps not to accidentally send a DSC acknowledgement or relay. B. Press the "Call" key when finished. C. Always save the message. D. No precautions are necessary. share/E7R/7R-29E10000664000175000017500000000100212223307263011551 0ustar jtnjtn29E1 A Which of the following statements concerning testing and maintenance of SARTs is true? A. Testing a SART should be done in a consistent manner & location to ensure a baseline history of proper results. B. Testing of the SART should never be done in port to prevent interference to other vessel's radars. C. A SART's battery must be replaced within ninety (90) days after the expiration date imprinted on the unit. D. An at-sea GMDSS maintainer is not able to test a SART because it is hermetically sealed. share/E7R/7R-10B10000664000175000017500000000054212223307262011543 0ustar jtnjtn10B1 D Which of the following maintenance functions is not the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Visual inspection of equipment, including the antenna and associated components. B. Perform on-the-air verification checks. C. Perform scheduled testing of the battery's charged condition. D. Aligning the power output stage for maximum power. share/E7R/7R-37F20000664000175000017500000000022012223307264011554 0ustar jtnjtn37F2 B When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range? A. Local noontime B. Middle of the night C. Afternoon D. Sunset share/E7R/7R-30E60000664000175000017500000000101112223307264011547 0ustar jtnjtn30E6 D Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true? A. The coded EPIRB signal identifies the nature of the Distress situation. B. The coded EPIRB signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry. C. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode. D. Once activated, these EPIRBs transmit a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. share/E7R/7R-20D60000664000175000017500000000071212223307263011553 0ustar jtnjtn20D6 A What precautions should be taken when viewing an incoming DSC Distress alert message? A. Be careful not to activate a DSC acknowledgement or relay. B. If the message is not clear make a DSC call to all ships requesting clarification. C. No precautions are necessary -- the unit will auto-acknowledge an incoming DSC Distress alert. D. If there are errors in the call the unit didn't auto-acknowledge via DSC and the watch officer must do so instead. share/E7R/7R-43G50000664000175000017500000000033512223307265011565 0ustar jtnjtn43G5 B Setting the squelch control to the end of its range without any noise being heard results in: A. Less background noise B. Minimum sensitivity C. Maximum sensitivity D. Does not have any effect on the sensitivity. share/E7R/7R-34E30000664000175000017500000000047212223307264011562 0ustar jtnjtn34E3 B The determination that the Distress traffic is over is usually made by whom? A. The vessel in Distress. B. The "On Scene Coordinator" and/or the RCC controlling the Distress traffic. C. The first Coast Station to receive the DSC Distress alert. D. Other vessels after nothing has been heard for some time. share/E7R/7R-36E20000664000175000017500000000065112223307264011562 0ustar jtnjtn36E2 C What information should be contained in a detailed Distress message that was not transmitted by an initial Distress "hot-key" alert? A. Vessel position, course & speed and the nature of Distress. B. The distress vessel's IMN and position at the time of alert. C. Vessel name & call sign, POB and all potential means to communicate with the vessel. D. Vessel name & call sign, distress vessel's IMN & vessel position. share/E7R/7R-29E60000664000175000017500000000027112223307264011566 0ustar jtnjtn29E6 B The SART is required to have sufficient battery capacity to operate in the stand-by mode for what period of time? A. Three days B. Four days C. Eight hours D. Forty-eight hours share/E7R/7R-34E50000664000175000017500000000021612223307264011560 0ustar jtnjtn34E5 C On Scene communications should be conducted on which of the following channels? A. 406 MHz B. VHF Ch-22A C. VHF Ch-16/06 D. VHF Ch-70 share/E7R/7R-34E20000664000175000017500000000027712223307264011564 0ustar jtnjtn34E2 A Which of the following channels is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-6 C. Ch-13 D. Ch-70 share/E7R/7R-6A50000664000175000017500000000050412223307261011470 0ustar jtnjtn6A5 C A ship operating exclusively in sea area A-1 must have the following provisions for maintenance: A. Carry an on-board maintainer plus duplication of equipment. B. Shore maintenance may not be selected. C. Only one option for maintenance is required. D. Must always select duplication of equipment to maximize safety. share/E7R/7R-40F30000664000175000017500000000037712223307265011565 0ustar jtnjtn40F3 D What system can provide an automated service in coastal waters where it may not be feasible to establish the NAVTEX service or where shipping density is too low to warrant its implementation? A. AMVER B. VHF DSC C. ARQ SITOR (NBDP) D. SafetyNETTM share/E7R/7R-20D40000664000175000017500000000024112223307263011546 0ustar jtnjtn20D4 A What is meant by the acronym "ECC" in a DSC message? A. Error Check Character B. Every Cipher Counted C. Error Cannot Confirm D. Even Characters Counted share/E7R/7R-19D20000664000175000017500000000055712223307262011565 0ustar jtnjtn19D2 D Why should you always follow on with a voice transmission after sending a DSC Distress alert? A. A voice follow on transmission is always necessary in a genuine Distress. B. To provide more information than is contained in the DSC message. C. To confirm for coast stations and other mariners that the Distress is genuine. D. All of these answers are correct. share/E7R/7R-6A10000664000175000017500000000127612223307261011473 0ustar jtnjtn6A1 D Which of the following statements concerning maintenance requirements is false? A. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A1 and A2 must provide any one of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based, or at-sea maintenance capability. B. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A3 and A4 must provide any two of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based, or at-sea maintenance capability. C. Equipment warranties do not satisfy GMDSS maintenance requirements. D. If shore-based maintenance is used, maintenance services do not have to be completed or performance verified unless the vessel will be sailing to a non-US port. share/E7R/7R-11B10000664000175000017500000000034612223307262011546 0ustar jtnjtn11B1 C Which FCC license meets the requirement to serve as a GMDSS operator? A. General Radiotelephone Operator's License. B. Marine Radio Operator's Permit. C. GMDSS Radio Operator's License D. GMDSS Radio Maintainer's License. share/E7R/7R-37F30000664000175000017500000000063312223307264011565 0ustar jtnjtn37F3 C What should a GMDSS Radio Operator do if a NAVTEX warning message is received but it contains too many errors to be usable? A. Contact the NAVAREA coordinator and request a repeat broadcast. B. Initiate a request for Category A, B, L and D messages. C. Do nothing. Vital NAVTEX messages will be repeated on the next scheduled broadcast. D. Listen to appropriate VHF weather channel for repeat warnings. share/E7R/7R-25D60000664000175000017500000000047512223307263011566 0ustar jtnjtn25D6 B Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. B. A scenario concerning an important navigational or meteorological warning. C. A crewmember falling over the side. D. Important company communications involving weather routing. share/E7R/7R-42F20000664000175000017500000000055112223307265011560 0ustar jtnjtn42F2 A What is the purpose of the dedicated EGC receiver for A-1 area GMDSS Vessels? A. To ensure receipt of MSI in areas without NAVTEX coverage. B. To allow monitoring of the vessels location for AMVER tracking. C. Simultaneous receipt and transmission of vessel SafetyNETTM messages. D. To track which NAVAREA the vessel is currently in for receipt of MSI. share/E7R/7R-45G60000664000175000017500000000016412223307265011570 0ustar jtnjtn45G6 B Which of the following channels may be used for duplex communications? A. Ch-70 B. Ch-26 C. Ch-5A D. Ch-22A share/E7R/7R-46G10000664000175000017500000000072712223307265011571 0ustar jtnjtn46G1 D The nearest Coast Guard station is being called by a vessel on Ch-22. That vessel's USA-INT switch is set to INT. What will be the results? A. There should be no problem carrying on communications. B. The Coast Guard station will not hear the call due to listening on a duplex receiving frequency. C. Neither station will hear the other's calls. D. The Coast Guard station will probably hear the call and respond but the vessel called will not hear the response. share/E7R/7R-8B50000664000175000017500000000124112223307261011472 0ustar jtnjtn8B5 D During an annual GMDSS station inspection: A. Licensed GMDSS operators may not be required to demonstrate equipment competencies but all required equipment must be fully operational. B. All required equipment must be fully operational and any required publications that are not current must be on order. C. GMDSS operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies and any of required equipment that is not fully operational can be repaired at the next port of call as long as there is functional duplication. D. All required documents and publications might have to be produced and GMDSS operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies. share/E7R/7R-16C20000664000175000017500000000051312223307262011551 0ustar jtnjtn16C2 C A VHF "Distress Hot Key" alert will always include what information? A. The nature of Distress and vessel position. B. The vessel's current position, course and speed from the GPS. C. The vessel's programmed MMSI number and code for Distress priority. D. The follow-on frequency required for Distress voice communications. share/E7R/7R-11B40000664000175000017500000000144612223307262011553 0ustar jtnjtn11B4 B Which statement is false regarding the radio operator requirements for a GMDSS-equipped ship station? A. One of the qualified GMDSS radio operators must be designated to have primary responsibility for radio-communications during Distress incidents. B. Maintaining a record of all incidents connected with the radio-communications service that appear to be of importance to Safety of life at sea is not required. C. A qualified GMDSS radio operator, and a qualified backup, must be designated to perform Distress, Urgency and Safety communications. D. While at sea, all adjustments or radio installations, servicing or maintenance of such installations that may affect the proper operation of the GMDSS station must be performed by, or under the supervision of, a qualified GMDSS radio maintainer. share/E7R/7R-8B60000664000175000017500000000054712223307261011503 0ustar jtnjtn8B6 A Which situation is least likely to result in an inspection of the radio installation by foreign governments or administrations? A. When a ship visits a port for the first time. B. When the ship's station license cannot be produced without delay. C. When operational irregularities are observed. D. When compulsory equipment is found to be inoperative. share/E7R/7R-21D40000664000175000017500000000073212223307263011554 0ustar jtnjtn21D4 D The relay of DSC Distress alerts: A. Was not originally an intended function of the GMDSS system but now is the preferred method to notify an RCC. B. Remains the preferred method for passing Distress message traffic to an RCC or Coast Station. C. Should always be done immediately to ensure a Coast Station receives the DSC Distress Alert. D. Can quickly overburden the GMDSS systems in the vicinity with improperly transmitted or inappropriately relayed DSC calls. share/E7R/7R-35E30000664000175000017500000000065412223307264011565 0ustar jtnjtn35E3 A Which statement is NOT true regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. The position of the EPRIB is always transmitted in the outgoing transmission (unless the unit is a GPIRB). B. Signals received by low altitude, near-polar orbiting satellites are relayed to a ground receiving station (LUT). C. Doppler shift is used to locate the position of the EPIRB. D. EPIRBs are satellite beacons used as alerting & homing devices. share/E7R/7R-23D40000664000175000017500000000051412223307263011554 0ustar jtnjtn23D4 B How is "radio silence" imposed? A. By the Land Earth Station (LES) controlling the Distress communications on that frequency. B. By the On Scene Coordinator (OSC) or the RCC chosen by the SAR Mission Coordinator. C. By the nearest Public Correspondence Coast Station. D. By the vessel first responding to the Distress call. share/E7R/7R-17C50000664000175000017500000000033412223307262011556 0ustar jtnjtn17C5 A What is the quickest method of transmitting a DSC Distress alert? A. Press the "Distress Hot Key". B. Make a "MAYDAY" call on Ch-70. C. Make a "MAYDAY" call on Ch-16. D. Select "Distress" priority from the menu. share/E7R/7R-29E20000664000175000017500000000101712223307263011560 0ustar jtnjtn29E2 B Why is it important to limit the duration of testing a SART? A. Excessive testing causes "burn in" on the vessel's radar display. B. Testing in port or even at sea may cause interference to other radars or a test signal may be misinterpreted as a genuine Distress situation. C. To prevent overheating, a SART requires sufficient ventilation that is significantly reduced when the SART is being tested. D. If another SART is testing at the same time, the two signals will cause damage to the unit that transmitted them. share/E7R/7R-44G20000664000175000017500000000040612223307265011562 0ustar jtnjtn44G2 C While conducting routine communications using the wheelhouse VHF with a station 1 mile distant, your recommended power setting would be: A. 25 watts after dark. B. 25 watts during a clear sunny day. C. 1 watt, day or night. D. 1 watt using DSC at night. share/E7R/7R-17C10000664000175000017500000000066612223307262011562 0ustar jtnjtn17C1 A A Ch-70 DSC Distress alert is received. What action should be taken? A. Silence the alarm, review the message and set up watch on Ch-16 to listen for Mayday communications. B. Silence the alarm and immediately call the master for further instructions. C. Review the incoming message information but take no action unless requested to do so by the RCC. D. Use DSC to immediately notify the vessel their Distress has been received. share/E7R/7R-50G30000664000175000017500000000051612223307265011562 0ustar jtnjtn50G3 B Which of the following statements on address book entries is not correct? A. Shore based telephone numbers may be entered for automatic telephone calls ashore. B. Address book entries can only be used to call shore stations. C. Public Correspondence Stations may be entered. D. A vessel's name and MMSI number may be entered. share/E7R/7R-45G20000664000175000017500000000033012223307265011557 0ustar jtnjtn45G2 B Which channel is utilized for the required Bridge-to-Bridge watch? A. DSC on Ch-70 B. VHF-FM on Ch-13 in most areas of the continental United States. C. VHF-FM on Ch-16 D. The vessel's VHF working frequency. share/E7R/7R-7A40000664000175000017500000000016512223307261011473 0ustar jtnjtn7A4 B What is the frequency range for Ultra High Frequency? A. 3-30 MHz B. 300-3,000 MHz C. 30-300 MHz D. 10-30 MHz share/E7R/7R-48G40000664000175000017500000000066612223307265011600 0ustar jtnjtn48G4 A If the vessel you wish to call is not listed in your VHF address book, what action would not resolve the problem? A. Look in the DSC Distress call data directory for the MMSI number of the other vessel. B. The vessel's MMSI number could be manually entered during the call setup. C. The vessel's name and MMSI number may be entered in the address book for use. D. Look the number up in the ITU books and manually call the vessel. share/E7R/7R-23D20000664000175000017500000000117612223307263011557 0ustar jtnjtn23D2 D When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposed? A. After determining that the frequency or channel appears to be no longer in use. B. After determining that geographic distance from the Distress situation will prohibit any other signal from interfering with emergency communications. C. If, in the master's opinion, communications on that frequency will interfere with emergency communications. D. Routine communications can resume after the Rescue Coordination Center transmits a message on the frequency or channel being used for emergency communications stating that such traffic has concluded. share/E7R/7R-22D10000664000175000017500000000046012223307263011550 0ustar jtnjtn22D1 D What action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on VHF? A. Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70. B. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13. C. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A. D. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16. share/E7R/7R-13B10000664000175000017500000000135712223307262011553 0ustar jtnjtn13B1 A Proper watchkeeping includes the following: A. After silencing an alarm all displays and/or printouts are read, monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode, notifying the Master of any Distress alerts. B. Monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode, setting the DSC scanner to 2 MHz, 4 MHZ and 8 MHz for ships in the vicinity, notifying the Master of any Distress alerts. C. Notifying the Master of any Distress alerts, setting the DSC scanner to 2 MHz, 4 MHZ and 8 MHz for ships in the vicinity, monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode. D. Setting the DSC scanner only to the mandatory 2 MHz & 8 MHz, maintain continuous watch on 2182.0 kHz or 4125.0 kHz, notify the Master of any Distress traffic heard. share/E7R/7R-50G60000664000175000017500000000041612223307266011565 0ustar jtnjtn50G6 D When initiating a DSC call through the menu system what is the most likely information that will be displayed after making the first correct keystroke? A. The Telecom-1 menu. B. The particulars of the previous call. C. The priority menu. D. The call setup menu. share/E7R/7R-38F40000664000175000017500000000056112223307264011567 0ustar jtnjtn38F4 C What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system? A. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours. B. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. C. Programming the receiver to reject certain stations and message categories. D. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours. share/E7R/7R-21D50000664000175000017500000000076412223307263011562 0ustar jtnjtn21D5 A Transmission of a Distress alert by a station on behalf of another vessel actually in Distress should not occur: A. When communications between the Distress vessel and a Coast station are already in progress. B. When the mobile unit actually in Distress is not itself in a position to transmit the Distress alert. C. When the Master or responsible person on the mobile unit not in Distress so decides. D. When the responsible person at the Coast Station determines further help is necessary. share/E7R/7R-21D20000664000175000017500000000063312223307263011552 0ustar jtnjtn21D2 B Your ship received a Distress relay from a coast station on DSC VHF channel 70. What action should the watch officer take? A. Retransmit the DSC call on Ch-70 to other vessels in the vicinity. B. Monitor Ch-16 to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. C. Monitor Ch-06 to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. D. Transmit a voice "Mayday Relay" call on Ch-13. share/E7R/7R-7A60000664000175000017500000000017112223307261011472 0ustar jtnjtn7A6 C What is the frequency range for Maritime VHF operations? A. 3-30 MHz B. 88-108 MHz C. 156-164 MHz D. 540-1640 kHz share/E7R/7R-21D30000664000175000017500000000064212223307263011553 0ustar jtnjtn21D3 C Under what condition would you not relay a DSC Distress alert? A. If the mobile unit in Distress is incapable of further Distress alert communications. B. If no Coast Station/Mobile Unit acknowledgement of the alert is observed. C. A coast station DSC acknowledgment of the original Distress alert was received by your vessel. D. No distress traffic has been heard and the DSC alert is unacknowledged via DSC. share/E7R/7R-5A30000664000175000017500000000026012223307261011464 0ustar jtnjtn5A3 C All passenger vessels must have what additional equipment? A. Inmarsat-B terminal B. Inmarsat-C terminal C. Aircraft Transceiver with 121.5 MHz D. MF-HF SSB Transceiver share/E7R/7R-43G20000664000175000017500000000037212223307265011563 0ustar jtnjtn43G2 D The Dual Watch (DW) function is used to: A. Listen to Ch-70 at the same time while monitoring Ch-16. B. Sequentially monitor 4 different channels. C. None of the above D. Listening on any selected channel while periodically monitoring Ch-16. share/E7R/7R-28E30000664000175000017500000000074312223307263011565 0ustar jtnjtn28E3 D How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity? A. The DSC unit will react to the SART's signal and respond with the two-tone auto alarm. B. The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical mile radius, per IMO standards. C. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on a SART. D. The SART's dots on the PPI will become arcs and then eventually become concentric circles. share/E7R/7R-17C40000664000175000017500000000032612223307262011556 0ustar jtnjtn17C4 D A DSC Distress alert is received. What action should be taken? A. Transmit a DSC acknowledgement. B. Call the nearest Coast Guard Station. C. No action is necessary. D. Advise the Master and monitor Ch-16. share/E7R/7R-39F10000664000175000017500000000052312223307264011563 0ustar jtnjtn39F1 C The NAVTEX message header contains the following? A. A two-digit number (01-99) indicates the NAVTEX message category. B. Message numbers include a date/time group, along with the transmitting station's numerical ID. C. The first letter (from A to Z) indicates the NAVTEX transmitting station. D. None of these answers is correct. share/E7R/7R-22D30000664000175000017500000000057212223307263011556 0ustar jtnjtn22D3 B What action is not applicable in preventing transmissions of false Distress alerts? A. Proper watch officer instruction and training. B. Disabling the unit's ability to perform DSC Relays & acknowledgments. C. Ensure that the protective cover over the "Distress Hot Key" is secure. D. Ensure that all officers read the operating manuals and are familiar with the menus. share/E7R/7R-44G40000664000175000017500000000036412223307265011567 0ustar jtnjtn44G4 A Much longer than normal VHF transmissions are typically caused by: A. Atmospheric ducting or tropospheric propagation. B. Changing power from 1W to 25 W. C. Skywave reflections from the D layer. D. Ionospheric activity in layers F1/F2. share/E7R/7R-23D60000664000175000017500000000110112223307263011547 0ustar jtnjtn23D6 C How are normal working conditions restored after radio silence has been imposed? A. All of these answers are correct. B. The Land Earth Station (LES) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". C. The Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SEELONCE FEENEE". D. The Public Correspondence Station (PCS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". share/E7R/7R-44G10000664000175000017500000000055212223307265011563 0ustar jtnjtn44G1 B Which of the following control selections may result in limited receiving range? A. Setting the squelch control to its minimum level. B. Setting the squelch control to its maximum level. C. The power switch is set to the "high" output position, resulting in receiver overloading. D. Setting the channel selection switch midway between channels 6 and 16. share/E7R/7R-3A30000664000175000017500000000045212223307260011464 0ustar jtnjtn3A3 A If a vessel is engaged in local trade and at no point in its voyage travels outside the range of a VHF shore station with continuous DSC alerting then the vessel is operating in what area? A. Sea area A1 B. Coastal and international zones C. Inland and coastal waters D. Sea areas A1 and A2 share/E7R/7R-50G20000664000175000017500000000072612223307265011564 0ustar jtnjtn50G2 A Which of the following statements is not true concerning the DSC call data directory? A. All DSC units typically store all of the Transmitted and Received DSC calls in a single directory. B. Some DSC units have both a Transmit and Receive message directory or database. C. Some DSC units have different directories for received calls and sort them by priority. D. Calls in the directory should not be deleted " they are necessary for inspections & logkeeping. share/E7R/7R-15C10000664000175000017500000000034312223307262011550 0ustar jtnjtn15C1 C A DSC call is received from a station with a MMSI number of 003669991. What type of station made the call? A. A vessel operating in Sea Area A3. B. A group ship station C. A U.S. coast station D. An Intercoastal vessel share/E7R/7R-35E40000664000175000017500000000044212223307264011561 0ustar jtnjtn35E4 B Which statement is NOT true regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. EPIRBs are satellite beacons used as alerting/locating devices. B. May be used to transmit public correspondence. C. Locates Distress beacons transmitting on 406 MHz. D. Doppler shift is used to locate the beacons. share/E7R/7R-42F60000664000175000017500000000035612223307265011567 0ustar jtnjtn42F6 D What messages originate from registered information providers anywhere in the world and are broadcast to the appropriate ocean region via a LES? A. AMVER broadcasts B. Urgency messages C. NAVTEX broadcasts D. SafetyNETTM messages share/E7R/7R-47G30000664000175000017500000000023712223307265011570 0ustar jtnjtn47G3 A A DSC Safety call might be used under the following conditions: A. Navigation Hazard B. Man overboard C. Distress situation D. Serious medical request share/E7R/7R-32E50000664000175000017500000000020612223307264011555 0ustar jtnjtn32E5 D What is an example of a locating signal? A. SSB phone traffic B. Ship to shore transmissions C. Loran C D. A float-free EPIRB share/E7R/7R-15C30000664000175000017500000000016212223307262011551 0ustar jtnjtn15C3 A A MMSI 030346239 indicates what? A. Group MMSI B. Inmarsat-C I.D. number C. Coast station D. Ship station share/E7R/7R-35E60000664000175000017500000000071012223307264011561 0ustar jtnjtn35E6 C Which statement is false regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system and EPIRB operations? A. The EPIRB's position is calculated by the system and passed to the MCC. B. The EPIRB transmits a unique Hex I.D. and vessel position that may be passed to the RCC. C. The EPIRB's position and Hex I.D. is passed instantaneously to the RCC. D. The EPIRB transmits a unique Hex I.D. that is passed to the RCC if it cannot be determined to be inadvertent by the MCC. share/E7R/7R-15C50000664000175000017500000000046112223307262011555 0ustar jtnjtn15C5 B Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is false? A. All Coast Station MMSI must begin with 2 zeros. B. All Coast Station MMSI must begin with the MID then 2 zeros. C. A group call must begin with a single zero followed by the MID. D. The first 3 digits of a ship MMSI comprise the MID. share/E7R/7R-33E30000664000175000017500000000060512223307264011557 0ustar jtnjtn33E3 C Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristic(s)? A. Permanently-affixed antenna, watertight, power 1W or 25W. B. Watertight, power a minimum of 1W, operation on CH-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70. C. Operation on Ch-16, watertight, permanently-affixed antenna. D. Operation on Ch-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70, power 1W, permanently-affixed antenna. share/E7R/7R-38F50000664000175000017500000000124312223307264011566 0ustar jtnjtn38F5 C What statement is true regarding the control the operator can exercise over the NAVTEX receiver's operation? A. The operator can set the unit to automatically reject any and all categories of messages if the ship desires to not receive them. B. Upon entering a coastal area for the first time, the operator enters code KK to indicate "ready to receive NAVTEX". C. The operator can set most units to reject all messages except navigation, meteorological warnings, and search and rescue messages. If the unit will reject such messages it may be unsafe to do so. D. To reduce the number of messages, the operator can select code 00 to indicate "not in coastal passage". share/E7R/7R-33E40000664000175000017500000000046512223307264011564 0ustar jtnjtn33E4 D Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Operation on Ch-16 B. Antenna must be permanently-affixed. C. Simplex (single frequency) voice communications only. D. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 2.0 Watts. share/E7R/7R-30E40000664000175000017500000000063212223307264011555 0ustar jtnjtn30E4 C Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is false? A. EPIRBs, ELTs, and PLBs use the system primarily for Distress alerting. B. These satellites monitor 406 MHz for EPIRB signals. C. After initiating a call request and selecting the LES, these satellites may be used for commercial messages. D. These satellites use Doppler shift measurement to determine the location of the beacons. share/E7R/7R-14C10000664000175000017500000000022712223307262011550 0ustar jtnjtn14C1 D What is the MID? A. Mobile Identification Number B. Marine Indemnity Directory C. Mobile Interference Digits D. Maritime Identification Digits share/E7R/7R-2A60000664000175000017500000000013312223307260011462 0ustar jtnjtn2A6 D Which of these can be used to receive MSI? A. SART B. EPIRB C. Inmarsat-B D. NAVTEX share/E7R/7R-18C40000664000175000017500000000025612223307262011561 0ustar jtnjtn18C4 C Repetition of a DSC Distress call is normally automatic if not acknowledged after a delay of: A. 2 - 5 minutes B. 10-15 minutes C. 3.5 - 4.5 minutes D. 1 - 2 minutes share/E7R/7R-22D40000664000175000017500000000076012223307263011556 0ustar jtnjtn22D4 C The EPIRB on the bridge wing is observed with the strobe light flashing and the control switch in the "ON" position. What action(s) should be taken? A. Disabling the EPIRB is all that is necessary. B. Contact the nearest USCG Coast Station and request that they send the alert reset signal. C. Contact the nearest coast station or RCC to cancel the distress alert and subsequently disable the EPIRB. D. Disable the EPIRB and wait for the USCG to advise that the transmission has stopped. share/E7R/7R-38F20000664000175000017500000000050512223307264011563 0ustar jtnjtn38F2 A How can reception of certain NAVTEX broadcasts be prevented? A. The receiver can be programmed to reject certain stations and message categories. B. Stations are limited to daytime operation only. C. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. D. Automatic receiver desensitization during night hours. share/E7R/7R-38F60000664000175000017500000000063112223307264011567 0ustar jtnjtn38F6 D Which messages are mandatory to be received and should not typically be rejected or disabled by the operator of a NAVTEX receiver? A. Meteorological warnings, SAR information, Pilot Service Messages. B. Meteorological warnings, meteorological forecasts, navigational warnings. C. SAR information, navigational warnings, ice reports. D. Navigational warnings, meteorological warnings, SAR information. share/E7R/7R-43G40000664000175000017500000000034612223307265011566 0ustar jtnjtn43G4 B The "Scan" function is used to: A. Monitor Ch-16 continuously and switching to either Ch-70 or Ch-13 every 5 seconds. B. Sequentially scan all or selected channels. C. Scan Ch-70 for Distress alerts. D. None of the above. share/E7R/7R-38F10000664000175000017500000000062212223307264011562 0ustar jtnjtn38F1 D How is a NAVTEX receiver programmed to reject certain messages? A. The transmitting station's two-digit identification can be entered to de-select reception of its broadcasts. B. By entering the SELCAL of the NAVTEX transmitting station. C. By pressing "00" in the transmitter's ID block. D. By choosing a message category's single letter (A-Z) identifier and then deselecting or deactivating. share/E7R/7R-35E50000664000175000017500000000033112223307264011557 0ustar jtnjtn35E5 B What information is transmitted by a 406 MHz EPIRB alert? A. Vessel position and nature of Distress. B. A unique Hexadecimal I.D. number. C. Vessel name and identification. D. Vessel MMSI number and position. share/E7R/7R-28E60000664000175000017500000000065612223307263011573 0ustar jtnjtn28E6 A What is not an advantage of an AIS SART signal when compared to a radar-based SART signal? A. The AIS SART can be detected much farther away than radar SART models. B. Not every AIS transmission needs to be received to achieve an accurate presentation of the location. C. The AIS SART position has GPS accuracy and transmits on AIS VHF frequencies. D. AIS SART units may be easier to find in poor radar target conditions. share/E7R/7R-26D60000664000175000017500000000057412223307263011567 0ustar jtnjtn26D6 D What is the best method of determining whether a Distress situation is genuine? A. Check your 3-cm radar for a SART signal from the Distress vessel. B. Monitor the 406 MHz EPIRB signal to locate the vessel in Distress. C. Check the NAVTEX for U.S.C.G. confirmation of the Distress from the RCC. D. Monitor the follow on frequency for actual voice Distress communications. share/E7R/7R-35E10000664000175000017500000000062012223307264011554 0ustar jtnjtn35E1 C Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a Distress situation when embarking in survival craft? A. EPIRB and SART switched on manually prior to embarking; remain aboard vessel in Distress. B. Notify RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF DSC in portable equipment. C. Switch on EPIRB and SART immediately and leave on. D. Communicate via Inmarsat-C from the survival craft. share/E7R/7R-12B10000664000175000017500000000033312223307262011543 0ustar jtnjtn12B1 B Under GMDSS, a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at sea? A. Annually, by a representative of the FCC. B. Daily C. At the annual SOLAS inspection. D. Monthly share/E7R/7R-41F60000664000175000017500000000066412223307265011570 0ustar jtnjtn41F6 B In using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information): A. Only unscheduled Urgency and Distress messages will be received if the Inmarsat-C SES is not logged in. B. All of these answers are correct. C. Both scheduled MSI and unscheduled Urgency and Distress messages will be received if the Inmarsat-C SES is logged in. D. The Inmarsat-C SES must have Enhanced Group Calling (EGC) capability to receive MSI. share/E7R/7R-6A60000664000175000017500000000031112223307261011465 0ustar jtnjtn6A6 D A ship operating in sea area A-1 must have the following provisions for maintenance: A. Shore maintenance. B. Duplication of equipment. C. At Sea Maintenance. D. Any one of these is sufficient. share/E7R/7R-45G30000664000175000017500000000016612223307265011567 0ustar jtnjtn45G3 C What channel would you use for routine communications with the U.S.C.G.? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-80 C. Ch-22A D. Ch-13 share/E7R/7R-27E60000664000175000017500000000025312223307263011563 0ustar jtnjtn27E6 C A SART's signal cannot be detected: A. In poor visibility, or at night. B. In heavy seas. C. By a search vessel's 10 cm Radar. D. By a search vessel's 3 cm Radar. share/E7R/7R-23D10000664000175000017500000000071212223307263011551 0ustar jtnjtn23D1 C What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence? A. To ensure that interference to proprietary communications is minimized. B. To ensure that only voice communications can be effected on the Distress frequency or channel. C. To mitigate the risk of interference on a frequency or channel being used for emergency communications. D. To ensure that a Distressed vessel will have a "window" twice each hour for transmitting routine messages. share/E7R/7R-5A10000664000175000017500000000101612223307261011462 0ustar jtnjtn5A1 A Which statement is true regarding a vessel equipped with GMDSS equipment that will remain in Sea Area A1 at all times? A. The vessel must be provided with a radio installation capable of initiating the transmission of ship-to-shore Distress alerting from the position from which the ship is normally navigated. B. VHF DSC alerting may be the sole means of Distress alerting. C. HF or MF DSC may satisfy the equipment requirement. D. HF SSB with 2182 kHz automatic alarm generator may satisfy the equipment requirement. share/E7R/7R-21D60000664000175000017500000000066612223307263011564 0ustar jtnjtn21D6 B You are in voice communication on Ch-16 with a vessel in Distress that advises you they are unable to contact a Coast Station. What action would you take? A. Send a DSC Distress Relay transmission on Ch-16. B. Attempt to contact a Coast Station using voice on Ch-16 with a Mayday Relay. C. Make an all ships call with Urgency priority. D. Call the Coast Station on Ch-70 with Distress priority giving the other vessel's position. share/E7R/7R-26D10000664000175000017500000000100012223307263011543 0ustar jtnjtn26D1 D Which of the following steps should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a Distress situation? A. Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable Inmarsat unit. B. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location and situation. C. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate properly. D. Secure the EPIRB to the survival craft and mount the SART in a position to maximize its elevation. share/E7R/7R-16C10000664000175000017500000000032212223307262011546 0ustar jtnjtn16C1 B When making a routine DSC call to another vessel what information should be included? A. Time of transmission. B. Proposed working channel. C. Your own vessel's position. D. Subject matter of the call. share/E7R/7R-7A50000664000175000017500000000016612223307261011475 0ustar jtnjtn7A5 B What is the frequency range for Super High Frequency? A. 30-300 GHz B. 3-30 GHz C. 300-3,000 MHz D. 30-300 MHz share/E7R/7R-7A10000664000175000017500000000017112223307261011465 0ustar jtnjtn7A1 C What is the frequency range for Medium Frequency? A. 10-30 MHz B. 1,000-10,000 kHz C. 300-3,000 kHz D. 30-300 kHz share/E7R/7R-16C40000664000175000017500000000056012223307262011555 0ustar jtnjtn16C4 A A "Distress Hot Key" VHF DSC Distress alert: A. Always goes out on the DSC frequency of Ch-70 to alert other stations. B. Must go out on Ch-16 and Ch-70 to indicate "MAYDAY" traffic will follow. C. Must go out on Ch-16 to alert the nearest vessels and coast stations of imminent "MAYDAY" traffic. D. May go out on Ch-70 or Ch-16 depending on the manufacturer. share/E7R/7R-8B40000664000175000017500000000106012223307261011470 0ustar jtnjtn8B4 A Which statement is false regarding a GMDSS equipped ship? A. A conditional or partial exemption may not be granted, in exceptional circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the ship is equipped. B. Ships must have the required equipment inspected at least once every 12 months. C. The regulations apply to all passenger ships regardless of size and cargo ships of 300 gross tons and upwards. D. Ships must carry at least two persons holding a GMDSS Radio Operator's license for Distress and Safety radio-communications purposes. share/E7R/7R-19D60000664000175000017500000000046312223307263011566 0ustar jtnjtn19D6 C What information is not vital in a Distress follow on voice transmission after a DSC Alert? A. Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. B. Ship's Name, Call Sign and MMSI number. C. Company emergency contact information. D. Physical description of the vessel and number of POB. share/E7R/7R-37F40000664000175000017500000000072712223307264011572 0ustar jtnjtn37F4 D Which of these cannot happen when a paper model NAVTEX receiver runs out of paper? A. The unit is unable to print messages and all subsequent MSI broadcasts may be missed until the paper is replaced. B. It may give off either an audible and/or visual alarm. C. MSI messages may be missed because the unit cannot print them out. D. The system will automatically change from receiving MSI by NAVTEX to receiving it by SafetyNET TM so that no messages will be lost. share/E7R/7R-37F60000664000175000017500000000047512223307264011574 0ustar jtnjtn37F6 B What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations? A. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore. B. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km). C. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime. D. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km). share/E7R/7R-23D50000664000175000017500000000046612223307263011563 0ustar jtnjtn23D5 B What is the reason for imposing radio silence? A. To keep a clear channel open for Safety broadcasts. B. To prevent interference to Distress communications. C. To allow individual vessels to carry out direct communications. D. To listen periodically for other vessels sending Distress alerts on Ch-70. share/E7R/7R-27E40000664000175000017500000000063312223307263011563 0ustar jtnjtn27E4 B Which statement is NOT true regarding the SART? A. Responds to interrogations by a vessel's X-Band radar and transmits a signal. B. This is a 6 GHz transponder capable of being received by a vessel's X-band navigational radar system. C. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by a vessel's X-band navigational radar system. D. Transmits a distinctive 12-blip signal for easy recognition. share/E7R/7R-31E30000664000175000017500000000054412223307264011557 0ustar jtnjtn31E3 A What statement is true regarding 406 MHz EPIRB transmissions? A. Transmits a unique hexadecimal identification number. B. Allows immediate voice communications with the RCC. C. Coding permits the SAR authorities to know if manually or automatically activated. D. GMDSS Radio Operator programs an I.D. into the SART immediately prior to activation. share/E7R/7R-30E20000664000175000017500000000026312223307264011553 0ustar jtnjtn30E2 A Which of the following satellite systems is of particular & dedicated importance to search and rescue missions under GMDSS? A. COSPAS/SARSAT B. Inmarsat C. GPS D. Iridium share/E7R/7R-30E50000664000175000017500000000074212223307264011560 0ustar jtnjtn30E5 C Which of the following statements concerning the EPIRB system is true? A. GOES weather satellites will provide alerting with complete worldwide coverage. B. COSPAS-SARSAT satellites always provides an alert and position report within 10 minutes of reception. C. The Inmarsat system will not provide alerts and position report for 406 MHz EPIRBs equipped with GPS receivers. D. The GPS satellite system will relay an alert and position report within 20 minutes of reception. share/E7R/7R-33E50000664000175000017500000000044312223307264011561 0ustar jtnjtn33E5 A Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of VHF Survival Craft Transceivers? A. Operation on Ch-13 is mandatory. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. C. Simplex (single frequency) voice communications only. D. Operation on Ch-16 is mandatory. share/E7R/7R-43G10000664000175000017500000000051312223307265011557 0ustar jtnjtn43G1 C Adjusting the volume control has the following results: A. The higher the volume control is set the greater the sensitivity. B. The volume control sets the threshold for receiving signals. C. Adjusting the volume control has no effect on the sensitivity. D. The lower the volume control is set the greater the sensitivity. share/E7R/7R-3A20000664000175000017500000000064512223307260011467 0ustar jtnjtn3A2 D If a vessel is on a voyage from Miami, Florida to Houston, Texas what Sea Areas may it transit through? A. Sea area A3 if it is beyond range of a MF-DSC equipped coast station. B. Sea area A2 or A3 if it is not within range of a VHF-DSC equipped coast station. C. Sea area A1 only if within range of a VHF-DSC equipped coast station. D. All of these answers may be correct depending on coast station DSC coverage. share/E7R/7R-15C40000664000175000017500000000050112223307262011547 0ustar jtnjtn15C4 B Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true? A. Coast station MMSI numbers have 9 digits starting with 4. B. All MMSI numbers are 9 digits and contain an MID. C. Ship station MMSI numbers can be 7 digits or 9 digits depending on the Inmarsat terminal. D. Group MMSI numbers must begin with 2 zeros. share/E7R/7R-19D40000664000175000017500000000104712223307262011562 0ustar jtnjtn19D4 B What is the proper format for a Distress follow on voice transmission? (3x is three times), A. All Ships 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. B. Mayday 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. C. Mayday 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign once, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. D. All Stations 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. share/E7R/7R-5A50000664000175000017500000000054712223307261011476 0ustar jtnjtn5A5 A If operating within Ocean Area A1, and outside of NAVTEX coverage, a GMDSS-equipped vessel must carry: A. Equipment capable of reception of Maritime Safety Information by the Inmarsat enhanced group call system, or HF SITOR (NBDP). B. A GPS receiver. C. Equipment capable of maintaining a continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz. D. An Inmarsat-B terminal. share/E7R/7R-24D10000664000175000017500000000014212223307263011547 0ustar jtnjtn24D1 B The Radiotelephone Urgency signal is: A. Mayday B. Pan Pan C. Securite D. Seelonce Feenee share/E7R/7R-44G30000664000175000017500000000034312223307265011563 0ustar jtnjtn44G3 D Which of the following factors does not normally affect the range of VHF transmissions? A. Salt water ingress into the antenna coaxial cable. B. Power level setting. C. Vessel antenna height. D. Ionospheric refraction. share/E7R/7R-43G30000664000175000017500000000046612223307265011570 0ustar jtnjtn43G3 A Setting the squelch control to just beyond the point where the background noise disappears results in: A. Maximum sensitivity without background noise. B. Reduced sensitivity without background noise. C. Minimum background noise with reduced sensitivity. D. Greater bandwidth without background noise. share/E7R/7R-29E30000664000175000017500000000160112223307263011560 0ustar jtnjtn29E3 C What statement is true regarding tests and maintenance that could be provided for the SART? A. Full verification within manufacturer's specifications by the on-board maintainer would be a requirement for all vessels in the A3 & A4 sea areas using measuring equipment to generate 9 GHz signals. B. Battery should be replaced within the 90 day grace period following the manufacturer's expiration date shown on the SART and the SART should only be tested at-sea to reduce interference to other vessels. C. Extreme care should be exercised because testing of the SART may be received by other vessels, may be interpreted as a Distress condition, or it may interfere with other vessels' safe navigation. D. Battery should be replaced with a new one before the manufacturer's expiration date shown on the SART and the SART should only be tested in port to reduce interference to other vessels. share/E7R/7R-27E30000664000175000017500000000062612223307263011564 0ustar jtnjtn27E3 A How can a SART's detection and effective range be maximized? A. The SART should be held or mounted as high as possible and in a vertical position. B. The SART should be placed in water immediately so it will begin transmitting. C. Switch the SART into the "high" power position. D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching radar signal. share/E7R/7R-41F50000664000175000017500000000103412223307265011557 0ustar jtnjtn41F5 A To receive all mandatory MSI using the SafetyNET TM system the vessel must: A. Log-in and ensure the position is accurate to receive MSI for the NAVAREA the vessel is currently within. B. Notify the NAVAREA coordinator you are using SafetyNET TM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information). C. Set the receiver to your destination Inmarsat Ocean Region. D. Notify the NAVAREA coordinator you are using SafetyNET TM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information) and set the receiver to your destination Ocean Region. share/E7R/7R-50G40000664000175000017500000000053412223307265011563 0ustar jtnjtn50G4 C The VHF-DSC self-test function (if available) usually performs the following: A. Transmits a very weak DSC signal which is picked up by the Ch-70 receiver. B. Transmits a weak voice signal which is picked up on Ch-16. C. Makes a diagnostic test of the system without actually transmitting a signal. D. Does a check sum of the memory chips. share/E7R/7R-6A30000664000175000017500000000070312223307261011467 0ustar jtnjtn6A3 B Which of the following is a GMDSS requirement for all vessels over 300 gross tons operating within range of a MF-DSC equipped shore station? A. Ship's Master or radio officer must be on watch at all times. B. Only one of the three maintenance options is required. C. MF communications must be handled by the holder of a General Radiotelephone Operator's License. D. Only FCC required spare parts and a maintenance kit for repairs are required. share/E7R/7R-8B20000664000175000017500000000065012223307261011472 0ustar jtnjtn8B2 C What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections? A. U.S. Coast Guard annual inspection. B. FCC inspection every five years. C. An inspection at least once every 12 months by the FCC or a holder of a GMDSS Maintainers license. D. Periodic inspections not required if on board maintainers perform routine preventive maintenance. share/E7R/7R-18C30000664000175000017500000000077312223307262011564 0ustar jtnjtn18C3 B If a GMDSS Radio Operator initiates a DSC Distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens? A. The transmission is aborted and an alarm sounds to indicate this data must be provided by the operator. B. The transmission will be made with "default" information provided automatically. C. The transmission is not initiated and "ERROR" is indicated on the display readout. D. The receiving station will poll the DSC unit of the vessel in Distress to download the necessary information. share/E7R/7R-18C50000664000175000017500000000060512223307262011560 0ustar jtnjtn18C5 C A VHF-DSC Distress alert call: A. Using the "Distress Button" or "Distress Hot Key" ensures that all information pertinent to a Distress will be transmitted. B. Contains information on the vessel's course and speed. C. Can include the nature of the distress if time permits and operator selects it D. Will always contain accurate positions from GPS units and correct MMSI numbers. share/E7R/7R-29E50000664000175000017500000000050212223307263011561 0ustar jtnjtn29E5 A Which is NOT a valid maintenance and testing function for a SART? A. Operational test with several vessels to determine effective transmitting range. B. Inspection of container for apparent damage. C. Inspect battery expiration date and the lanyard condition. D. Brief operational test utilizing own ship's radar. share/E7R/7R-16C50000664000175000017500000000063012223307262011554 0ustar jtnjtn16C5 D Which statement is true regarding vessel position when sending a "Distress Hot Key" alert? A. The operator must choose to include the position. B. The vessel's position will always be correct if taken from the connected GPS. C. A connected GPS is always required to ensure the Distress position is accurate. D. The position will either be taken from the connected GPS or the updated manual position. share/E7R/7R-34E40000664000175000017500000000022312223307264011555 0ustar jtnjtn34E4 C On Scene communications are usually initiated using what equipment? A. EPIRB on 121.5 MHz B. SART on 9 GHz C. VHF on Ch-16 D. VHF on Ch-70 share/E7R/7R-25D10000664000175000017500000000052212223307263011552 0ustar jtnjtn25D1 A When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "Securite" spoken three times, he can expect to receive the following information: A. A message concerning the Safety of navigation. B. The safety of vessel or person is in jeopardy. C. A vessel is in need of immediate assistance. D. A Coast Station sending an important traffic list. share/E7R/7R-15C20000664000175000017500000000020212223307262011543 0ustar jtnjtn15C2 D A valid MMSI number for a DSC call to a specific group of vessels is: A. 003664523 B. 338462941 C. 003036483 D. 030327931 share/E7R/7R-14C50000664000175000017500000000020412223307262011547 0ustar jtnjtn14C5 C Which of the following MMSI numbers indicates a U.S. flag ship station? A. 430326890 B. 033609991 C. 303236824 D. 257326819 share/E7R/7R-12B30000664000175000017500000000041212223307262011543 0ustar jtnjtn12B3 D Which term describes the source of energy required to supply the GMDSS console with power if the ship's source of main or emergency energy fails? A. Emergency power B. Ship's emergency diesel generator C. Ship's standby generator D. Reserve Source of Energy share/E7R/7R-33E60000664000175000017500000000053212223307264011561 0ustar jtnjtn33E6 B Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. C. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. share/E7R/7R-28E50000664000175000017500000000066612223307263011573 0ustar jtnjtn28E5 D How can vessel personnel detect the operation of a SART in its vicinity? A. A unique two-tone "warbling" signal heard on VHF-FM Ch-70. B. It will activate an AIS new signal alarm on the AIS receiver. C. The SART signal appears as a target that comes and goes -- due to the effect of heavy swells on a SART. D. A unique 3-cm signal consisting of a 12-dot pattern radiating outward from a SART's position along its line of bearing. share/E7R/7R-27E10000664000175000017500000000067312223307263011564 0ustar jtnjtn27E1 C What indication is given to the personnel in a survival craft of the approach of SAR craft? A. The Satellite EPIRB will change its strobe light pattern to indicate radar interrogation. B. The SART informs survivors when the SART switches to the "standby" mode. C. The SART may provide a visual or audible indication of interrogation by a 3-cm radar. D. The AIS SART will alarm to indicate that SAR craft with radars are getting close. share/E7R/7R-48G30000664000175000017500000000025612223307265011572 0ustar jtnjtn48G3 D What would be the appropriate channel selection for follow-on voice communications for a Routine priority call to another vessel? A. Ch-70 B. Ch-16 C. Ch-22 D. Ch-08 share/E7R/7R-16C30000664000175000017500000000060212223307262011551 0ustar jtnjtn16C3 D When sending a DSC call: A. Vessel's position will automatically be sent with DSC calls specifying an alternate frequency. B. Vessel's MMSI will indicate its ocean region and vessel position. C. Vessel's MMSI and position will automatically be sent for all types of DSC calls. D. Vessel's position will automatically be sent if the vessel is sending a "Distress Hot Key" alert. share/E7R/7R-9B10000664000175000017500000000047412223307261011476 0ustar jtnjtn9B1 A Which of the following references should be consulted for information on the proper setup and use of GMDSS equipment? A. The manufacturer's operating manuals. B. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. C. Instructions are available through the Maritime Safety Information (MSI) system. D. ITU List of Equipment Operations. share/E7R/7R-26D50000664000175000017500000000060012223307263011554 0ustar jtnjtn26D5 C What action(s) should be taken when abandoning ship? A. Send a VHF-DSC Distress alert on Ch-16 before going to the boats. B. Activate the EPIRB and leave it secured to the mounting bracket. C. Take EPIRB, SART and SCT units to the survival craft and use as circumstances dictate. D. Once in the survival craft " activate the EPIRB and send a VHF-DSC Distress alert on Ch-16 share/E7R/7R-22D60000664000175000017500000000102612223307263011554 0ustar jtnjtn22D6 D The EPIRB on the bridge wing is observed with the strobe light flashing and the control switch in the "OFF" position. What action should be taken? A. Place the control switch in the "OFF" position. B. No action is needed " the strobe light indicates the automatic monthly self test is in progress. C. Wait for the USCG or NOAA to confirm that the unit is actually transmitting. D. Assume the unit is transmitting and follow the recommended procedures to properly cancel a false distress alert being broadcast from an EPIRB. share/E7R/7R-46G30000664000175000017500000000055712223307265011574 0ustar jtnjtn46G3 B Which of the following statements is true? A. You should always use the "INT" setting for calling a Public Correspondence station. B. Using the "USA" setting changes certain channels from duplex to simplex operation. C. You should use Ch-22 when calling the U. S. Coast Guard. D. Using the "INT" setting will prevent proper Ch-13 Bridge-to-Bridge operations. share/E7R/7R-5A40000664000175000017500000000101212223307261011461 0ustar jtnjtn5A4 D Within a single sea area, what is the primary reason GMDSS imposes carriage requirements for different radio subsystems? A. Redundancy in duplicating all operational functions in the event of a system failure. B. Different subsystems are required to meet the specific equipment carriage requirements of national authorities. C. GMDSS vessels must be equipped to communicate in all modes with coast radio stations. D. The combined capabilities of redundant subsystems mitigate the risk of a single point of failure. share/E7R/7R-29E40000664000175000017500000000113412223307263011562 0ustar jtnjtn29E4 D Why should functional testing of a SART be minimized? A. Potential interference with safe navigation, notifying other vessels of an actual Distress and minimize power consumption. B. Minimize power consumption of the battery and only test at sea to reduce potential interference or confusion. C. Possibility of misinterpretation by other vessels as a Distress situation and only test in port to prevent potential interference with safe navigation or at-sea vessels. D. Potential interference with safe navigation, possible misinterpretation of an actual Distress, minimizes draining the battery. share/E7R/7R-24D30000664000175000017500000000053012223307263011552 0ustar jtnjtn24D3 D Which of the following situations would not properly use the Urgency priority? A. Treatment of a crewmember breaking a leg in a cargo hold. B. Leaking oil from a minor tank fracture requiring a mandatory pollution report. C. An unexpected deviation in the forecast track line of a typhoon. D. Abandoning the vessel just before sinking. share/E7R/7R-10B60000664000175000017500000000037312223307262011552 0ustar jtnjtn10B6 D What determines the spares and maintenance materials requirements for the VHF-DSC equipment under GMDSS? A. 47 CFR Part 80 B. IMO Circular "Equipment Spares". C. The GMDSS Maintainer's requirements. D. The recommendations of the manufacturer. share/E7R/7R-23D30000664000175000017500000000105112223307263011550 0ustar jtnjtn23D3 A What is meant by the term "Seelonce Mayday"? A. Stations not directly involved with the on-going Distress communications may not transmit on the Distress frequency or channel. B. Stations remaining off the air to safeguard proprietary information. C. Two three-minute silent periods, at 15 and 45 minutes after the hour, that provide a transmitting "window" for distressed vessels to transmit Distress alerts using J3E. D. Communications on a Distress frequency or channel is banned for 24 hours following the cessation of the Distress traffic. share/E7R/7R-48G60000664000175000017500000000105412223307265011572 0ustar jtnjtn48G6 A What actions will take place upon receipt of a Routine call from another vessel if both vessels are programmed for automatic response and the ECC is no good? A. Some portion of the call particulars will appear on the screen and the channel will not change. B. The ECC alarm will sound and the watch officer should call back to determine the working frequency. C. The ECC alarm will sound and the channel will change but the watch officer should ensure it is legal. D. The channel will not change because the working frequency requested is illegal. share/E7R/7R-2A30000664000175000017500000000015712223307260011465 0ustar jtnjtn2A3 B What equipment is used in or near the survival craft? A. NAVTEX B. EPIRB C. Fathometer D. COSPAS-SARSAT share/E7R/7R-24D40000664000175000017500000000052312223307263011555 0ustar jtnjtn24D4 A Which of the following situations would normally use the Urgency priority? A. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. B. A collision with the ship taking on water. C. Important company communications related to an itinerary change. D. Scenarios concerning the Safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. share/E7R/7R-13B50000664000175000017500000000042112223307262011546 0ustar jtnjtn13B5 A How long must the radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee? A. At least 30 days after the last entry. B. At least one year after the last entry. C. At least two years after the last entry. D. At least 90 days after the last entry. share/E7R/7R-26D30000664000175000017500000000057412223307263011564 0ustar jtnjtn26D3 B DSC is used primarily to: A. Receive weather warnings, navigational notices and other Maritime Safety Information. B. Transmit and receive Distress, Urgency and Safety alerts and routine calls to and from other ships and coast radio stations. C. Provide routine communications with the ship owner. D. Report ship's position to search-and-rescue authorities via satellite. share/E7R/7R-27E50000664000175000017500000000066112223307263011565 0ustar jtnjtn27E5 B At what point does a SART begin transmitting? A. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the "on" position. B. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz radar signal. C. It must be manually activated or water activated before radiating. D. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in water. share/E7R/7R-18C60000664000175000017500000000016112223307262011556 0ustar jtnjtn18C6 D A VHF-DSC Distress alert will always be transmitted on what channel? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-22A C. Ch-6 D. Ch-70 share/E7R/7R-7A30000664000175000017500000000016412223307261011471 0ustar jtnjtn7A3 A What is the frequency range for Very High Frequency? A. 30-300 MHz B. 3-30 MHz C. 300-3,000 kHz D. 10-30 MHz share/E7R/7R-10B50000664000175000017500000000077012223307262011552 0ustar jtnjtn10B5 C What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port? A. The vessel is carrying more than the required number of qualified GMDSS radio operators. B. The vessel has a temporary waiver of its radio license and Safety Certificate. C. The vessel is not capable of performing all required Distress and Safety functions. D. The vessel is not carrying a GMDSS radio maintainer, but has provided for shoreside maintenance plus duplication of equipment if required. share/E7R/7R-48G50000664000175000017500000000074012223307265011572 0ustar jtnjtn48G5 D What conditions must exist for a completely automatic DSC acknowledgement of a Routine call and change to suggested working channel? A. Both stations must be monitoring Ch-16 or the sending station must be set up for automatic DSC response. B. The receiving station must be monitoring the suggested working frequency. C. All routine priority DSC calls must be manually acknowledged by the watch officer. D. The receiving station must be set up for automatic DSC response. share/E7R/7R-25D30000664000175000017500000000047712223307263011565 0ustar jtnjtn25D3 C Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. Treatment of a crewmember with a broken leg that is not life-threatening. B. Treatment of a crewmember with a serious cardiac emergency. C. Loss of 5 containers with lashing gear over the side. D. A fire in the generator flat/spaces. share/E7R/7R-49G40000664000175000017500000000043512223307265011573 0ustar jtnjtn49G4 D How many times is it possible to change your own MMSI number in a VHF unit? A. It is not possible. B. It may be changed by the operator up to 4 times. C. MMSI numbers can only be changed by the manufacturer. D. On some units it can be changed at will if the password is known. share/E7R/7R-5A20000664000175000017500000000056412223307261011472 0ustar jtnjtn5A2 B What statement is true regarding the additional equipment carriage requirement imposed for the survival craft of vessels over 500 gross tons? A. Additional carriage of two radio equipped lifeboats aft. B. A second radar transponder is required. C. Four additional portable VHF radios are required. D. The ability to communicate in all modes with any shore station. share/E7R/7R-4A40000664000175000017500000000036212223307261011467 0ustar jtnjtn4A4 A What equipment can be used to receive Maritime Safety Information? A. NAVTEX, EGC receiver or HF SITOR (NBDP). B. EGC receiver, Inmarsat B or F77 terminal. C. HF SITOR (NBDP), Inmarsat B or NAVTEX. D. All of these answers are correct. share/E7R/7R-37F50000664000175000017500000000040012223307264011557 0ustar jtnjtn37F5 A Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 518 kHz B. 2187.5 kHz C. 4209.5 kHz D. VHF channel 16 when the vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2. share/E7R/7R-32E60000664000175000017500000000027312223307264011562 0ustar jtnjtn32E6 A Which device provides the best method to locate a ship in Distress or survival craft in the GMDSS? A. Satellite EPIRBs B. Radio Direction Finder C. MF/HF DSC D. VHF homing device share/E7R/7R-47G60000664000175000017500000000051612223307265011573 0ustar jtnjtn47G6 C A DSC Safety priority call might be used under the following circumstances: A. A crew member is missing and presumed lost overboard. B. There is a fire in the engine room. C. A lifeboat has been lost over the side in heavy weather and is adrift. D. A medical situation that did not present an imminent danger of loss of life. share/E7R/7R-20D30000664000175000017500000000115612223307263011553 0ustar jtnjtn20D3 D What is the proper procedure to be followed upon receipt of a Distress alert transmitted by use of Digital Selective Calling techniques? A. Set watch on the DSC alerting frequency in the band of frequencies the alert was received. B. Set a continuous watch on VHF-FM Channel 13, 16 and DSC on Channel 70. C. Ship stations equipped with narrow-band direct-printing equipment should respond to the Distress alert as soon as practicable by this means. D. Set watch on the radiotelephone Distress and Safety frequency associated with the Distress and Safety calling frequency on which the Distress alert was received. share/E7R/7R-39F50000664000175000017500000000062312223307264011570 0ustar jtnjtn39F5 B Which information determines if a NAVTEX message is to be rejected? A. Transmitter identity (numerals from 1 to 26 identifying transmitting station within the NAVAREA). B. The second letter (from A to Z) in the header indicating the type of message. C. The Answerback of the receiving station has not been entered in the NAVTEX receiver. D. Only messages having a serial number 00 are rejected. share/E7R/7R-1A20000664000175000017500000000047612223307260011467 0ustar jtnjtn1A2 B The primary purpose of the GMDSS is: A. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels. B. Automate and improve emergency communications for the world's shipping industry. C. Provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications. D. Effective and inexpensive communications. share/E7R/7R-11B60000664000175000017500000000040612223307262011550 0ustar jtnjtn11B6 C How many GMDSS radio maintainers must be carried aboard a compulsory vessel if the At-Sea maintenance method is used? A. Two in Sea Areas A3 and A4. B. Two in Sea Area A1. C. One regardless of sea area of operation. D. None of these answers are correct. share/E7R/7R-18C20000664000175000017500000000105612223307262011556 0ustar jtnjtn18C2 A Which of the following statements is true regarding Distress alerting under GMDSS? A. The Distress alert must identify the station in Distress and its position and may additionally include information regarding the nature of the Distress. B. Ship to shore Distress alerts are used to alert other ships in port of navigational hazards. C. Ship-to-ship Distress alerts are used to alert other ships in the vicinity of navigational hazards and bad weather. D. The vessel nearest to the emergency must notify the Coast Guard before leaving the vicinity. share/E7R/7R-2A20000664000175000017500000000014612223307260011462 0ustar jtnjtn2A2 A What equipment utilizes satellite communications? A. Inmarsat-C B. VHF-MF-HF C. NAVTEX D. SART share/E7R/7R-18C10000664000175000017500000000061712223307262011557 0ustar jtnjtn18C1 D A VHF-DSC "Distress Hot Key" alert always transmits what information if connected to GPS? A. Distress designation and follow on communications channel. B. A "Nature of Distress" category and Distress priority specifier code. C. Position, UTC time of position update and Ch-70 for voice follow-on. D. Position, time of position update, MMSI number programmed and Distress priority specifier. share/E7R/7R-41F40000664000175000017500000000020112223307265011551 0ustar jtnjtn41F4 D What information is promulgated by the international SafetyNET TM? A. Traffic Lists B. Priority Messages C. MARAD D. MSI share/E7R/7R-1A30000664000175000017500000000102512223307260011457 0ustar jtnjtn1A3 C What is the basic concept of GMDSS? A. Shoreside authorities will rely on reports from nearby vessels to become aware of Distress alerts. B. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation only after the correct chain of DSC relays takes place. C. SAR authorities ashore can be alerted to a Distress situation & shipping in the vicinity can be requested to participate in SAR operations. D. SAR authorities ashore wait to have EPIRB Distress alerts confirmed by satellite follow-on communications. share/E7R/7R-11B30000664000175000017500000000074312223307262011551 0ustar jtnjtn11B3 A Which FCC license meets the requirements to perform or supervise the performance of at-sea adjustments, servicing, or maintenance which may affect the proper operation of the GMDSS station? A. GMDSS Operator's/Maintainer's license or GMDSS Maintainer's license. B. General Radiotelephone Operator's License with Shipboard RADAR endorsement. C. Marine Radio Operator's Permit or GMDSS Maintainer's license. D. GMDSS Radio Operator's license or Marine Radio Operator's Permit. share/E7R/7R-46G50000664000175000017500000000064312223307265011572 0ustar jtnjtn46G5 C The USA-INT control on VHF units: A. Was made necessary by a desire for more duplex channels in the U.S. B. Correctly set, will result in duplex operations in U.S. Coastal waters on the "alpha" channels. C. Correctly set, will result in simplex operations in U.S. Coastal waters on the "alpha" channels. D. Was made necessary by a desire to convert simplex international channels to duplex channels in the U.S. share/E7R/7R-6A20000664000175000017500000000123512223307261011467 0ustar jtnjtn6A2 A Which of the following statements concerning GMDSS maintenance requirements is true? A. The options are duplication of equipment, at-sea maintenance, and shore-based maintenance. B. Compulsory vessels between 300-500 gross tons are required only to provide one maintenance option, while compulsory vessels larger than 500 gross tons and all passenger vessels are required to provide any two of the three maintenance options. C. The "at-sea" maintenance may be waived if the compulsory vessel carries at least three licensed GMDSS Radio Operators. D. Compulsory vessels operating in Sea Area A4 are required to carry at least one licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. share/E7R/7R-41F20000664000175000017500000000031112223307265011551 0ustar jtnjtn41F2 B What kind(s) of broadcasts are not available through SafetyNET TM? A. MSI and messages to specific geographic areas. B. Vessel traffic lists C. Storm warnings D. Distress and Urgency bulletins share/E7R/7R-45G40000664000175000017500000000015512223307265011566 0ustar jtnjtn45G4 D What channel would you use to place a call to a shore telephone? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-70 C. Ch-06 D. Ch-28 share/E7R/7R-20D10000664000175000017500000000117312223307263011550 0ustar jtnjtn20D1 B Which statement is true regarding the receipt and acknowledgement of Distress alerts by ship stations? A. Ship stations in receipt of a Distress alert should acknowledge it immediately to assist the coast station in responding to the Distress alert. B. A ship station that receives a Distress alert must, as soon as possible, inform the Master or person responsible for the ship of the contents of the Distress alert. C. Ship stations that receive a Distress alert from a vessel in their vicinity must immediately send a DSC relay to inform the RCC. D. Alerts concerning navigational hazards are second only to Safety traffic. share/E7R/7R-11B50000664000175000017500000000126012223307262011546 0ustar jtnjtn11B5 B Which of the following are personnel, functional, or equipment FCC requirements of the GMDSS? A. One FCC licensed GMDSS radio operator in sea areas A1 & A2, two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators in sea areas A3 & A4 and equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations. B. Equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations, distress alerting and response and two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators. C. Distress alerting and response, two USCG STCW GMDSS watchstanders, equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations. D. Equipment carriage reduced for sea areas A3 & A4, Distress alerting and response and two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators. share/E7R/7R-28E20000664000175000017500000000153512223307263011564 0ustar jtnjtn28E2 C What radar display changes indicate the correct approach to a SART and what care should be taken in a SAR situation? A. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become increasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should increase speed to reach Distress more quickly. B. A line of dots on a radar screen rotates to indicate the SART's position along its line of bearing; rescuing vessels should steer for the center of the line of dots. C. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become increasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should reduce speed as the arcs get greater in degree. D. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become decreasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should reduce speed as the arcs lessen in degree. share/E7R/7R-45G10000664000175000017500000000017512223307265011565 0ustar jtnjtn45G1 A Which channel would most likely be used for routine ship-to-ship voice traffic? A. Ch-08 B. Ch-16 C. Ch-70 D. Ch-22A share/E7R/7R-10B20000664000175000017500000000072412223307262011546 0ustar jtnjtn10B2 A When may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port? A. When the vessel has replaced a required piece of GMDSS-related equipment but its performance has not been verified or logged. B. When the vessel is in an over-carriage condition. C. When the vessel has arranged for both duplication of equipment and shore-based maintenance. D. When the vessel is carrying only two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators and is capable of performing all required functions. share/E7R/7R-34E10000664000175000017500000000061512223307264011557 0ustar jtnjtn34E1 D The "On Scene Coordinator" may be which of the following? A. The vessel in Distress will always be the "On Scene Coordinator" for itself. B. The first search vessel to arrive on the scene is always designated as the OSC. C. Only shore authorities, Coast Station or RCC's can be the "On Scene Coordinator." D. Any involved vessel so designated by the Search and Rescue Mission Coordinator. share/E7R/7R-3A40000664000175000017500000000062112223307260011463 0ustar jtnjtn3A4 B For a vessel to be in GMDSS Sea Area A-1: A. The vessel must be within VHF range of a Public Correspondence Station. B. The vessel must be within range of a coast station equipped with continuous VHF-DSC capability. C. The vessel must be within VHF range of a U. S. C. G. communication station. D. The vessel must be within VHF range of either a U. S. C. G. or a Public Correspondence Station. share/E7R/7R-21D10000664000175000017500000000063512223307263011553 0ustar jtnjtn21D1 A A DSC Distress Relay should always be made under the following circumstances: A. When a DSC response to a Distress alert from a Coast/Ship Station hasn't been received and the Master approves. B. When the MMSI of the vessel in Distress cannot be determined. C. After there is an acknowledgement from a coast station. D. DSC Distress Relays do not need to be made if your vessel is too far away to assist. share/E7R/7R-31E60000664000175000017500000000026112223307264011556 0ustar jtnjtn31E6 C Which of the following EPIRBs is most likely to be used to transmit a Distress alert signal? A. S-Band EPIRBs B. X-Band EPIRBs C. 406 MHz EPIRBs D. 121.5/243 MHz EPIRBs share/E7R/7R-44G50000664000175000017500000000061012223307265011562 0ustar jtnjtn44G5 D Describing VHF transmissions as "line of sight" does not mean: A. Vessel antenna height will not affect the radius of propagation. B. The normal transmission range to a coast station is approximately is 10 NM. C. Coast station antenna height has no effect on the radius of transmission. D. VHF communications are effective only with nearby stations within visual range of the bridge. share/E7R/7R-46G40000664000175000017500000000077412223307265011576 0ustar jtnjtn46G4 C The USA-INT control on VHF units: A. Selects duplex operations for U.S. coastal waters and simplex operations in non-U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. B. Ensures that the "alpha" channels are correctly set to duplex for use in U.S. waters & on VTS channels. C. Changes selected international duplex channels to simplex channels for use in U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. D. Changes selected international simplex channels to duplex channels for use in U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. share/E7R/7R-47G50000664000175000017500000000052112223307265011566 0ustar jtnjtn47G5 B DSC Urgency priority calls may be sent using the "Distress Hot Key" under the following circumstances: A. If no additional information is required to be transmitted. B. Under NO circumstances. C. Only if the position information is correct. D. The "Distress Hot Key" can be programmed for either Urgency or Distress as required. share/E7R/7R-33E20000664000175000017500000000032112223307264011551 0ustar jtnjtn33E2 B Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on 457.525 MHz. B. Operation on Ch-16. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Operation on Ch-70. share/E7R/7R-13B20000664000175000017500000000114212223307262011544 0ustar jtnjtn13B2 B Proper watchkeeping includes the following: A. Understanding normal operational indicators, setting the DSC scanner frequencies to minimize alarms, maintaining a proper log. B. Maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log, understanding normal operational indicators, responding to and comprehending alarms. C. Responding to and comprehending alarms, logging out of Inmarsat-C terminals while at sea, maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log. D. Maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log, setting the DSC scanner frequencies to minimize alarms, logging out of Inmarsat-C terminals while at sea. share/E7R/7R-36E30000664000175000017500000000071312223307264011562 0ustar jtnjtn36E3 D Which GMDSS equipment is best suited to simultaneous long-range communications with an RCC/coast station and OSC vessels or SAR aircraft? A. MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) transmitters using telex follow on frequencies. B. Inmarsat Signals routed via the RCC to the SAR vessels & aircraft under their control. C. VHF transmitters to reach SAR aircraft and OSC vessels as well as the RCC/coast station. D. MF-HF SSB transmitters using voice follow-on frequencies. share/E7R/7R-9B40000664000175000017500000000115312223307261011474 0ustar jtnjtn9B4 D Which of the following documents or publications are required by the FCC for GMDSS vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? A. IMO master plan of shore-based facilities (or substitute), station logs, appropriate operator licenses, Inmarsat handbook for GMDSS. B. NGA Pub. 117 (or substitute), station logs, appropriate operator licenses, IAMSAR manual volume III. C. Part 80 FCC rules, station logs, station licenses, ITU publications, IMO manual for Maritime Mobile stations. D. Part 80 FCC rules, station logs, station licenses, ITU publications, ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. share/E7R/7R-25D40000664000175000017500000000051012223307263011552 0ustar jtnjtn25D4 D Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. B. An unanticipated warning related to piracy or terrorism. C. Grounding in a way that could lead to imminent danger to the ship's crew. D. Important navigational or meteorological warnings. share/E7R/7R-13B60000664000175000017500000000055112223307262011553 0ustar jtnjtn13B6 B Which statement concerning radio log archival by the station licensee is false? A. Retain for two years if there are no Distress entries. B. Retain for one year unless there are Distress or Urgency entries. C. Logs related to an investigation may not be destroyed without specific authorization. D. Retain for three years if there are Distress entries. share/E7R/7R-24D60000664000175000017500000000052712223307263011563 0ustar jtnjtn24D6 A If the Watch Officer hears "PAN PAN" spoken 3 times it means: A. None of these answers is correct. B. A navigation or important meteorological warning should follow. C. The station is preparing to transmit a Safety message possibly concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person. D. A mobile unit is in need of immediate assistance. share/E7R/7R-30E30000664000175000017500000000067412223307264011562 0ustar jtnjtn30E3 B Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is false? A. 406 MHz EPIRBs are units that are used as alerting devices. B. Doppler frequency measurements provide more precise locations than GPIRB signals. C. The Doppler frequency measurement concept is used to determine the EPIRB's location. D. Satellites in a low-earth polar orbit detect EPIRB beacons on 406 MHz and relay the information to a Local User Terminal (LUT). share/E7R/7R-20D50000664000175000017500000000065412223307263011557 0ustar jtnjtn20D5 D What action should be taken on receipt of a VHF Distress alert? A. Read the display screen and/or printout and call the Master to verify if the Distress is genuine. B. Silence the alarm, examine the display screen and acknowledge the DSC alert via DSC. C. Silence the alarm and listen for any follow on voice transmission on Ch-70. D. Silence the alarm and set up watch on Ch-16 to determine if the Distress is genuine. share/E7R/7R-28E40000664000175000017500000000074512223307263011570 0ustar jtnjtn28E4 A What signal is detected as originating from an AIS SART and how is the signal displayed? A. An AIS SART signal is shown on any AIS receiver as a special MMSI-like coded symbol. B. The 3-cm radar reflections are converted to AIS signals and displayed on ECDIS/ARPA screens. C. An AIS SART transmits on AIS frequencies and the signals are converted to 3-cm radar targets for display on 3-cm radars. D. An AIS SART transmits on 9 GHz so that a 3-cm radar can display the signals. share/E7R/7R-7A20000664000175000017500000000015712223307261011472 0ustar jtnjtn7A2 D What is the frequency range for High Frequency? A. 300-3,000 kHz B. 30-300 MHz C. 10-30 MHz D. 3-30 MHz share/E7R/7R-9B50000664000175000017500000000115712223307261011501 0ustar jtnjtn9B5 A Which of the following documents or publications are required by Part 80 of the FCC rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? A. ITU List IV & List V, Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate & ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. B. Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate, ITU Master Plan of GMDSS Coast stations, and ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. C. ITU Master Plan of GMDSS Coast stations, ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations, ITU List IV & List V. D. ITU List IV & List V, Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate & IMO manual for Maritime Mobile stations. share/E7R/7R-10B40000664000175000017500000000064012223307262011545 0ustar jtnjtn10B4 C Which of the following service or maintenance functions may NOT be performed by the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator License? A. Reset tripped circuit breakers or replace defective fuses. B. Routine battery maintenance if used as part of the GMDSS station. C. Any adjustments or maintenance that may affect the proper operation of the station. D. Replacement of consumable items such as paper, ribbons, etc. share/E7R/7R-50G50000664000175000017500000000047212223307266011566 0ustar jtnjtn50G5 C What can the operator do to adjust the audible alarm? A. The operator can choose to disable the audible alarm. B. VHF DSC units only have visual alarms. C. The alarm cannot be disabled for Distress and Urgency messages. D. The audible alarm control has the same indication for all four message priorities. share/E7R/7R-40F50000664000175000017500000000027012223307265011557 0ustar jtnjtn40F5 D SafetyNETTM messages can be received by which of the following shipboard equipment? A. NAVTEX B. MF and HF SITOR (NBDP) C. Inmarsat F77 EGC receiver D. Inmarsat-C EGC receiver share/E7R/7R-4A20000664000175000017500000000123412223307261011464 0ustar jtnjtn4A2 C Which GMDSS communication functions must all compulsory vessels be capable of performing to meet International Maritime Organization requirements? A. Distress alerting and receipt of Maritime Safety Information via Inmarsat for all vessels intending to operate in Sea Area A4. B. Distress alerting and receipt of MSI in Sea Areas A1, A2, A3, and A4 regardless of the vessel's intended area of operation. C. Distress alerting, general communications and receipt of Maritime Safety Information in the vessel's intended area of operation. D. General communications via Inmarsat and receipt of Maritime Safety Information via Enhanced Group Calling in Sea Area A4. share/E7R/7R-3A60000664000175000017500000000046112223307260011467 0ustar jtnjtn3A6 C What is defined as the area within the radiotelephone coverage area of at least one VHF coast station in which continuous DSC alerting is available as defined by the IMO regulation for GMDSS? A. Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR B. Sea Area A2 C. Sea Area A1 D. Coastal and Inland Waters share/E7R/7R-36E10000664000175000017500000000113112223307264011553 0ustar jtnjtn36E1 B What actions should the GMDSS radio operator take prior to any potential Distress situation? A. Create a table or chart of all the DSC coast stations that might be used during the vessel's itinerary. B. All of these answers are good operational practice and should be consistently done. C. Prepare a detailed Distress message file on both satellite & MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) equipment containing all information needed in a Distress so it will be available for last-minute editing. D. Ensure all LES choices are correct and then updated properly as the vessel transits different SAR jurisdictions. share/E7R/7R-4A50000664000175000017500000000065612223307261011476 0ustar jtnjtn4A5 D Which of the following are required GMDSS functions? A. Bridge-to-Bridge communications, reception of weather map facsimile broadcasts, SAR communications. B. Reception of weather map facsimile broadcasts, receiving company email, On-scene communications. C. Reception of VHF weather channels, On-scene communications, general communications. D. Bridge-to-Bridge communications, general communications, SAR communications. share/E7R/7R-14C60000664000175000017500000000017012223307262011552 0ustar jtnjtn14C6 D Which of the following numbers indicates a ship station MMSI? A. 003372694 B. 030356328 C. 3384672 D. 623944326 share/E7R/7R-13B40000664000175000017500000000105612223307262011552 0ustar jtnjtn13B4 D Which of the following statements meets requirements for 47 CFR 80 Subpart-W? A. GMDSS Radio Logs may not be retained aboard compulsory vessels in an electronic file (e.g., word processing) format. B. GMDSS Radio Logs must be retained aboard compulsory vessels for a period of at least 90 days in their original form. C. Entries in the GMDSS Radio Log are only required for communications within the vessel's intended Sea Area of operation. D. GMDSS Radio Logs must contain entries of all Distress and Urgency communications affecting your own ship. share/E7R/7R-49G20000664000175000017500000000030112223307265011561 0ustar jtnjtn49G2 B Why would you want to access your MMSI number? A. To call another vessel. B. To determine that the number is correct. C. To change it. D. There is no reason to access your MMSI number. share/E7R/7R-40F10000664000175000017500000000031512223307265011553 0ustar jtnjtn40F1 B Where NAVTEX cannot be feasibly established, what system can be implemented to provide an automated service in coastal waters to receive MSI? A. AMVER B. SafetyNETTM C. VHF DSC D. ARQ SITOR (NBDP) share/E7R/7R-1A60000664000175000017500000000042512223307260011465 0ustar jtnjtn1A6 B GMDSS is required for which of the following? A. All vessels capable of international voyages. B. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. C. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coast radio stations. D. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons. share/E7R/7R-46G60000664000175000017500000000103512223307265011567 0ustar jtnjtn46G6 D What would happen if your VHF is set to "INT" and you called a VTS that operates on an "alpha" channel? A. The coast station should hear your call and respond and you will be able to receive VTS instructions. B. The coast station will not hear your call but you will hear their responses to other vessels in the VTS area. C. You will be able to hear the coast station calling you but will not be able to hear other vessels in the VTS area. D. The coast station should hear your call and respond but you will not hear their response. share/E7R/7R-26D20000664000175000017500000000063112223307263011555 0ustar jtnjtn26D2 A If your vessel has suffered a casualty severe enough to disable both ship's power and the GMDSS console RSE you should: A. Activate the EPIRB and/or use the SCT to make a "Mayday" call on Ch-16. B. Use UHF Transceivers to contact other vessels. C. Activate the EPIRB and/or use the SCT to make a "Mayday" call on Ch-70. D. Make a "Mayday" call on Ch-70 and Ch-06 using the Survival Craft Transceiver. share/E7R/7R-42F10000664000175000017500000000024412223307265011556 0ustar jtnjtn42F1 D Over what system are Enhanced Group Calls transmitted? A. COSPAS satellite B. HF SITOR (NBDP) shore stations C. NAVTEX shore stations D. Inmarsat satellite share/E7R/7R-4A60000664000175000017500000000075712223307261011501 0ustar jtnjtn4A6 A Which of the following are required GMDSS functions for vessels? A. Transmit and receive locating signals, general communications and SAR communications. B. Transmit and receive general communications, transmit Distress Alerts by at least one means, MSI. C. Transmit and receive locating signals, send MSI to other ships via EGC, Bridge-to-Bridge communications. D. Transmit and receive SAR communications, transmit Distress Alerts by at least one means, Bridge-to-Bridge communications. share/E7R/7R-12B60000664000175000017500000000052312223307262011551 0ustar jtnjtn12B6 A At sea, all required equipment (other than Survival Craft Equipment) must be proven operational by: A. Daily testing or daily successful use of the equipment. B. Testing at least every 48 hours. C. Weekly testing of all S.C.E. and other compulsory equipment. D. Daily testing of the S.C.E. and weekly tests of the other equipment. share/E7R/7R-42F40000664000175000017500000000034212223307265011560 0ustar jtnjtn42F4 C What system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship Distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area? A. NAVTEX B. AMVER C. EGC D. DSC share/E7R/7R-32E30000664000175000017500000000040212223307264011551 0ustar jtnjtn32E3 D What may be used as a homing signal by the search and rescue vessels in the immediate vicinity of the ship in Distress? A. Flare gun B. Strobe Light C. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB. D. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB. share/E7R/7R-9B30000664000175000017500000000043712223307261011477 0ustar jtnjtn9B3 C What publications should the GMDSS Radio Operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in Distress situations under GMDSS? A. The manufacturer's technical manuals. B. The manufacturer's operator manuals. C. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. D. 47 CFR Part 90 Subpart V. share/E7R/7R-27E20000664000175000017500000000101612223307263011555 0ustar jtnjtn27E2 D Which of the following would most likely not prevent a SART's signal from being detected? A. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-CM radar and the SART was mounted improperly in the lifeboat. B. The SART was mounted improperly in the survival craft and rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-CM radar. C. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-CM radar and the SART was properly mounted in the lifeboat. D. The SART was properly mounted in the lifeboat and rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-CM radar. share/E7R/7R-16C60000664000175000017500000000055212223307262011560 0ustar jtnjtn16C6 A A "Distress Hot Key" alert will always include what information? A. Distress priority, vessel's position if available and the vessel's MMSI number. B. The vessel's current position, course and speed from the GPS. C. The vessel's MMSI number and category of Distress. D. Distress priority, frequency for voice Distress communications and vessel position. share/E7R/7R-31E10000664000175000017500000000062012223307264011550 0ustar jtnjtn31E1 C What features may be found on GMDSS satellite EPIRB units? A. Strobe light, Distress homing transmission on 406 MHz, float-free release bracket. B. Emergency transmission on 406 MHz, hydrostatic release, AIS homing frequency. C. Float-free release bracket, strobe light & Distress alert transmission on 406 MHz. D. Hydrostatic release, Distress alert transmission on 121.5 MHz, strobe light. share/E7R/7R-33E10000664000175000017500000000053512223307264011557 0ustar jtnjtn33E1 A With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers not communicate? A. Communication between the ship and survival craft transceivers ashore. B. Communication between the ship and its survival craft. C. Communication between rescue units and survival craft. D. Communication between multiple survival craft and with aircraft. share/E7R/7R-6A40000664000175000017500000000107712223307261011475 0ustar jtnjtn6A4 C What statement is correct regarding the maintenance requirements for A3 ships under GMDSS? A. If the vessel selects at-sea maintenance no additional parts and spares are required. B. On-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer's license will fully meet the requirements. C. Redundancy of functions of certain equipment and on-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer's license will partially meet this requirement. D. Shoreside maintenance and scheduled tests and inspections will not partially meet this requirement. share/E7R/7R-34E60000664000175000017500000000027412223307264011565 0ustar jtnjtn34E6 D Passenger vessel "On Scene" communications should be conducted with aircraft on which of the following channels or frequencies? A. 9 GHz B. VHF Ch-13 C. VHF Ch-26 D. VHF 121.5 MHz share/E7R/7R-20D20000664000175000017500000000022212223307263011543 0ustar jtnjtn20D2 C What is meant by the acronym "EOS" in a DSC message? A. Error Of Sequence B. End Of Signals C. End Of Sequence D. Equal Operating Signals share/E7R/7R-42F30000664000175000017500000000034512223307265011562 0ustar jtnjtn42F3 B Which of the following provides a unique automated system capable of addressing messages to pre-determined groups of ships or all vessels in both fixed and variable geographic areas? A. NAVTEX B. EGC C. AFRTS D. NAVAREAs share/E7R/7R-14C40000664000175000017500000000017712223307262011557 0ustar jtnjtn14C4 C Which of the following numbers indicates a U.S. flag ship station? A. 036627934 B. 243537672 C. 338426791 D. 003382315 share/E7R/7R-17C30000664000175000017500000000127212223307262011556 0ustar jtnjtn17C3 C What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC Distress alert? A. It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be manually reset. B. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert but, as no information will be transmitted, rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel, its position, or its situation. C. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert and default information will automatically be transmitted. D. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert, but any station receiving it will have to establish contact with the distressed vessel to determine its identity, position, and situation. share/E7R/7R-40F20000664000175000017500000000117512223307265011561 0ustar jtnjtn40F2 C What action should a GMDSS Radio Operator take when SafetyNET TM Distress or Urgency messages are received by the vessel's EGC receiver? A. No immediate action is required, as an audible tone will be generated at the beginning and end of the transmission and a paper printout of the message will be generated. B. No immediate action is required by the operator, since the transmission will be automatically acknowledged by the receiving vessel. C. Aural and/or visual alarms are activated and require manual deactivation. D. A periodic alarm tone will be heard until the radio operator prints the message from the unit's memory. share/E7R/7R-44G60000664000175000017500000000111612223307265011565 0ustar jtnjtn44G6 A The effectiveness of VHF communications is maximized by: A. Appropriate setting of the transmitter power, selecting an appropriate channel & adjustment of squelch for maximum receiver sensitivity. B. The adjustment of squelch for maximum receiver sensitivity, setting transmitter power to 1W & selecting an appropriate channel. C. Selecting an appropriate channel, adjustment of squelch for minimum receiver sensitivity & setting transmitter power to 1W. D. Selecting an appropriate channel, adjustment of squelch for minimum receiver sensitivity, setting transmitter power to 25W. share/E7R/7R-45G50000664000175000017500000000014112223307265011562 0ustar jtnjtn45G5 A What channel is always being continuously monitored? A. Ch-70 B. Ch-28 C. Ch-80 D. Ch-16 share/E7R/7R-22D50000664000175000017500000000057012223307263011556 0ustar jtnjtn22D5 C You have been monitoring your 3-cm radar screen and a series of 12 concentric circles suddenly appears centered on the screen. What is the most likely cause of this situation? A. There is a survival craft within 3 nm distance. B. There is a fault in the radar. C. Your own vessel's SART has been activated. D. Your own vessel's EPIRB homing beacon has been activated. share/E7R/7R-11B20000664000175000017500000000131012223307262011537 0ustar jtnjtn11B2 D Which of the following statements concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is false? A. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea. B. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea and may elect to carry a GMDSS Radio Maintainer as well. C. While at sea, adjustments to, and the maintaining of, GMDSS equipment may be performed by the GMDSS Radio Operator as long as the work is supervised by an on-board licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. D. All communications involving Safety of life at sea must be logged as long as the compulsory vessel was not involved in such communications. share/E7R/7R-8B10000664000175000017500000000062612223307261011474 0ustar jtnjtn8B1 B How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected? A. Annually, by the U.S. Coast Guard. B. Annually, by the FCC or designated authority. C. Annually, by the FCC, and every six months if the vessel sails outside of Sea Areas A1 and A2. D. The FCC's annual inspection may be waived if and only if monthly inspections are performed by the vessel's on-board GMDSS Radio Maintainer. share/E7R/7R-2A10000664000175000017500000000015712223307260011463 0ustar jtnjtn2A1 D Which GMDSS system utilizes terrestrial radio techniques? A. F-77 B. Inmarsat-C C. GPS D. VHF-MF-HF-DSC share/E7R/7R-1A40000664000175000017500000000065112223307260011464 0ustar jtnjtn1A4 D GMDSS is primarily a system based on: A. Ship-to-ship Distress communications using MF or HF radiotelephony. B. VHF digital selective calling from ship to shore. C. Distress, Urgency and Safety communications carried out by the use of narrow-band direct printing telegraphy. D. The linking of search and rescue authorities ashore with shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress or in need of assistance. share/E7R/7R-35E20000664000175000017500000000072412223307264011562 0ustar jtnjtn35E2 D Which of these would be vital to a GMDSS SAR situation in polar regions? A. GOES satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. B. GOES satellites to receive Distress Alerts and Inmarsat Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. C. Inmarsat satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. D. COSPAS/SARSAT satellites to receive Distress Alerts and VHF-HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. share/E7R/7R-47G20000664000175000017500000000051512223307265011566 0ustar jtnjtn47G2 D A DSC Urgency priority call is usually set up in the following manner: A. Such calls are sent first to all coast stations and then later to all ship stations. B. Such calls are sent to an individual coast station. C. Such calls are sent to an individual ship station. D. Such calls are sent simultaneously to "all stations". share/E7R/7R-1A10000664000175000017500000000103512223307260011456 0ustar jtnjtn1A1 A What is the fundamental concept of the GMDSS? A. GMDSS utilizes automated systems and satellite technology to improve emergency communications for the world's shipping industry. B. It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques. C. It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost commercial communications. D. It is intended to provide compulsory vessels with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels. share/E7R/7R-50G10000664000175000017500000000027112223307265011556 0ustar jtnjtn50G1 D What information is normally entered in the address book? A. The vessel's IMN. B. The vessel's call sign and name. C. The vessel's IMO number. D. Vessel's name and MMSI number. share/E7R/7R-48G20000664000175000017500000000017412223307265011570 0ustar jtnjtn48G2 C What would be the appropriate menu choice when calling another ship station? A. Ch-28 B. Duplex C. Simplex D. Ch-22 share/E7R/7R-17C60000664000175000017500000000052012223307262011554 0ustar jtnjtn17C6 B DSC relays of Distress alerts by vessels: A. Should be done for all Distress alerts received aboard the ship. B. Should be avoided; unless an acknowledgement has not been heard. C. Should be transmitted to all ships involved in Distress traffic. D. Are the best means to provide for a retransmission of Distress communications. share/E7R/7R-12B40000664000175000017500000000077212223307262011555 0ustar jtnjtn12B4 A What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? A. Compulsory ships must have emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications. B. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries). C. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications. D. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a Distress alert. share/E7R/7R-49G60000664000175000017500000000063512223307265011577 0ustar jtnjtn49G6 B Which of the following is not true regarding vessel position information? A. The position is normally provided from GPS input. B. The time of the updated position should be UTC or the correct local zone time. C. If the position is not automatically updated it must be manually updated every 4 hours. D. The position information must be periodically checked to ensure that it remains current and accurate. share/E7R/7R-9B60000664000175000017500000000053712223307261011503 0ustar jtnjtn9B6 B Which of the following references should be consulted to identify the name of a vessel based on its Maritime Mobile Service Identity? A. ITU list of Coast Stations. B. ITU List of Ship Stations and Maritime Mobile Service Identity Assignments. C. ITU List of Radio-determination and Ship Stations. D. ITU Master Plan of Shore-Based Facilities. share/E7R/7R-17C20000664000175000017500000000107512223307262011556 0ustar jtnjtn17C2 B Which of the following statements on DSC acknowledgement and relay of DSC Distress alerts is true? A. Operators cannot initiate acknowledgements or relays. B. Most equipment was designed to allow for DSC acknowledgements and ALL SHIPS DSC relays but this should only be done per current regulations. C. The equipment was designed to allow for DSC acknowledgements and relays and the operator should follow the software menu structure accordingly. D. DSC acknowledgements and relays are automatically transmitted by the unit to ensure the RCC receives the Distress. share/E7R/7R-41F30000664000175000017500000000020712223307265011556 0ustar jtnjtn41F3 C Which satellite system promulgates Maritime Safety Information? A. AMVER B. NAVTEX C. Inmarsat-C SafetyNETTM D. Inmarsat-M SES share/E7R/7R-39F20000664000175000017500000000101512223307264011561 0ustar jtnjtn39F2 D If the Inmarsat-C terminal is inoperative but the vessel remains within NAVTEX coverage -- which of the following message categories should not be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Navigational warnings, meteorological warnings and metrological forecasts. B. Search and Rescue information, navigational warnings and other electronic navaid messages. C. Search and Rescue information, Meteorological warnings and ice reports. D. Meteorological warnings, Search and Rescue information and Navigational warnings. share/E7R/7R-3A10000664000175000017500000000050712223307260011463 0ustar jtnjtn3A1 C The Sea Area you are in is determined by: A. The vessel's distance from shore. B. The types of maintenance available to your vessel. C. Whether the ship station is in range of a VHF-DSC, MF-DSC, HF-DSC Coast Station or Inmarsat coverage. D. Whether the ship only makes domestic/coastal voyages or it goes international. share/E7R/7R-12B20000664000175000017500000000104112223307262011541 0ustar jtnjtn12B2 C What is the meaning of "Reserve Source of Energy"? A. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. B. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements. C. Power to operate the radio installation and conduct Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship's main and emergency sources of electrical power. D. The diesel fueled emergency generator that supplies AC to the vessel's Emergency power bus. share/E7R/7R-14C20000664000175000017500000000013612223307262011550 0ustar jtnjtn14C2 A How many digits are in the MID (Maritime Identification Digits)? A. 3 B. 7 C. 9 D. 10 share/E7R/7R-48G10000664000175000017500000000050212223307265011562 0ustar jtnjtn48G1 B How are Routine calls usually formatted/initiated? A. By pressing the "Distress Hot Key". B. By making the appropriate key strokes to select the appropriate menu choices. C. By pressing the "Alarm" button and then selecting from various options. D. Using Ch-70 to make Routine priority DSC calls is not permitted. share/E7R/7R-25D50000664000175000017500000000025412223307263011560 0ustar jtnjtn25D5 A The Radiotelephone Safety signal is: A. "Securite" repeated 3 times B. "Safety Safety Safety" C. "Pan Pan" repeated 3 times D. "Securite Securite" repeated 3 times share/E7R/7R-40F60000664000175000017500000000021312223307265011555 0ustar jtnjtn40F6 A Maritime Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system? A. SafetyNETTM B. AMVER C. NAVTEX D. Inmarsat-M SES share/E7R/7R-40F40000664000175000017500000000041512223307265011557 0ustar jtnjtn40F4 A Aboard ship, SafetyNETTM messages can be received by which equipment/methods? A. EGC receiver of the vessel's Inmarsat-C SES. B. VHF DSC on the weather channels. C. NAVTEX Receiver on 518 kHz or the Tropical Navtex frequency D. HF SITOR (NBDP) MSI frequencies. share/E7R/7R-32E20000664000175000017500000000036012223307264011553 0ustar jtnjtn32E2 C Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? A. Radio Direction Finder (RDF). B. Survival Craft Transceiver. C. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz. D. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz. share/E7R/7R-10B30000664000175000017500000000137212223307262011547 0ustar jtnjtn10B3 B Which statement is false regarding the maintenance of GMDSS equipment at sea? A. Ships must carry at least one person who qualifies as a GMDSS maintainer for the maintenance and repair of equipment if the at-sea maintenance option is selected. B. The GMDSS maintainer may not be the person designated to have primary responsibility for radio-communications during Distress incidents even if licensed as an operator. C. All at-sea maintenance and repairs must be performed by, or under the supervision of a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer license. D. The GMDSS maintainer may be the person responsible for ensuring that the watches are properly maintained and that the proper guard channels and the vessel's position are entered into the DSC equipment. share/E7R/7R-31E40000664000175000017500000000062712223307264011562 0ustar jtnjtn31E4 B Which of the following is normally part of 406 MHz satellite EPIRBs? A. A strobe light, automatic float-free bracket, 1-watt 406-MHz alert beacon. B. A 5-watt 406-MHz alert beacon, Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), strobe light. C. Automatic float-free bracket, 5-watt 121.5 MHz homing beacon, strobe light. D. Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), 1-watt 121.5 MHz alerting beacon, strobe light. share/E7R/7R-32E40000664000175000017500000000040612223307264011556 0ustar jtnjtn32E4 A What part of a satellite EPIRB may function as a visual aid to rescue vessels? A. Strobe light B. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB. C. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB. D. Loud beeping tone emitted by the unit, once activated. share/E7R/7R-19D30000664000175000017500000000021412223307262011554 0ustar jtnjtn19D3 A You receive a VHF-DSC Distress alert. What Channel should you monitor for further information? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-06 C. Ch-22A D. Ch-70 share/E7R/7R-49G30000664000175000017500000000036712223307265011576 0ustar jtnjtn49G3 C What precautions should be taken when reviewing previously transmitted messages? A. Press the "Call" key when finished. B. Always save the message. C. Take steps not to accidentally send the message again. D. No precautions are necessary. share/E7R/7R-37F10000664000175000017500000000114112223307264011556 0ustar jtnjtn37F1 A How is mutual interference on 518 kHz among NAVTEX stations avoided? A. Transmissions scheduled on a time-sharing basis, power limited and station assignment codes are geographically separated. B. All stations transmit at the same time but stations are limited to daytime operation only to reduce the radius of propagation. C. Transmitter power is limited, station assignment codes are not shared by other NAVAREAS and stations alternate between daytime and nighttime operations. D. Station codes are not shared by other NAVAREAS, transmissions scheduled on a time-sharing basis and power is limited. share/E7R/7R-4A30000664000175000017500000000110712223307261011464 0ustar jtnjtn4A3 D GMDSS-equipped ships will be required to perform which of the following communications functions? A. Distress alerting, MSI, SAR and on-scene communications & receipt of satellite alerts from other vessels. B. SAR and on-scene communications, Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications, MSI and relay of satellite alerts from other vessels. C. Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications, RDF of EPIRB homing signals, Distress alerting and MSI. D. Transmit distress alerts, SAR and on-scene communications, MSI, Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications. share/E7R/7R-31E50000664000175000017500000000052412223307264011557 0ustar jtnjtn31E5 B Which of the following statements concerning EPIRBs is false? A. The COSPAS-SARSAT system may take a full hour or more to provide an alert. B. The Inmarsat system provides worldwide coverage for Distress alerts. C. The GOES weather satellites are in a geostationary orbit. D. 406 MHz EPIRB units may be equipped with GPS receivers. share/E7R/7R-36E60000664000175000017500000000110112223307264011555 0ustar jtnjtn36E6 A Which statement is true regarding Inmarsat "hot-key" Distress Alerts? A. The LES programmed by the watch officers into the Distress Alert Update menu determines which RCC will receive your initial Distress Alert. B. The vessel's position is checked against the SAR jurisdictions and the proper LES updated as the vessel changes NAVAREAS. C. The GPS position updates the Distress Alert Update menu to the correct LES choice to ensure proper communications with an RCC. D. The Distress Alert defaults are set correctly by the manufacturer and then automatically updated. share/E7R/7R-36E40000664000175000017500000000104712223307264011564 0ustar jtnjtn36E4 A Which statement is NOT true regarding an Inmarsat Distress Alert? A. USCG coast stations will receive the alert and immediately notify the correct RCC. B. The operator selection of LES will determine which associated RCC will receive the alert. C. If the operator selects an invalid or inoperative LES code the NCS for that service will intercept the call and reroute the alert. D. If the LES choice is not updated properly the Distress Alert might be routed to a non-optimum RCC, introducing delays and confusion into the Distress situation. share/E7R/7R-4A10000664000175000017500000000106612223307261011466 0ustar jtnjtn4A1 B Which of the following is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels? A. A compulsory vessel must carry at least two (2) FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operators in all sea areas as well as a GMDSS Maintainer in sea areas A3 & A4. B. A compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements based on the intended sea area of operation. C. A compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress alerts and carry only one (1) FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operator in sea areas A1 & A2. D. None of these answers are correct. share/E7R/7R-30E10000664000175000017500000000107412223307264011553 0ustar jtnjtn30E1 D Which is not a function of a satellite under COSPAS-SARSAT using satellite EPIRBs? A. Relayed satellite message includes the EPIRB ID number which provides a reference for retrieval of vessel information from the shore database. B. Doppler shift of EPIRB signal is measured and the EPIRB's position is calculated. C. Information received from EPIRBs is time-tagged and transmitted to any Local User Terminal in the satellite's view. D. After the EPIRB's position is calculated using the Doppler shift COSPAS-SARSAT satellites provide follow-on SAR communications. share/E7R/7R-13B30000664000175000017500000000113112223307262011543 0ustar jtnjtn13B3 C Which is true concerning a required watch on VHF Ch-16? A. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is required on Ch-16 in addition to both Ch-13 and the VTS channel. B. It is not compulsory at all times while at sea until further notice, unless the vessel is in a VTS system. C. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is not required on Ch-16 provided the vessel monitors both Ch-13 and the VTS channel. D. It is not always compulsory in sea areas A2, A3 and A4. share/E7R/7R-5A60000664000175000017500000000122512223307261011471 0ustar jtnjtn5A6 B What is the equipment carriage requirement for survival craft under GMDSS? A. At least three SCT units and two SARTs on every cargo ship between 300-500 gross tons and the same on all passenger ships regardless of tonnage. B. At least three SCT units and two SARTs on every passenger ship and cargo ships of 500 gross tons and upwards. C. At least two radar transponders must be carried on every cargo ship of 300-500 gross tons and two radar transponders (one for each side) of every passenger ship regardless of tonnage. D. All cargo vessels above 300 gross tons and every passenger ship regardless of tonnage must carry three SCT units and two SARTs. share/E7R/7R-14C30000664000175000017500000000021412223307262011546 0ustar jtnjtn14C3 B What does the MID (Maritime Identification Digits) signify? A. Port of registry B. Nationality C. Gross tonnage D. Passenger vessel share/E7R/7R-3A50000664000175000017500000000103112223307260011460 0ustar jtnjtn3A5 B A vessel is on a coastwise voyage that results in a distance off shore of 10 to 40 nm and therefore: A. The vessel must be able to communicate with a coast station on Ch-16 to be within Sea Area A-1. B. To be within Sea Area A-1 the vessel must continuously be within range of a coast station with VHF-DSC capability. C. The vessel will always be in Sea Area A-1because all coastal voyages have A-1 DSC coverage. D. To be within Sea Area A-1 the vessel must continuously be within range of a coast station with MF-DSC capability. share/E7R/7R-19D50000664000175000017500000000077612223307263011574 0ustar jtnjtn19D5 B What information should be included in a Distress follow on voice transmission after a DSC Alert? A. Ship's Name and Call Sign, MMSI number, DSC frequency used and any other information that might facilitate rescue. B. Ship's Name and Call Sign, MMSI number & position, the nature of distress and assistance requested. C. Ship's position, Ship's IMN, the nature of distress and assistance requested. D. Ship's Name and Call sign, repeat IMN, provide any other information that might facilitate rescue. share/E7/0000775000175000017500000000000012223343357010611 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E7/7-51H30000664000175000017500000000063312223317614011317 0ustar jtnjtn51H3 A What should a GMDSS Radio Operator do if a NAVTEX warning message is received but it contains too many errors to be usable? A. Do nothing. Vital NAVTEX messages will be repeated on the next scheduled broadcast. B. Contact the NAVAREA coordinator and request a repeat broadcast. C. Initiate a request for Category A, B, L and D messages. D. Listen to appropriate VHF weather channel for repeat warnings. share/E7/7-74I60000664000175000017500000000105712223317615011332 0ustar jtnjtn74I6 D How may Inmarsat-C terminals be used for sending Urgency or Safety priority communications (such as synoptic weather reports)? A. Urgency & Safety EGC messages can only be received by an Inmarsat-C terminal. B. Enter PAN PAN or SECURITE into the heading of the message file so the message will be routed by priority. C. Only Routine or Distress priority messages can be sent from an Inmarsat-C terminal. D. Use the appropriate special 2-digit codes selected from the address book or manually enter the correct code into the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu. share/E7/7-46F10000664000175000017500000000020512223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn46F1 D Which of the following has been designated for "On-scene" communications in GMDSS? A. Ch-24. B. Ch-2182. C. Ch-70. D. Ch-16. share/E7/7-6A50000664000175000017500000000031012223317611011217 0ustar jtnjtn6A5 C A ship operating in sea area A-3 must have the following provisions for maintenance: A. Duplication of Equipment. B. Shore Maintenance. C. Any two of these are required. D. At Sea Maintenance. share/E7/7-84J50000664000175000017500000000036512223317615011334 0ustar jtnjtn84J5 D The proper sequence of emissions corresponding to the sequence AM-Voice DSB, SSB-Voice without carrier, USB-Voice with carrier and FM-Voice, is: A. A3E, H3E, J3E, F3E. B. J3E, H3E, A3E, F3E. C. H3E, A3E, J3E, F3E. D. A3E, J3E, H3E, F3E. share/E7/7-28D40000664000175000017500000000042012223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn28D4 A Which of the following watches must a compulsory Sea Area A1 vessel maintain? A. A continuous DSC watch on Ch-70. B. A continuous DSC watch on 8414.5 kHz plus one other HF DSC frequency. C. A continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz. D. A continuous DSC watch on Ch-16. share/E7/7-10B30000664000175000017500000000025012223317612011275 0ustar jtnjtn10B3 B How many sidebands are present in the J3E mode? A. Two sidebands and a carrier. B. One upper sideband. C. One lower sideband. D. Two carriers and one sideband. share/E7/7-16C60000664000175000017500000000040612223317612011312 0ustar jtnjtn16C6 A How many GMDSS radio maintainers must be carried aboard a compulsory vessel if the At-Sea maintenance method is used? A. One regardless of sea area of operation. B. Two in Sea Areas A3 and A4. C. Two in Sea Area A1. D. None of these answers are correct. share/E7/7-38E50000664000175000017500000000135612223317613011325 0ustar jtnjtn38E5 C Which statement is true regarding Distress communications under GMDSS? A. Distress communications by (SITOR) NBDP should be in the BFEC mode when in two-way communications with the Coast Guard or other coast radio stations. B. The Rescue Coordination Center may not appoint another station to coordinate Distress traffic relating to the incident. C. The Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) is responsible for controlling a search and rescue operation, will coordinate the Distress traffic relating to the incident and may appoint another station to manage the Distress traffic. D. Initial Distress communications by (SITOR) NBDP should be in the ARQ mode to broadcast them to the Coast Guard, other coast radio stations and other ship stations. share/E7/7-52H20000664000175000017500000000050512223317614011315 0ustar jtnjtn52H2 C How can reception of certain NAVTEX broadcasts be prevented? A. Stations are limited to daytime operation only. B. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. C. The receiver can be programmed to reject certain stations and message categories. D. Automatic receiver desensitization during night hours. share/E7/7-26D10000664000175000017500000000106612223317612011312 0ustar jtnjtn26D1 D What sequence best describes an MF-HF DSC Distress menu transmission? A. Vessel name, Distress priority code, vessel position & time, nature of Distress. B. A string of dots to stop the DSC scanner, vessel MMSI, vessel position & time, nature of Distress, frequency for follow-on communications. C. Vessel MMSI, frequency & emission for follow-on communications, vessel position & time, Distress priority code. D. A string of dots to stop the DSC scanner, Distress priority code, vessel position & time, emission for follow-on communications, DSC frequency. share/E7/7-70I40000664000175000017500000000036712223317614011326 0ustar jtnjtn70I4 C You are on a ship in the Pacific ocean. What keyboard entry would you make on an Inmarsat-B terminal to obtain a TELEX connection via Santa Paula to another ship that is 300 miles west of San Francisco? A. 001#. B. 003+. C. 001+. D. 002+. share/E7/7-94J50000664000175000017500000000100312223317616011324 0ustar jtnjtn94J5 C The sequence BFEC, SFEC, ARQ best corresponds to which of the following sequences? A. One-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. B. One-way communications to all stations, two way communications, one-way communications to a single station. C. One-way communications to all stations, one-way communications to a single station, two way communications. D. Two way communications, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. share/E7/7-84J40000664000175000017500000000071612223317615011333 0ustar jtnjtn84J4 A In FM communications, the information is applied to the carrier by: A. Varying the frequency of the carrier to convey the information to other stations. B. Varying the amplitude or the frequency of the carrier, depending on Double or Single-Sideband operations. C. Varying only the frequency of the carrier, depending on Double or Single-Sideband operations. D. Varying the amplitude of the carrier and keeping the frequencies in the sidebands constant. share/E7/7-64I30000664000175000017500000000070012223317614011317 0ustar jtnjtn64I3 D What is the purpose of the second I.D. in an Inmarsat-B or F77 SES? A. To provide an alternate number which may be called if a busy signal is received by the calling party. B. To provide an additional speech path, which may be used to communicate while the first channel is engaged in active communications. C. To provide for an emergency working frequency. D. To provide an additional number which may be dedicated to computers, fax, etc. share/E7/7-16C20000664000175000017500000000131012223317612011301 0ustar jtnjtn16C2 C Which of the following statements concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is false? A. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea. B. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea and may elect to carry a GMDSS Radio Maintainer as well. C. All communications involving Safety of life at sea must be logged as long as the compulsory vessel was not involved in such communications. D. While at sea, adjustments to, and the maintaining of, GMDSS equipment may be performed by the GMDSS Radio Operator as long as the work is supervised by an on-board licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. share/E7/7-8B60000664000175000017500000000020012223317612011222 0ustar jtnjtn8B6 A Which system has the least effective radius of operation? A. VHF DSC. B. HF SITOR (NBDP). C. MF SITOR (NBDP). D. NAVTEX. share/E7/7-60I60000664000175000017500000000021012223317614011312 0ustar jtnjtn60I6 A Which longitude corresponds to the IOR's satellite location for Inmarsat-B/C communications? A. 64E. B. 178E. C. 15.5W. D. 54W. share/E7/7-69I40000664000175000017500000000036712223317614011336 0ustar jtnjtn69I4 D Which of the following would be a valid sequence to request an automatically dialed ship-ship call to an F77 terminal on a vessel tracking the IOR satellite? A. 00583430662888#. B. 00870430662888#. C. 00583763240864 #. D. 00870763240864#. share/E7/7-44F30000664000175000017500000000040412223317613011312 0ustar jtnjtn44F3 D What may be used as a homing signal by the search and rescue vessels in the immediate vicinity of the ship in Distress? A. Flare gun. B. Strobe Light. C. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB. D. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB. share/E7/7-39F40000664000175000017500000000063312223317613011323 0ustar jtnjtn39F4 B Which statement is NOT true regarding the SART? A. Responds to interrogations by a vessel's X-Band radar and transmits a signal. B. This is a 6 GHz transponder capable of being received by a vessel's X-band navigational radar system. C. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by a vessel's X-band navigational radar system. D. Transmits a distinctive 12-blip signal for easy recognition. share/E7/7-29E10000664000175000017500000000070512223317613011316 0ustar jtnjtn29E1 A What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a Distress priority message via Inmarsat? A. By pressing a "Distress Button" or "Distress Hot Key(s)" on the equipment. B. By dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit. C. By contacting the LES operator and announcing a Distress condition is in existence. D. By contacting the LES operator using the radiotelephone Distress procedure "Mayday"... etc. share/E7/7-36E10000664000175000017500000000052212223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn36E1 B When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "Securite" spoken three times, he can expect to receive the following information: A. The safety of vessel or person is in jeopardy. B. A message concerning the Safety of navigation. C. A vessel is in need of immediate assistance. D. A Coast Station sending an important traffic list. share/E7/7-71I30000664000175000017500000000032512223317614011320 0ustar jtnjtn71I3 A Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to a vessel in the POR? A. 582436559121. B. 870436559121. C. 582436559121+. D. 583436559121+. share/E7/7-15C40000664000175000017500000000064012223317612011307 0ustar jtnjtn15C4 B Which of the following service or maintenance functions may NOT be performed by the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator License? A. Reset tripped circuit breakers or replace defective fuses. B. Any adjustments or maintenance that may affect the proper operation of the station. C. Routine battery maintenance if used as part of the GMDSS station. D. Replacement of consumable items such as paper, ribbons, etc. share/E7/7-56H60000664000175000017500000000036212223317614011326 0ustar jtnjtn56H6 A What messages originate from registered information providers anywhere in the world and are broadcast to the appropriate ocean region via a LES? A. SafetyNETTM messages. B. AMVER broadcasts. C. Urgency messages. D. NAVTEX broadcasts. share/E7/7-27D10000664000175000017500000000107412223317612011312 0ustar jtnjtn27D1 C Which of the following statements concerning DSC equipment is true? A. The GMDSS Radio Operator is not responsible for properly selecting HF DSC guard channels because they are done automatically by the watch receiver. B. All equipment must be type accepted by Inmarsat. C. The vessel's navigational position must be updated, either automatically or manually, no less often than every four (4) hours. D. The GMDSS Radio Operator is responsible for properly selecting VHF & MF DSC guard channels but the HF frequencies are done automatically by the watch receiver. share/E7/7-41F30000664000175000017500000000160112223317613011307 0ustar jtnjtn41F3 C What statement is true regarding tests and maintenance that could be provided for the SART? A. Full verification within manufacturer's specifications by the on-board maintainer would be a requirement for all vessels in the A3 & A4 sea areas using measuring equipment to generate 9 GHz signals. B. Battery should be replaced within the 90 day grace period following the manufacturer's expiration date shown on the SART and the SART should only be tested at-sea to reduce interference to other vessels. C. Extreme care should be exercised because testing of the SART may be received by other vessels, may be interpreted as a Distress condition, or it may interfere with other vessels' safe navigation. D. Battery should be replaced with a new one before the manufacturer's expiration date shown on the SART and the SART should only be tested in port to reduce interference to other vessels. share/E7/7-58H20000664000175000017500000000035512223317614011326 0ustar jtnjtn58H2 A Which sequence is associated with the 5 new Arctic Ocean NAVAREAs? A. NAVAREA XVIII, NAVAREA XX, NAVAREA XXI. B. NAVAREA III, NAVAREA VII, NAVAREA XV. C. NAVAREA IV, NAVAREA XII, NAVAREA X. D. NAVAREA XII, NAVAREA X, NAVAREA XI. share/E7/7-100J30000664000175000017500000000114412223317616011374 0ustar jtnjtn100J3 D Which would indicate proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 Watt PEP output in J3E mode? A. In SITOR (NBDP) communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. B. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes the power meter to fluctuate well above the 60 watt reading. C. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. D. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, no power output is indicated. share/E7/7-74I50000664000175000017500000000106112223317615011324 0ustar jtnjtn74I5 C How would a notification of arrival be sent as a text to a mobile phone number using an Inmarsat-C unit? A. Mobile phone numbers cannot be reached by Inmarsat-C terminals because they lack voice capability. B. Use the Inmarsat-C voice handset to compose and transmit the text. C. Compose a text file, use the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu & specify the recipient using the address book function (or by manual entry) for SMS destinations. D. The mobile phone number is inserted as the first line of the text file and sent with the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu. share/E7/7-42F60000664000175000017500000000101112223317613011306 0ustar jtnjtn42F6 D Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true? A. The coded EPIRB signal identifies the nature of the Distress situation. B. The coded EPIRB signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry. C. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode. D. Once activated, these EPIRBs transmit a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. share/E7/7-64I10000664000175000017500000000103612223317614011320 0ustar jtnjtn64I1 B How is a signal radiated from an Inmarsat-B or F77 system's antenna? A. It is usually radiated in an omni-directional pattern, but an optional feature allows it to be directional for use when the vessel is on the fringe of the satellite's footprint. B. It is a highly focused directional signal that must be beamed at the desired satellite. C. It is radiated in an omni-directional pattern. D. It is radiated in an omni-directional pattern that can be reversed by the Operator to attain directional beaming to an alternate satellite. share/E7/7-31E10000664000175000017500000000150212223317613011303 0ustar jtnjtn31E1 C Which statement is true regarding the receipt and acknowledgement of actual Distress follow-on communications by GMDSS ship stations? A. Ship stations in receipt of Distress alert should not defer acknowledgement for a short interval, so that receipt may be acknowledged by the coast station. B. A Coast station has the sole obligation to respond. A ship station should wait for the Coast station MMSI DSC Acknowledgment before taking action. If a Coast station has no response in 15 minutes the ship should DSC acknowledge and inform the RCC. C. A ship station that receives a Distress call from another vessel must, as soon as possible, inform the Master or person responsible for the ship of the contents of the Distress communications received. D. Alerts concerning navigational hazards are second only to Safety traffic. share/E7/7-43F20000664000175000017500000000032312223317613011310 0ustar jtnjtn43F2 D What feature is not a component of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. 121.5 MHz emergency homing transmitter. B. Emergency transmission on 406.025 MHz. C. Float-free release bracket. D. Aural locator signal. share/E7/7-25D50000664000175000017500000000017412223317612011314 0ustar jtnjtn25D5 A Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. 436682011. B. 003662517. C. 325468325. D. 1500241. share/E7/7-63I30000664000175000017500000000060412223317614011321 0ustar jtnjtn63I3 A The Inmarsat telephone and TELEX communications channel usage scheme is: A. One ship per telephone channel and many ships per TELEX channel. B. Many ships on the same TELEX analog channel and many ships on the same TDM telephone channel. C. One ship per analog telephone channel and one ship per TELEX analog channel frequency. D. One ship per channel whether telephone or TELEX. share/E7/7-1A20000664000175000017500000000047612223317611011224 0ustar jtnjtn1A2 B The primary purpose of the GMDSS is: A. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels. B. Automate and improve emergency communications for the world's shipping industry. C. Provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications. D. Effective and inexpensive communications. share/E7/7-88J60000664000175000017500000000046412223317615011341 0ustar jtnjtn88J6 A "SITOR (NBDP)" communications are based on a digital code system: A. Consisting of 7 bits, with four zeros and three ones. B. Consisting of 7 bits, with four ones and three zeroes. C. Consisting of 5 bits TELEX and 8 bits Fax. D. Consisting of 5 bits for ship stations and 7 bits for shore stations. share/E7/7-61I20000664000175000017500000000037512223317614011323 0ustar jtnjtn61I2 B When logging into the Inmarsat system using Inmarsat-C, it is necessary to: A. Enter your IMN. B. Select the Ocean Region. C. Enter the LES answer back. D. Call the LES and inform them that you are now operating in the appropriate ocean region. share/E7/7-61I50000664000175000017500000000060412223317614011321 0ustar jtnjtn61I5 A Which of these can take place on an Inmarsat-C terminal that has synch with the NCS CC but has not yet performed a successful login? A. Reception of unscheduled MSI Urgency and Distress messages. B. Transmission of synoptic weather reports and company traffic. C. Reception of the mandatory scheduled BALD MSI messages. D. Reception of company traffic related to ship's business. share/E7/7-10B50000664000175000017500000000034512223317612011304 0ustar jtnjtn10B5 C What is the signal transmitted in J2B mode? A. A full carrier and one sideband. B. A full carrier and two sidebands. C. An upper sideband of 2 alternating tones. D. An upper sideband of a single tone switched on and off. share/E7/7-82J60000664000175000017500000000035512223317615011332 0ustar jtnjtn82J6 D ITU Duplex channels are: A. Frequency assignments specific to U.S. vessels only. B. VHF-FM frequencies. C. International Traffic Utility frequencies. D. Internationally standardized assignments of frequency pairs for common use. share/E7/7-90J30000664000175000017500000000153112223317615011323 0ustar jtnjtn90J3 B Assuming sending a direct TELEX message to a shore-based office, which sequence of events best describes a complete ARQ TELEX exchange with a coast station? A. Initiate call, observe phasing, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message, send KKKK to terminate the TELEX link, receive MRN & time and charges. B. Initiate call, observe phasing, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send DIRTLX command with zero, TELEX country code, TELEX number, send message, send KKKK to terminate the TELEX link, receive MRN and time and charges. C. Initiate call, observe exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message, send KKKK to terminate radio link, receive MRN & time and charges. D. Initiate call, observe phasing, exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message, send KKKK to terminate radio link, receive MRN & time and charges. share/E7/7-32E50000664000175000017500000000076412223317613011321 0ustar jtnjtn32E5 D Transmission of a Distress alert by a station on behalf of another vessel actually in Distress should not occur: A. When the mobile unit actually in Distress is not itself in a position to transmit the Distress alert. B. When the Master or responsible person on the mobile unit not in Distress so decides. C. When the responsible person at the Coast Station determines further help is necessary. D. When communications between the Distress vessel and a Coast station are already in progress. share/E7/7-98J50000664000175000017500000000027412223317616011341 0ustar jtnjtn98J5 C An incoming Distress priority 16 MHz DSC call requesting J3E emission might automatically switch to what frequency? A. 16420.0 MHz. B. 16696.5 kHz. C. 16420.0 kHz. D. 16804.5 kHz. share/E7/7-77I20000664000175000017500000000034112223317615011324 0ustar jtnjtn77I2 B What can be defined as the service that allows terrestrial information providers to send general information messages to pre-defined groups of subscribers? A. SafetyNETTM. B. FleetNETTM. C. COSPAS-SARSAT. D. InfoNET. share/E7/7-64I50000664000175000017500000000061412223317614011325 0ustar jtnjtn64I5 D Why is the automatic answerback request (WRU) first used by the LES after an Inmarsat-B TELEX call has been placed from a ship? A. Let the LES operator know the printer is functioning correctly. B. Get the identity of the ship station and start the channel assignment process. C. Verify that there is a good connection with no transmission errors. D. Identify the SES making the request. share/E7/7-40F50000664000175000017500000000066412223317613011320 0ustar jtnjtn40F5 D How can vessel personnel detect the operation of a SART in its vicinity? A. A unique two-tone "warbling" signal heard on VHF-FM Ch-70. B. It will activate an AIS new signal alarm on the AIS receiver. C. The SART signal appears as a target that comes and goes--due to the effect of heavy swells on a SART. D. A unique 3-cm signal consisting of a 12-dot pattern radiating outward from a SART's position along its line of bearing. share/E7/7-65I60000664000175000017500000000046012223317614011326 0ustar jtnjtn65I6 B What are the directional characteristics of the Inmarsat-C SES antenna? A. Highly directional parabolic antenna requiring stabilization. B. Omni-directional. C. Wide beam width in a cardioid pattern off the front of the antenna. D. Very narrow beam width straight-up from the top of the antenna. share/E7/7-2A10000664000175000017500000000016312223317611011215 0ustar jtnjtn2A1 D Which GMDSS system utilizes terrestrial radio techniques? A. F-77. B. Inmarsat-C. C. GPS. D. VHF-MF-HF-DSC. share/E7/7-11B10000664000175000017500000000016012223317612011274 0ustar jtnjtn11B1 C What is the channel spacing for MF-HF voice frequencies? A. 500 Hz. B. 2.8 kHz. C. 3.0 kHz. D. 3.5 kHz. share/E7/7-63I50000664000175000017500000000073712223317614011332 0ustar jtnjtn63I5 B Which of the following statements concerning Inmarsat geostationary satellites is true? A. They are in a polar orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. B. They provide coverage to vessels in nearly all of the world's navigable waters. C. They are in an equatorial orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. D. Vessels sailing in equatorial waters are able to use only one satellite, whereas other vessels are able to choose between at least two satellites. share/E7/7-94J20000664000175000017500000000046712223317616011336 0ustar jtnjtn94J2 A Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) Mode B (FEC), in the presence of static crashes. A. FEC reduces the error rate by transmitting each character twice. B. Data flow rate depends on signal propagation. C. Idle characters are sent upon request. D. Transmitter and receiver cannot synchronize. share/E7/7-61I40000664000175000017500000000063412223317614011323 0ustar jtnjtn61I4 D What is the primary danger of improperly logging out? A. The vessel will be barred in the future from sending traffic through an LES. B. The NCS ensures that improper log-out procedures do not occur. C. Scheduled MSI may not be available through the Inmarsat-C terminal. D. Your company or another ship may accrue significant charges when their traffic is repetitively sent to your unavailable terminal. share/E7/7-13C20000664000175000017500000000065112223317612011305 0ustar jtnjtn13C2 B What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections? A. U.S. Coast Guard annual inspection. B. An inspection at least once every 12 months by the FCC or a holder of a GMDSS Maintainers license. C. FCC inspection every five years. D. Periodic inspections not required if on board maintainers perform routine preventive maintenance. share/E7/7-95J60000664000175000017500000000046012223317616011334 0ustar jtnjtn95J6 C FEC SITOR (NBDP) transmissions are normally used to? A. Receive Coast station traffic lists, NAVTEX and VHF MSI broadcasts. B. Receive weather messages, Coast Station traffic lists and company messages. C. Receive HF MSI and NAVTEX. D. Receive company communications sent through coast stations. share/E7/7-67I10000664000175000017500000000064212223317614011325 0ustar jtnjtn67I1 C Which statement concerning Inmarsat-B and Inmarsat-C terminals is correct? A. Both Inmarsat-B and Inmarsat-C units are capable of fax and voice communications. B. Inmarsat-B units are not capable of data communications, but Inmarsat-C units are capable of data communications. C. Both Inmarsat-B and Inmarsat-C units can send data as well as send messages to fax machines. D. None of these answers is correct. share/E7/7-64I60000664000175000017500000000053212223317614011325 0ustar jtnjtn64I6 A When engaging in voice communications via an Inmarsat-B of F77 terminal, what procedures are used? A. CODECs are used to digitize the voice signal. B. Noise-blanking must be selected by the operator. C. The voice signal must be compressed to fit into the allowed bandwidth. D. The voice signal will be expanded at the receiving terminal. share/E7/7-68I50000664000175000017500000000065312223317614011334 0ustar jtnjtn68I5 D Which Inmarsat Earth Stations could a vessel utilize for Inmarsat-B traffic if operating off the Pacific Coast of the United States and tracking the POR satellite? A. Lakhdaria (Algeria), Yamaguchi (Japan) or Sentosa (Singapore). B. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands), EIK (Norway). C. Kumsan (South Korea), Burum (Netherlands), or Nakhoda (Russia). D. Santa Paula (USA), Auckland (New Zealand) or Yamaguchi (Japan). share/E7/7-22D50000664000175000017500000000021012223317612011300 0ustar jtnjtn22D5 C Which of the following MMSI numbers indicates a U.S. flag ship station? A. 430326890. B. 033609991. C. 303236824. D. 257326819. share/E7/7-65I50000664000175000017500000000062312223317614011326 0ustar jtnjtn65I5 A With an Inmarsat-C LES, how are messages routed to receiving stations? A. All messages are forwarded via a store and forward network. B. Direct connections are made to the receiving stations via gateways. C. Intermediary stations are used to connect the sending station with the receiving station in a real-time mode. D. Messages are stored until the network is polled by the receiving station. share/E7/7-16C40000664000175000017500000000144612223317612011315 0ustar jtnjtn16C4 A Which statement is false regarding the radio operator requirements for a GMDSS-equipped ship station? A. Maintaining a record of all incidents connected with the radio-communications service that appear to be of importance to Safety of life at sea is not required. B. One of the qualified GMDSS radio operators must be designated to have primary responsibility for radio-communications during Distress incidents. C. A qualified GMDSS radio operator, and a qualified backup, must be designated to perform Distress, Urgency and Safety communications. D. While at sea, all adjustments or radio installations, servicing or maintenance of such installations that may affect the proper operation of the GMDSS station must be performed by, or under the supervision of, a qualified GMDSS radio maintainer. share/E7/7-95J50000664000175000017500000000053412223317616011335 0ustar jtnjtn95J5 B BFEC SITOR (NBDP) transmissions might be used to? A. Receive Coast station traffic lists, NAVTEX and VHF MSI broadcasts. B. Send and receive Distress TELEX communications and receive HF MSI or NAVTEX. C. Receive weather messages or download ARQ Coast Station traffic lists. D. Receive weather messages and send vessel weather OBS messages. share/E7/7-59I40000664000175000017500000000056212223317614011332 0ustar jtnjtn59I4 B What is the importance of a successful log in indication, after power-up, on an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. The antenna Azimuth and Elevation controls are correctly adjusted. B. The terminal is enabled for routine incoming and outbound traffic. C. The receiver gain is properly adjusted for maximum signal. D. Unscheduled EGC MSI messages can no longer be received. share/E7/7-49G50000664000175000017500000000061012223317613011321 0ustar jtnjtn49G5 A Describing VHF transmissions as "line of sight" does not mean: A. VHF communications are effective only with nearby stations within visual range of the bridge. B. Vessel antenna height will not affect the radius of propagation. C. The normal transmission range to a coast station is approximately is 10 NM. D. Coast station antenna height has no effect on the radius of transmission. share/E7/7-58H60000664000175000017500000000025612223317614011332 0ustar jtnjtn58H6 D A vessel on a voyage between Miami and Los Angeles via the Panama Canal would be operating in which NAVAREAS? A. II and III. B. IV and V. C. V and VI. D. IV and XII. share/E7/7-72I40000664000175000017500000000040312223317615011320 0ustar jtnjtn72I4 A Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside terminal number 276992 in New Jersey via TRT (TELEX country code 238)? A. 238276992. B. (238)276992. C. 238276992#. D. 238276992+. share/E7/7-3A40000664000175000017500000000042612223317611011223 0ustar jtnjtn3A4 B What is defined as an area, excluding sea areas A1 and A2, within the coverage of an Inmarsat geostationary satellite in which continuous alerting is available? A. Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR. B. Sea Area A3. C. Sea Area A4. D. Coastal and Inland Waters. share/E7/7-81J40000664000175000017500000000065012223317615011325 0ustar jtnjtn81J4 D For general communications purposes, simplex frequencies are: A. Normally used with public coast stations for routine telephone communications. B. Normally used between ship stations as well as public coast stations simultaneously. C. Normally used with public coast stations for routine SITOR (NBDP) communications. D. Normally used between ship stations and private coast stations or for ship-ship communications. share/E7/7-82J10000664000175000017500000000025512223317615011324 0ustar jtnjtn82J1 D Which of the following defines "ITU Channel 1216"? A. Ch-12 in the 16 MHz band. B. Ch-1216 in the MF band. C. Ch-12 in the 16 kHz band. D. Ch-16 in the 12 MHz band. share/E7/7-91J20000664000175000017500000000040512223317615011322 0ustar jtnjtn91J2 D What sequence of ARQ codes matches the following: request establishment of a landline, end radio link after traffic is done, request connection for AMVER messages? A. NNNN, KKKK, AMV+. B. KKKK, BRK+, AMV+. C. BRK+, DIRTLX+, AMV+. D. DIRTLX, BRK+, AMV+. share/E7/7-89J20000664000175000017500000000130312223317615011327 0ustar jtnjtn89J2 B Once ARQ communication with the coast radio station has been established, which of the following events will most likely take place? A. The vessel then requests the coast radio station's SELCAL so that communication can be set up on the appropriate working channel. B. After exchanging answer-backs (WRU-AAB) with the vessel, the coast radio station transmits GA+?. C. Since communication has already shifted to the working channel, the vessel then transmits the subscriber number and text of the message to be sent for the coast radio station to store and forward. D. The coast radio station will transmit a menu of commands such as DIRTLX+, OBS+ or AMV+ so the ship can select the desired action. share/E7/7-21D30000664000175000017500000000015312223317612011303 0ustar jtnjtn21D3 C Which one of the following is a ship station SELCAL? A. 1104. B. 1502352. C. 11243. D. 0230364973. share/E7/7-20C20000664000175000017500000000060512223317612011302 0ustar jtnjtn20C2 C Which of the following statements is false? A. Key letters or abbreviations may be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks if their meaning is explained. B. Urgency communications may need to be entered in the GMDSS radio log. C. Distress communications heard do not require entries if the vessel did not participate in SAR activity. D. Log entries of VHF Safety broadcasts are not required. share/E7/7-67I30000664000175000017500000000076212223317614011332 0ustar jtnjtn67I3 A Which statement concerning Inmarsat-B and Inmarsat-C terminals is correct? A. Inmarsat-B terminals require AZ/EL setup and gyro input, in order to enable automatic satellite tracking. B. Inmarsat-B terminals require gyro and GPS input, in order to enable automatic satellite tracking. C. Inmarsat-C terminals require only GPS input, in order to enable automatic satellite tracking. D. Inmarsat-C terminals require AZ/EL setup and GPS input, in order to enable automatic satellite tracking. share/E7/7-60I50000664000175000017500000000021012223317614011311 0ustar jtnjtn60I5 D Which longitude corresponds to the POR's satellite location for Inmarsat-B/C communications? A. 64E. B. 15.5W. C. 54W. D. 178E. share/E7/7-54H50000664000175000017500000000027412223317614011325 0ustar jtnjtn54H5 C SafetyNETTM messages can be received by which of the following shipboard equipment? A. NAVTEX. B. MF and HF SITOR (NBDP). C. Inmarsat-C EGC receiver. D. Inmarsat F77 EGC receiver. share/E7/7-88J20000664000175000017500000000071412223317615011333 0ustar jtnjtn88J2 C Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. FEC transmissions are made in data groups consisting of three-character blocks. B. FEC transmissions require a "phasing" or "handshaking" process prior to character transmission. C. FEC transmissions rely upon an error correction technique, which transmits each character twice. D. FEC transmissions rely upon parity and "repeat requests" to ensure error correction. share/E7/7-69I50000664000175000017500000000055612223317614011337 0ustar jtnjtn69I5 A If you are tracking the POR satellite and wish to communicate by voice using LES Santa Paula with another ship tracking the AOR-E satellite what is the proper procedure? A. Select LES: 001# then dial 00870323972310#. B. Select LES: 004# then dial 11582430315036#. C. Select LES: 001# then dial 00851636824323#. D. Select LES: 003+ then dial 00581430326430+. share/E7/7-46F30000664000175000017500000000043512223317613011320 0ustar jtnjtn46F3 B Which of the following frequencies have been designated for "On-scene" communications in the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System? A. VHF Ch-22. B. VHF Ch-16 and SITOR (NBDP) on 2174.5 kHz. C. HF radiotelephone on 21.820 MHz. D. SITOR (NBDP) on 2177.0 kHz and VHF Ch-16. share/E7/7-34E10000664000175000017500000000071212223317613011310 0ustar jtnjtn34E1 D What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence? A. To ensure that interference to proprietary communications is minimized. B. To ensure that only voice communications can be effected on the Distress frequency or channel. C. To ensure that a Distressed vessel will have a "window" twice each hour for transmitting routine messages. D. To mitigate the risk of interference on a frequency or channel being used for emergency communications. share/E7/7-86J10000664000175000017500000000061712223317615011332 0ustar jtnjtn86J1 D Which of these is not a primary purpose of the MF/HF DSC controller? A. It provides for the electronic memory of incoming and outgoing DSC calls. B. It permits control of transceiver operations in response to an incoming DSC call. C. It provides for the formatting and transmission of outgoing DSC calls. D. It provides the scanning watch receiver capability on the 6 MF/HF DSC frequencies. share/E7/7-73I60000664000175000017500000000040612223317615011326 0ustar jtnjtn73I6 B Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine number (045) 334-5678 in Japan (voice country code 81)? A. 810453345678#. B. 810453345678. C. 81(045)3345678. D. 81 (045) 334-5678. share/E7/7-87J30000664000175000017500000000026112223317615011330 0ustar jtnjtn87J3 A What does the term FEC mean in SITOR (NBDP) communications? A. Forward Error Correction. B. Field Effect Correction. C. Forward Error Check. D. Forward Error Character. share/E7/7-74I20000664000175000017500000000074312223317615011327 0ustar jtnjtn74I2 A To send message traffic to an Internet address using an Inmarsat- C terminal -- what action would be required? A. Select the recipient using the e-mail code from the address book (or manually select the code). B. Insert the Internet address into the correct field when creating the message file. C. Select the recipient using the e-mail code into the DNID/ENID setup e-mail function. D. Insert the Internet address into the correct field of the System setup e-mail function. share/E7/7-76I60000664000175000017500000000032012223317615011324 0ustar jtnjtn76I6 A Detailed Distress situation report message formats can best be found in? A. IAMSAR manual Volume III. B. ITU list of RCC and Coast stations. C. AMVER chapter of NGA PUB 117. D. FCC Title 47, Part 80. share/E7/7-72I20000664000175000017500000000040412223317615011317 0ustar jtnjtn72I2 C Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 440122 in the United Kingdom (TELEX country code 51)? A. 51440122+. B. (51)440122. C. 51440122. D. 51440122#. share/E7/7-59I30000664000175000017500000000055612223317614011334 0ustar jtnjtn59I3 A With most Inmarsat-C systems what should the indicator lamps do when powering up? A. All lamps should illuminate in a particular sequence, as per the operator's manual. B. The power on lamp should illuminate. Other lights remain off until a message is received. C. All lamps should light and stay illuminated. D. All lamps should light except the RED light. share/E7/7-76I10000664000175000017500000000113012223317615011317 0ustar jtnjtn76I1 B What action would be the swiftest and most certain way to notify a RCC of a Distress situation aboard your vessel? A. Compose a detailed Distress message and send it to the closest LES to optimize the SAR response. B. Confirm the information in the Distress Alert Message setup menu is correct and use the "hot-key" or Distress Message Generator function on your satellite terminal. C. Press all of the "hot keys" available in the GMDSS console to ensure the RCC is notified. D. Send a multi-frequency DSC alert to ensure the RCC is notified regardless of Ionospheric propagation conditions. share/E7/7-63I10000664000175000017500000000030512223317614011315 0ustar jtnjtn63I1 C What is an MRN? A. Mobile Registration Number, provided by the FCC. B. Mobile Registration Number, provided by IMO. C. Message Reference Number, provided by the LES. D. Vessel's call sign. share/E7/7-91J40000664000175000017500000000101512223317615011322 0ustar jtnjtn91J4 B A manual ship-ship ARQ message would typically begin with what sequence of ARQ procedures? A. Initiate call with CS selcal, observe exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message. B. Initiate call with ship selcal, enter "HERE IS" then "WRU" commands and send message. C. After phasing with the other vessel, observe exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message and then KKKK to end the transmission. D. After phasing with the other vessel then send GA+? to determine if they are ready to receive your message. share/E7/7-99J30000664000175000017500000000075112223317616011340 0ustar jtnjtn99J3 A What is a gel cell battery and how is it maintained & cared for? A. Gel cell batteries are typically sealed; special charging rates and voltages may be required. B. Gel cell batteries are lead acid with a solid electrolyte; each cell is checked with a voltmeter. C. Gel cell batteries are NICAD with a solid electrolyte; each cell is checked with a voltmeter. D. Gel cell batteries are have special liquid electrolytes; they are charged with the NICAD charging rates and voltages. share/E7/7-27D20000664000175000017500000000123112223317612011306 0ustar jtnjtn27D2 D What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC Distress alert is received requesting J3E? A. No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically switch to the SITOR (NBDP) follow-on communications frequency. B. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70. C. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the SITOR (NBDP) frequency that is associated with frequency band on which the Distress alert was received. D. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated with frequency band on which the Distress alert was received. share/E7/7-36E30000664000175000017500000000047712223317613011324 0ustar jtnjtn36E3 D Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. Treatment of a crewmember with a broken leg that is not life-threatening. B. Treatment of a crewmember with a serious cardiac emergency. C. A fire in the generator flat/spaces. D. Loss of 5 containers with lashing gear over the side. share/E7/7-17C30000664000175000017500000000041612223317612011311 0ustar jtnjtn17C3 C Which term describes the source of energy required to supply the GMDSS console with power if the ship's source of main or emergency energy fails? A. Emergency power. B. Ship's emergency diesel generator. C. Reserve Source of Energy. D. Ship's standby generator. share/E7/7-15C60000664000175000017500000000040112223317612011304 0ustar jtnjtn15C6 C What determines the spares and maintenance materials requirements for the SITOR (NBDP) equipment under GMDSS? A. 47 CFR Part 80. B. IMO Circular "Equipment Spares". C. The recommendations of the manufacturer. D. The GMDSS Maintainer's requirements. share/E7/7-9B40000664000175000017500000000014112223317612011225 0ustar jtnjtn9B4 D What is the emission designation for MF-HF voice signals? A. F1B. B. J2B. C. F3E. D. J3E. share/E7/7-34E50000664000175000017500000000125312223317613011315 0ustar jtnjtn34E5 C How are normal working conditions restored on a SITOR (NBDP) frequency on which radio silence had been imposed? A. The LES that imposed the radio silence must transmit a SITOR (NBDP) message stating "SILENCE FINI". B. The Public Correspondence Station (PCS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a narrow band direct printing message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". C. The RCC or Coast station that imposed the radio silence must transmit a SITOR (NBDP) message stating "SILENCE FINI". D. The High Seas Service (HSS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a narrow band direct printing message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". share/E7/7-7B10000664000175000017500000000017512223317611011226 0ustar jtnjtn7B1 C What is the frequency range for Medium Frequency? A. 10-30 MHz. B. 1,000-10,000 kHz. C. 300-3,000 kHz. D. 30-300 kHz. share/E7/7-80J60000664000175000017500000000054312223317615011327 0ustar jtnjtn80J6 A To set-up the MF/HF Transceiver for a voice call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper voice operations. B. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR (NBDP) operations. C. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. D. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether FEC or ARQ is preferred. share/E7/7-5A20000664000175000017500000000056412223317611011226 0ustar jtnjtn5A2 B What statement is true regarding the additional equipment carriage requirement imposed for the survival craft of vessels over 500 gross tons? A. Additional carriage of two radio equipped lifeboats aft. B. A second radar transponder is required. C. Four additional portable VHF radios are required. D. The ability to communicate in all modes with any shore station. share/E7/7-30E10000664000175000017500000000022212223317613011300 0ustar jtnjtn30E1 D If a VHF-DSC Distress alert is transmitted what channel is used for follow-on voice transmission? A. Ch-12. B. Ch-70. C. Ch-13. D. Ch-16. share/E7/7-82J20000664000175000017500000000017712223317615011330 0ustar jtnjtn82J2 A Which of the following is a valid 22-MHz ITU Channel? A. HF Ch-2206. B. VHF Ch-22. C. Ch-22A VTS. D. Ch-70 (DSC only). share/E7/7-62I30000664000175000017500000000023612223317614011321 0ustar jtnjtn62I3 B Messages are transmitted by an Inmarsat LES according to what criteria? A. First In, First Out. B. Priority. C. Last In, First Out. D. Serial Number. share/E7/7-57H30000664000175000017500000000032112223317614011317 0ustar jtnjtn57H3 C The U.S. Coast Guard communications station providing HF MSI (Maritime Safety Information) broadcast coverage for NAVAREA XII is: A. NMA (Miami). B. NMF (Boston). C. NMO (Honolulu). D. NMR (San Juan). share/E7/7-86J20000664000175000017500000000072212223317615011330 0ustar jtnjtn86J2 A A "Distress Hot Key" MF/HF DSC Distress alert: A. Will be transmitted on 2187.5 kHz or another DSC frequency, depending on the manufacturer. B. Will always be transmitted on 2187.5 kHz and 8414.5 kHz to trip DSC alarms on the mandatory MF/HF DSC watch frequencies. C. Will always be transmitted on 2187.5 kHz first to alert the nearest vessels and coast stations. D. Will always be sent first on 16804.5 kHz to reach coast stations far away from the vessel. share/E7/7-14C20000664000175000017500000000040012223317612011276 0ustar jtnjtn14C2 A Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found? A. These are located in 47 CFR Part 80. B. These are located in CCIR #476. C. These are located in FCC Part 83. D. These are published only by the U.S. Coast Guard. share/E7/7-97J40000664000175000017500000000036212223317616011335 0ustar jtnjtn97J4 D At mid-night, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate, using SITOR (NBDP) with a shore station some 800 miles distant? A. VHF-FM. B. Higher UHF bands. C. Communications are impossible at this distance. D. HF bands. share/E7/7-4A30000664000175000017500000000110712223317611011220 0ustar jtnjtn4A3 D GMDSS-equipped ships will be required to perform which of the following communications functions? A. Distress alerting, MSI, SAR and on-scene communications & receipt of satellite alerts from other vessels. B. SAR and on-scene communications, Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications, MSI and relay of satellite alerts from other vessels. C. Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications, RDF of EPIRB homing signals, Distress alerting and MSI. D. Transmit distress alerts, SAR and on-scene communications, MSI, Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications. share/E7/7-43F50000664000175000017500000000052412223317613011316 0ustar jtnjtn43F5 B Which of the following statements concerning EPIRBs is false? A. The COSPAS-SARSAT system may take a full hour or more to provide an alert. B. The Inmarsat system provides worldwide coverage for Distress alerts. C. The GOES weather satellites are in a geostationary orbit. D. 406 MHz EPIRB units may be equipped with GPS receivers. share/E7/7-7B30000664000175000017500000000017012223317611011223 0ustar jtnjtn7B3 A What is the frequency range for Very High Frequency? A. 30-300 MHz. B. 3-30 MHz. C. 300-3,000 kHz. D. 10-30 MHz. share/E7/7-79I60000664000175000017500000000044212223317615011334 0ustar jtnjtn79I6 C Which functions may the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator License not perform on the Inmarsat-C equipment? A. Selection of LES for routine traffic. B. Maintain the antenna clear of soot, paint, etc. C. Adjust the azimuth and elevation values. D. Logon, traffic and logoff functions. share/E7/7-23D60000664000175000017500000000047612223317612011320 0ustar jtnjtn23D6 C Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true? A. All ship station MMSI must begin with a single zero and include the MID. B. All group station MMSI must begin with the MID. C. None of these answers are correct. D. All Coast Station MMSI must be 9 digits and begin with the MID and then two zeros. share/E7/7-41F10000664000175000017500000000100212223317613011300 0ustar jtnjtn41F1 A Which of the following statements concerning testing and maintenance of SARTs is true? A. Testing a SART should be done in a consistent manner & location to ensure a baseline history of proper results. B. Testing of the SART should never be done in port to prevent interference to other vessel's radars. C. A SART's battery must be replaced within ninety (90) days after the expiration date imprinted on the unit. D. An at-sea GMDSS maintainer is not able to test a SART because it is hermetically sealed. share/E7/7-30E20000664000175000017500000000024712223317613011310 0ustar jtnjtn30E2 A If a MF-DSC Distress alert is transmitted what frequency is used for follow-on voice transmission? A. 2182.0 kHz. B. 2760.0 kHz. C. 2187.5 kHz. D. 2174.5 kHz. share/E7/7-25D60000664000175000017500000000033712223317612011316 0ustar jtnjtn25D6 B Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. A 9 digit number beginning with the MID. B. A 9 digit number always starting with 4. C. A 7 digit number. D. A 9 digit number always starting with 3. share/E7/7-94J60000664000175000017500000000101512223317616011330 0ustar jtnjtn94J6 D Selective FEC communications (SFEC) are employed when: A. Multiple stations without a group SELCAL must receive communications without using their transmitters (Radio Silence). B. Multiple stations must receive communications by using their transmitters to achieve phasing. C. An individual station must receive communications by using their transmitter to achieve phasing and block other stations from breaking in. D. An individual station must receive communications without using any transmitters (Radio Silence). share/E7/7-27D40000664000175000017500000000042012223317613011310 0ustar jtnjtn27D4 B A DSC Distress alert: A. Must always be sent on VHF Ch-70. B. Will always be sent on one or more of the DSC Distress frequencies. C. Must always be sent on MF 2 MHz plus one other HF DSC frequency. D. Must always be sent on VHF Ch-70, then 2 MHz MF then 8 MHz HF. share/E7/7-66I50000664000175000017500000000024612223317614011330 0ustar jtnjtn66I5 C It is possible to transmit all of the following via Inmarsat-C from a vessel except? A. TELEX. B. Text for delivery by fax. C. Voice. D. x.400 data services. share/E7/7-49G20000664000175000017500000000027312223317613011323 0ustar jtnjtn49G2 B At mid-day, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate with a shore station 15 miles distant? A. 16 MHz band. B. 156-164 MHz band. C. 12 MHz band. D. 22 MHz band. share/E7/7-97J10000664000175000017500000000100712223317616011327 0ustar jtnjtn97J1 A A ship has been communicating effectively on 16 MHz during daylight hours with a shore station at a distance of 3500 miles. Toward late afternoon and evening what effect would be noticed? A. Communications should gradually deteriorate and become impossible on this frequency at night. B. Communications should be maintained with slight improvement in the signal received from the shore station. C. The gray line effect will prevent communications after dark. D. Communications should improve and peak at night. share/E7/7-74I30000664000175000017500000000065112223317615011326 0ustar jtnjtn74I3 B What menu function in Inmarsat-C terminals would typically be used to specify an Internet address destination? A. The System Setup menu to store all required e-mail destinations. B. The Address book function (or manual entry) in the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu. C. The Data Report menu to initiate the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT process. D. The menus for File Operations are used for adding the Internet address to the file. share/E7/7-39F20000664000175000017500000000101612223317613011315 0ustar jtnjtn39F2 D Which of the following would most likely not prevent a SART's signal from being detected? A. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-CM radar and the SART was mounted improperly in the lifeboat. B. The SART was mounted improperly in the survival craft and rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-CM radar. C. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-CM radar and the SART was properly mounted in the lifeboat. D. The SART was properly mounted in the lifeboat and rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-CM radar. share/E7/7-85J50000664000175000017500000000105412223317615011331 0ustar jtnjtn85J5 A Through which coast radio station(s) may a U.S.-flag merchant vessel communicate? A. Any coast radio station in the world that is licensed to provide such communications. B. Any coast radio station in the world that is licensed to provide such communications, but prior authorization must be obtained for a U.S.-flag merchant vessel to communicate through a non-U.S. station. C. The U.S. Coast Guard coordinates the communications and assigns the working channel. D. U.S. flag ships are licensed to communicate only with U.S. coast radio stations. share/E7/7-59I60000664000175000017500000000056412223317614011336 0ustar jtnjtn59I6 C On an Inmarsat-C system an incoming EGC alarm sounds: A. When first powered on and when receiving Distress traffic. B. When receiving Distress traffic and all of the BALD MSI messages. C. To draw the operator's attention to an unscheduled Distress or Urgency message. D. To indicate the loss of NCS CC sync -- preventing the reception of unscheduled EGC messages. share/E7/7-93J40000664000175000017500000000045412223317616011333 0ustar jtnjtn93J4 D Which of the following would be a valid automatic TELEX code and number for a request for a real-time TELEX connection to a shore-based TELEX terminal? A. DIRTLX then waits for MSG+ to dial 023419645+. B. DIRTLX23122445+. C. DIRTLX followed by GA+? and the TELEX number. D. DIRTLX023424998+. share/E7/7-12B10000664000175000017500000000021312223317612011274 0ustar jtnjtn12B1 B A vertical (whip) antenna has a radiation pattern best described by? A. A figure eight. B. A circle. C. A cardioid. D. An ellipse. share/E7/7-4A50000664000175000017500000000065612223317611011232 0ustar jtnjtn4A5 D Which of the following are required GMDSS functions? A. Bridge-to-Bridge communications, reception of weather map facsimile broadcasts, SAR communications. B. Reception of weather map facsimile broadcasts, receiving company email, On-scene communications. C. Reception of VHF weather channels, On-scene communications, general communications. D. Bridge-to-Bridge communications, general communications, SAR communications. share/E7/7-53H50000664000175000017500000000062312223317614011322 0ustar jtnjtn53H5 A Which information determines if a NAVTEX message is to be rejected? A. The second letter (from A to Z) in the header indicating the type of message. B. Transmitter identity (numerals from 1 to 26 identifying transmitting station within the NAVAREA). C. The Answerback of the receiving station has not been entered in the NAVTEX receiver. D. Only messages having a serial number 00 are rejected. share/E7/7-4A40000664000175000017500000000036212223317611011223 0ustar jtnjtn4A4 A What equipment can be used to receive Maritime Safety Information? A. NAVTEX, EGC receiver or HF SITOR (NBDP). B. EGC receiver, Inmarsat B or F77 terminal. C. HF SITOR (NBDP), Inmarsat B or NAVTEX. D. All of these answers are correct. share/E7/7-29E60000664000175000017500000000116112223317613011320 0ustar jtnjtn29E6 B Which statement regarding an MF/HF DSC Distress call is true: A. Follow on communications should be presumed to take place on the SITOR (NBDP) frequency associated with the specific DSC frequency used. B. Follow on communications should be presumed to take place on the voice frequency associated with the specific DSC frequency used. C. An alternate emission and frequency may be specified for follow-up communications by the vessel in the original Distress alert. D. Both the nature of Distress and the alternate emission and frequency must be specified for follow-up communications in the original Distress alert. share/E7/7-99J20000664000175000017500000000036212223317616011335 0ustar jtnjtn99J2 D What is the normal specific gravity of a fully charged lead acid battery cell? What device is used to measuring the electrolyte of a lead acid battery? A. 1.375 Voltmeter. B. 1.180 Voltmeter. C. 1.210 Hydrometer. D. 1.280 Hydrometer. share/E7/7-68I30000664000175000017500000000105112223317614011323 0ustar jtnjtn68I3 D Which LES should a GMDSS Radio Operator select to update a Distress alert message if the vessel is in the southern Pacific Ocean near the Dateline? A. Santa Paula (USA) or Beijing (PRC) would be the best choice depending on SAR jurisdiction. B. Kumsan (South Korea) or Sentosa (Singapore) would be the best choice depending on SAR jurisdiction. C. Yamaguchi (Japan) or Nakhoda (Russia) would be the best choice depending on SAR jurisdiction. D. Auckland (New Zealand) or Santa Paula (USA) would be the best choice depending on SAR jurisdiction. share/E7/7-72I30000664000175000017500000000043412223317615011323 0ustar jtnjtn72I3 D If your vessel is in the POR, which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 42267 in Ecuador (TELEX country code 308)? A. 58230842267. B. 30842267+. C. (582)30842267. D. 30842267. share/E7/7-75I40000664000175000017500000000065012223317615011327 0ustar jtnjtn75I4 B What must be done to disconnect an incoming TELEX message when voice Distress communications is desired via Inmarsat-B? A. Momentarily turn off the system power. B. Depressing the "Distress" button automatically disconnects incoming messages. C. It is necessary to wait until the incoming TELEX message has concluded otherwise a system fault will occur. D. Depress the "Reset" switch to disconnect incoming message. share/E7/7-70I50000664000175000017500000000033712223317614011324 0ustar jtnjtn70I5 C What keyboard entry would you make on an Inmarsat-B terminal for an automatic TELEX connection to 882419 in Nebraska, USA (TELEX country code 230)? A. 11230882419+. B. 00230882419#. C. 00230882419+. D. 00230882419. share/E7/7-25D20000664000175000017500000000027512223317612011313 0ustar jtnjtn25D2 B You receive a TELEX with the sender's I.D. of 436640927. What type of terminal sent this message to your vessel? A. F77 Fleet. B. Inmarsat-C. C. Land TELEX terminal. D. Inmarsat-M. share/E7/7-27D30000664000175000017500000000127212223317612011314 0ustar jtnjtn27D3 A What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC Distress alert? A. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert and default information will automatically be transmitted. B. It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be manually reset. C. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert but, as no information will be transmitted, rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel, its position, or its situation. D. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert, but any station receiving it will have to establish contact with the distressed vessel to determine its identity, position, and situation. share/E7/7-65I20000664000175000017500000000105012223317614011316 0ustar jtnjtn65I2 B What is the average length of time required for a TELEX sent by Inmarsat-C to be delivered to the addressee? A. All Inmarsat-C communications are made with real-time connectivity so there is no delay in message delivery. B. The average delivery time for a message sent by Inmarsat-C is about 10 minutes. C. Date/time notification of delivery is possible only through Inmarsat-B. D. The average delivery time for a TELEX sent by Inmarsat-C is about 10 minutes, but fax and data messages sent by Inmarsat-C require about 30 minutes for delivery. share/E7/7-50G10000664000175000017500000000051112223317614011306 0ustar jtnjtn50G1 D A VHF frequency channel pair of TX 157.200 MHz and RX 161.800 MHz would most likely be: A. A VTS frequency for VTS - Ship communications. B. A simplex Public Correspondence Coast Radio Station frequency. C. A simplex Private Coast Radio Station frequency. D. A duplex Public Correspondence Coast Radio Station frequency. share/E7/7-6A20000664000175000017500000000123512223317611011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A2 A Which of the following statements concerning GMDSS maintenance requirements is true? A. The options are duplication of equipment, at-sea maintenance, and shore-based maintenance. B. Compulsory vessels between 300-500 gross tons are required only to provide one maintenance option, while compulsory vessels larger than 500 gross tons and all passenger vessels are required to provide any two of the three maintenance options. C. The "at-sea" maintenance may be waived if the compulsory vessel carries at least three licensed GMDSS Radio Operators. D. Compulsory vessels operating in Sea Area A4 are required to carry at least one licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. share/E7/7-63I40000664000175000017500000000057012223317614011324 0ustar jtnjtn63I4 B What is an "Inmarsat Mobile Number"? A. This identifies the vessel's selective calling (SELCAL) number. B. This is the Inmarsat number that is assigned to a unit for incoming or outgoing calls. C. This is the vessel's Inmarsat registration number for accounting authority purposes. D. This number is used for receiving news and other optional services in FleetNET TM. share/E7/7-2A50000664000175000017500000000021412223317611011216 0ustar jtnjtn2A5 C What system provides accurate vessel position information to the GMDSS equipment? A. COSPAS-SARSAT. B. EPIRB. C. GPS. D. Inmarsat-B. share/E7/7-85J10000664000175000017500000000043312223317615011325 0ustar jtnjtn85J1 A When placing a SSB MF/HF call to a Coast Station, you should always: A. Make sure the frequency is not occupied. B. Choose the closest station to ensure a quick connection. C. Tune the transmitter on another frequency. D. Wait until the coast station sends his traffic list. share/E7/7-91J50000664000175000017500000000051712223317615011331 0ustar jtnjtn91J5 B What sequence of ARQ codes matches the following: shore station indicates it is awaiting instructions from the vessel, vessel requests a live connection to a land telex number, vessel indicates it is done with the coast station? A. WRU-AAB, DIRTLX, NNNN. B. GA+?, DIRTLX, BRK+. C. GA+?, DIRTLX, KKKK. D. WRU-AAB, DIRTLX, ..... share/E7/7-78I40000664000175000017500000000074312223317615011335 0ustar jtnjtn78I4 C What maintenance function may the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator license perform, or supervise the performance of, on an Inmarsat-C SES? A. Adjust the station's EIRP (power output ) for improved signal levels. B. Enter Azimuth and Elevation values correctly so the Inmarsat-C SES can find the NCS CC. C. Remove stack deposits and other debris from the antenna to prevent degraded performance. D. Adjust a reference oscillator or synthesizer to tune the unit to the NCS CC. share/E7/7-15C50000664000175000017500000000077012223317612011314 0ustar jtnjtn15C5 B What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port? A. The vessel is carrying more than the required number of qualified GMDSS radio operators. B. The vessel is not capable of performing all required Distress and Safety functions. C. The vessel has a temporary waiver of its radio license and Safety Certificate. D. The vessel is not carrying a GMDSS radio maintainer, but has provided for shoreside maintenance plus duplication of equipment if required. share/E7/7-21D40000664000175000017500000000015712223317612011310 0ustar jtnjtn21D4 D Which of the following is the call sign for a U.S.C.G. coast station? A. NERK. B. KPH. C. WCC. D. NMN. share/E7/7-89J40000664000175000017500000000041612223317615011335 0ustar jtnjtn89J4 D When placing a TELEX call to a Coast Station, you should always: A. Choose the closest station. B. Tune the transmitter on another frequency. C. Wait until the coast station sends his traffic list. D. Make sure the frequency is not occupied with normal traffic. share/E7/7-45F20000664000175000017500000000032112223317613011310 0ustar jtnjtn45F2 B Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on 457.525 MHz. B. Operation on Ch-16. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Operation on Ch-70. share/E7/7-48F50000664000175000017500000000062412223317613011324 0ustar jtnjtn48F5 D What are the best resources for researching and planning equipment setups and updates prior to any potential Distress situation? A. NGA Pub. 117, Inmarsat handbook or manufacturer's equipment manuals. B. Inmarsat handbook, FCC Part 80 or ITU List of Coast stations. C. ITU List of Coast stations, IMO GMDSS handbook, FCC Part 80. D. Inmarsat handbook, NGA Pub, 117 or ITU List of Coast stations. share/E7/7-20C60000664000175000017500000000077312223317612011314 0ustar jtnjtn20C6 A Which of the following logkeeping statements is false? A. Entries of all company communications using GMDSS satellite equipment are required. B. Entries relating to pre-voyage, pre-departure and daily tests are required. C. A summary of all Distress communications heard and Urgency communications affecting the station's own ship. Also, all Safety communications (other than VHF) affecting the station's own ship must be logged. D. Entries related to failures of compulsory equipment are required. share/E7/7-85J30000664000175000017500000000147412223317615011335 0ustar jtnjtn85J3 C What is the best procedure for calling another ship station using HF radiotelephone when the signals are weak but readable? A. Give the name of the ship being called three times, and the words "this is" followed by the name of the ship initiating the call three times, and ending with "over". B. Instruct the nearest public correspondence station to add the desired ship's call sign to the station's traffic list. C. On a properly selected ITU channel, give the call sign of the ship being called three times using phonetics, then "this is" followed by the call sign of the ship initiating the call three times, using phonetics, and ending with "over". D. Notify the local vessel traffic service control station of your intention to contact a specific vessel, and request the VTS operator place the call on channel 22A. share/E7/7-93J10000664000175000017500000000031112223317616011320 0ustar jtnjtn93J1 A Which of the following keystrokes or characters is sent as part of ARQ communications to request a direct TELEX call to a shore-based location? A. DIRTLX023123456+. B. MSG+. C. GA+?. D. ENTER. share/E7/7-19C50000664000175000017500000000114212223317612011312 0ustar jtnjtn19C5 B Proper watchkeeping includes the following: A. Understanding normal operational indicators, setting the DSC scanner frequencies to minimize alarms, maintaining a proper log. B. Maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log, understanding normal operational indicators, responding to and comprehending alarms. C. Responding to and comprehending alarms, logging out of Inmarsat-C terminals while at sea, maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log. D. Maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log, setting the DSC scanner frequencies to minimize alarms, logging out of Inmarsat-C terminals while at sea. share/E7/7-98J40000664000175000017500000000146212223317616011340 0ustar jtnjtn98J4 C Which of these would not be a bad outcome of an Urgency DSC call to all vessels specifying an alternate TELEX frequency & emission that cause your transceiver to automatically switch? A. The DSC controller decoded the contents of the DSC call and the requested frequency is not on the table/placard but is in the marine band frequencies in the J2B emission. B. The DSC controller decoded the contents of the DSC call and the requested frequency is on the table/placard in the J3E emission. C. The DSC controller decoded the contents of the DSC call and the requested frequency is on the table/placard in the J2B emission. D. The DSC controller decoded the contents of the DSC call and the requested frequency is not on the table/placard, is not in the marine band or the other vessel requested a J3E emission. share/E7/7-14C10000664000175000017500000000047512223317612011311 0ustar jtnjtn14C1 D Which of the following references should be consulted for information on the proper setup and use of GMDSS equipment? A. ITU List of Equipment Operations. B. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. C. Instructions are available through the Maritime Safety Information (MSI) system. D. The manufacturer's operating manuals. share/E7/7-100J40000664000175000017500000000114112223317616011372 0ustar jtnjtn100J4 A Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output? A. In SITOR (NBDP) communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. B. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, power output is indicated. C. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes power meter to fluctuate slightly around the 60 watt reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF Power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. share/E7/7-45F50000664000175000017500000000044312223317613011320 0ustar jtnjtn45F5 A Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of VHF Survival Craft Transceivers? A. Operation on Ch-13 is mandatory. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. C. Simplex (single frequency) voice communications only. D. Operation on Ch-16 is mandatory. share/E7/7-81J60000664000175000017500000000052212223317615011325 0ustar jtnjtn81J6 B An ITU duplex channel frequency is defined as: A. Transmit and receive frequencies may be identical if communications are ship-shore. B. Transmit and receive frequencies must be different. C. Transmit and receive frequencies must be identical. D. Transmit and receive frequencies may be different if communications are ship-ship. share/E7/7-72I60000664000175000017500000000045412223317615011330 0ustar jtnjtn72I6 A If your vessel is in the AOR-E, which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 776424 in Canada via the TWX system (TELEX country code 26)? A. 26776424. B. 58126776424. C. 582776424. D. 26776424+. share/E7/7-45F60000664000175000017500000000053212223317613011320 0ustar jtnjtn45F6 B Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. C. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. share/E7/7-61I30000664000175000017500000000051012223317614011313 0ustar jtnjtn61I3 C What action should be taken on changing from one ocean region to another? A. Power the system down and turn the power back on again. B. Manually realign the antenna. C. Log out of the current satellite and log in to the correct satellite. D. No action is required -- the unit will scan for another satellite and log in. share/E7/7-58H50000664000175000017500000000033512223317614011327 0ustar jtnjtn58H5 C A vessel operating in the Eastern Pacific or along the West coast of North and Central America from Alaska to Ecuador, including Panama and Hawaii, would be operating in which NAVAREA? A. X. B. XI. C. XII. D. IV. share/E7/7-81J30000664000175000017500000000040212223317615011317 0ustar jtnjtn81J3 C For general communications purposes, paired frequencies are: A. Normally used with private coast stations. B. Normally used between ship stations. C. Normally used with public coast stations. D. Normally used between private coast and ship stations. share/E7/7-98J20000664000175000017500000000145612223317616011341 0ustar jtnjtn98J2 A A DSC Distress call is received by your vessel and your transceiver frequency display reads: Transmit = 4207.5 kHz and Receive = 4207.5 kHz with J3E emission -- what information can you infer from this? A. The DSC call requested voice on 4207.5 kHz simplex but the requested alternate frequency is improper. B. The DSC controller decoded the requested voice frequency as 4207.5 kHz simplex and your DSC controller has automatically set-up your transceiver and therefore the requested alternate frequency is correct. C. The DSC call came in on 4 MHz DSC. You should set-up your transmitter and respond on the appropriate voice follow-on frequency of 4177.5 kHz. D. The DSC call came in on 4 MHz DSC. You should set-up your transmitter and respond on the appropriate voice follow-on frequency of 4207.5 kHz. share/E7/7-38E30000664000175000017500000000057412223317613011324 0ustar jtnjtn38E3 B DSC is used primarily to: A. Receive weather warnings, navigational notices and other Maritime Safety Information. B. Transmit and receive Distress, Urgency and Safety alerts and routine calls to and from other ships and coast radio stations. C. Provide routine communications with the ship owner. D. Report ship's position to search-and-rescue authorities via satellite. share/E7/7-96J60000664000175000017500000000074312223317616011341 0ustar jtnjtn96J6 A To ensure effective HF communications, GMDSS operators should: A. Employ the short rules of propagation selection or rely on previous successful communications as a guide. B. Disregard the short rules of propagation selection and try different bands until one works. C. Do not rely on previous successful communications on the selected frequency band - the ionosphere changes too rapidly and inconsistently. D. Rely on the equipment calculations of Optimum Usable Frequency. share/E7/7-35E60000664000175000017500000000052712223317613011322 0ustar jtnjtn35E6 C If the Watch Officer hears "PAN PAN" spoken 3 times it means: A. A navigation or important meteorological warning should follow. B. The station is preparing to transmit a Safety message possibly concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person. C. None of these answers is correct. D. A mobile unit is in need of immediate assistance. share/E7/7-69I60000664000175000017500000000040312223317614011327 0ustar jtnjtn69I6 B Which of the following is a correct dialing sequence for a vessel tracking the AOR-W satellite to send a FAX to a U.S. destination via Southbury LES -- using an Inmarsat-B terminal and charging it to a credit card? A. 003#. B. 001#. C. 001+. D. 001#. share/E7/7-11B50000664000175000017500000000013112223317612011276 0ustar jtnjtn11B5 B Which emission mode occupies the most bandwidth? A. J2B. B. F3E. C. J3E. D. F1B. share/E7/7-85J60000664000175000017500000000061112223317615011330 0ustar jtnjtn85J6 B What is the best source of information to find changes or additions to the routine communications frequencies of a Commercial Radio Station? A. GMDSS Master Plan of Shore-Based Facilities. B. ITU List of Coast Stations and Special Service Stations (List IV). C. FCC Part 80, Subpart W Coast Radio Stations. D. ITU List of Ship Stations and Maritime Mobile Service Identities (List V). share/E7/7-68I20000664000175000017500000000063712223317614011333 0ustar jtnjtn68I2 C Which Inmarsat Earth stations would be available for Inmarsat-B traffic if the vessel is off the Atlantic Coast of the United States and tracking the AOR-E satellite? A. Fucino (Italy), Thermopylae (Greece) or Haiphong (Vietnam). B. Santa Paula (USA), Beijing (PRC), Sentosa (Singapore). C. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands), or EIK (Norway). D. Haiphong (Vietnam), Burum (Netherlands), or EIK (Norway). share/E7/7-61I60000664000175000017500000000054412223317614011325 0ustar jtnjtn61I6 B Which of the following is not an example of a failure to log-out properly? A. Turning off the power prior to logging out with the NCS. B. A message on the screen or printer from the NCS. C. Sailing the vessel into a shadowing or local RF interference situation before logging out. D. Sailing out of the footprint of a satellite before logging out. share/E7/7-54H40000664000175000017500000000041612223317614011322 0ustar jtnjtn54H4 C Aboard ship, SafetyNETTM messages can be received by which equipment/methods? A. VHF DSC on the weather channels. B. NAVTEX Receiver on 518 kHz or the Tropical Navtex frequency. C. EGC receiver of the vessel's Inmarsat-C SES. D. HF SITOR (NBDP) MSI frequencies. share/E7/7-23D20000664000175000017500000000020612223317612011303 0ustar jtnjtn23D2 D A valid MMSI number for a DSC call to a specific group of vessels is: A. 003664523. B. 338462941. C. 003036483. D. 030327931. share/E7/7-87J20000664000175000017500000000024212223317615011326 0ustar jtnjtn87J2 D Which of the following acronyms refers to a communications system that does not use ARQ and/or FEC modes? A. NAVTEX. B. SITOR (NBDP). C. HF MSI. D. SART. share/E7/7-53H10000664000175000017500000000052312223317614011315 0ustar jtnjtn53H1 A The NAVTEX message header contains the following? A. The first letter (from A to Z) indicates the NAVTEX transmitting station. B. A two-digit number (01-99) indicates the NAVTEX message category. C. Message numbers include a date/time group, along with the transmitting station's numerical ID. D. None of these answers is correct. share/E7/7-7B50000664000175000017500000000017212223317611011227 0ustar jtnjtn7B5 B What is the frequency range for Super High Frequency? A. 30-300 GHz. B. 3-30 GHz. C. 300-3,000 MHz. D. 30-300 MHz. share/E7/7-9B60000664000175000017500000000012412223317612011230 0ustar jtnjtn9B6 B What is the emission designation for VHF-FM? A. F3C. B. F3E. C. J2B. D. H3E. share/E7/7-4A20000664000175000017500000000123412223317611011220 0ustar jtnjtn4A2 C Which GMDSS communication functions must all compulsory vessels be capable of performing to meet International Maritime Organization requirements? A. Distress alerting and receipt of Maritime Safety Information via Inmarsat for all vessels intending to operate in Sea Area A4. B. Distress alerting and receipt of MSI in Sea Areas A1, A2, A3, and A4 regardless of the vessel's intended area of operation. C. Distress alerting, general communications and receipt of Maritime Safety Information in the vessel's intended area of operation. D. General communications via Inmarsat and receipt of Maritime Safety Information via Enhanced Group Calling in Sea Area A4. share/E7/7-75I50000664000175000017500000000121012223317615011321 0ustar jtnjtn75I5 B Why is the correct selection of the LES in the Distress Alert Setup menu so crucial? A. Each LES has its own dedicated RCC whose jurisdiction is defined by the LES selected. B. The LES choice determines the nationality of the RCC which will handle the Distress traffic and perform SAR duties or that will pass the particulars to the RCC with jurisdiction to coordinate the SAR situation. C. Inmarsat terminals use the GPS position to automatically determine the optimum LES choice in a Distress situation. D. The vessel need not select the LES because the NCS will always intercept a Distress priority call and route it to the closest RCC. share/E7/7-8B20000664000175000017500000000022112223317611011220 0ustar jtnjtn8B2 C Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances? A. VHF DSC. B. Inmarsat. C. MF/HF radiotelephony. D. SafetyNETTM. share/E7/7-47F60000664000175000017500000000071012223317613011320 0ustar jtnjtn47F6 C Which statement is false regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system and EPIRB operations? A. The EPIRB's position is calculated by the system and passed to the MCC. B. The EPIRB transmits a unique Hex I.D. and vessel position that may be passed to the RCC. C. The EPIRB's position and Hex I.D. is passed instantaneously to the RCC. D. The EPIRB transmits a unique Hex I.D. that is passed to the RCC if it cannot be determined to be inadvertent by the MCC. share/E7/7-30E30000664000175000017500000000024712223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn30E3 B If a HF-DSC Distress alert is transmitted what frequency is used for follow-on voice transmission? A. 8376.5 kHz. B. 8291.0 kHz. C. 8401.5 kHz. D. 8201.0 kHz. share/E7/7-94J40000664000175000017500000000102612223317616011330 0ustar jtnjtn94J4 C The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences? A. One-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. B. One-way communications to all stations, two-way communications, one-way communications to a single station. C. Two way communications, one-way communications to all stations, one-way communications to a single station. D. Two way communications, One way communications to a single station, One way communications to all stations. share/E7/7-23D40000664000175000017500000000050112223317612011303 0ustar jtnjtn23D4 B Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true? A. Coast station MMSI numbers have 9 digits starting with 4. B. All MMSI numbers are 9 digits and contain an MID. C. Ship station MMSI numbers can be 7 digits or 9 digits depending on the Inmarsat terminal. D. Group MMSI numbers must begin with 2 zeros. share/E7/7-80J10000664000175000017500000000026012223317615011316 0ustar jtnjtn80J1 B Which modes could be selected to receive vessel traffic lists from high seas coast radio stations: A. AM and VHF-FM. B. SSB and FEC. C. ARQ and FEC. D. VHF-FM and SSB. share/E7/7-37E10000664000175000017500000000075012223317613011315 0ustar jtnjtn37E1 A Which of the following frequencies and modes is allocated for Distress alerting in GMDSS? A. 406 MHz via EPIRB, 1626.5-1645.5 MHz via Inmarsat and Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies. B. 1626.5-1645.5 MHz via Inmarsat, VHF CH-16 plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies, 406 MHz via EPIRB. C. Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies, 7 voice follow-on and 6 telex follow-on frequencies. D. Mayday on VHF Channel 70 and the other six voice follow-on frequencies. share/E7/7-84J30000664000175000017500000000070712223317615011332 0ustar jtnjtn84J3 D In an AM broadcast signal using voice: A. Varying the amplitude of the carrier and employing both sidebands without the carrier. B. Varying only the amplitude of the carrier, depending on Double or Single-Sideband operations. C. Varying the amplitude of the carrier and employing both sidebands and the carrier. D. There is a carrier with constant amplitude and frequency with complex upper and lower sidebands varying in amplitude and frequency. share/E7/7-13C40000664000175000017500000000106112223317612011303 0ustar jtnjtn13C4 D Which statement is false regarding a GMDSS equipped ship? A. Ships must have the required equipment inspected at least once every 12 months. B. The regulations apply to all passenger ships regardless of size and cargo ships of 300 gross tons and upwards. C. Ships must carry at least two persons holding a GMDSS Radio Operator's license for Distress and Safety radio-communications purposes. D. A conditional or partial exemption may not be granted, in exceptional circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the ship is equipped. share/E7/7-30E60000664000175000017500000000046312223317613011314 0ustar jtnjtn30E6 D What information is not vital in a Distress follow on voice transmission after a DSC Alert? A. Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. B. Ship's Name, Call Sign and MMSI number. C. Physical description of the vessel and number of POB. D. Company emergency contact information. share/E7/7-6A10000664000175000017500000000127612223317611011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A1 D Which of the following statements concerning maintenance requirements is false? A. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A1 and A2 must provide any one of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based, or at-sea maintenance capability. B. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A3 and A4 must provide any two of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based, or at-sea maintenance capability. C. Equipment warranties do not satisfy GMDSS maintenance requirements. D. If shore-based maintenance is used, maintenance services do not have to be completed or performance verified unless the vessel will be sailing to a non-US port. share/E7/7-79I40000664000175000017500000000063512223317615011336 0ustar jtnjtn79I4 B Which of the following conditions does not typically impair Inmarsat-B communications ? A. An obstruction, such as a mast, blocking the signal between the satellite and the SES antenna when the vessel is steering a specific course. B. Normal precipitation from gales and storms. C. A satellite whose signal is on a low elevation, below the horizon. D. Travel beyond the effective radius of the satellite. share/E7/7-42F10000664000175000017500000000107412223317613011312 0ustar jtnjtn42F1 D Which is not a function of a satellite under COSPAS-SARSAT using satellite EPIRBs? A. Relayed satellite message includes the EPIRB ID number which provides a reference for retrieval of vessel information from the shore database. B. Doppler shift of EPIRB signal is measured and the EPIRB's position is calculated. C. Information received from EPIRBs is time-tagged and transmitted to any Local User Terminal in the satellite's view. D. After the EPIRB's position is calculated using the Doppler shift COSPAS-SARSAT satellites provide follow-on SAR communications. share/E7/7-38E60000664000175000017500000000045012223317613011320 0ustar jtnjtn38E6 D When operating in coastal waters (sea area A1), a GMDSS-equipped vessel must: A. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on 8514.5 kHz. B. Maintain a continuous aural watch on 2182.0 kHz. C. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on VHF channel 16. D. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on VHF channel 70. share/E7/7-73I10000664000175000017500000000057612223317615011331 0ustar jtnjtn73I1 A Which of the following are correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entries for sending communications to two fax machines on vessels in the AOR-W? First is an F77 terminal and second an Inmarsat-B terminal. A. 870768790319 and then 870334600340. B. 8704336837925 and then 870452998777. C. 584768790319 and then 584334600340. D. 1 870 768790319 and then 1 870 334600340. share/E7/7-93J30000664000175000017500000000054512223317616011333 0ustar jtnjtn93J3 C Which automatic TELEX command should be sent by a ship station during SITOR (NBDP) operations to properly address a weather report to the national weather authority? A. WX+ followed by the text of the report. B. OBS+ then MSG+ to indicate weather report. C. OBS+ and then send the weather report. D. GA+? then OBS+ and then send the weather report. share/E7/7-47F20000664000175000017500000000072012223317613011315 0ustar jtnjtn47F2 D Which of these would be vital to a GMDSS SAR situation in polar regions? A. GOES satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. B. GOES satellites to receive Distress Alerts and Inmarsat Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. C. Inmarsat satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. D. COSPAS/SARSAT satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. share/E7/7-86J60000664000175000017500000000134712223317615011340 0ustar jtnjtn86J6 D To make a call to another vessel requesting TELEX communications regarding important company business, the GMDSS operator should: A. Select Urgency priority, enter other vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. B. Select Routine priority, enter own vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. C. Select Routine priority, enter other vessel's SELCAL for TELEX specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. D. Select Routine priority, enter other vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. share/E7/7-77I30000664000175000017500000000060112223317615011324 0ustar jtnjtn77I3 C What additional equipment provides the maximum availability for receiving SafetyNET TM broadcasts when the associated Inmarsat-C SES is engaged in communications? A. An integrated EGC receiver with the existing Inmarsat-C equipment. B. HF SSB can be used to receive voice MSI broadcasts. C. A separate EGC receiver. D. Automatic switching between Inmarsat-C and EGC functions. share/E7/7-24D20000664000175000017500000000017412223317612011310 0ustar jtnjtn24D2 C Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-B terminal? A. 003662517. B. 436682011. C. 325468325. D. 1500241. share/E7/7-5A10000664000175000017500000000101612223317611011216 0ustar jtnjtn5A1 A Which statement is true regarding a vessel equipped with GMDSS equipment that will remain in Sea Area A1 at all times? A. The vessel must be provided with a radio installation capable of initiating the transmission of ship-to-shore Distress alerting from the position from which the ship is normally navigated. B. VHF DSC alerting may be the sole means of Distress alerting. C. HF or MF DSC may satisfy the equipment requirement. D. HF SSB with 2182 kHz automatic alarm generator may satisfy the equipment requirement. share/E7/7-34E60000664000175000017500000000110112223317613011306 0ustar jtnjtn34E6 D How are normal working conditions restored after radio silence has been imposed? A. All of these answers are correct. B. The Land Earth Station (LES) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". C. The Public Correspondence Station (PCS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". D. The Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SEELONCE FEENEE". share/E7/7-68I40000664000175000017500000000075112223317614011332 0ustar jtnjtn68I4 A Which Inmarsat Earth stations could a GMDSS Radio Operator select for routine Inmarsat-C traffic if the vessel is in the Sea of Japan and logged-in to the POR satellite? A. Beijing (PRC), Santa Paula (USA), Auckland (New Zealand) or Sentosa (Singapore). B. Auckland (New Zealand), EIK (Norway), Sentosa (Singapore) or Beijing (PRC). C. Yamaguchi (Japan), Southbury (USA), Pune (India) or Haifa (Israel). D. Southbury (USA), Thermopylae (Greece), Psary (Poland) or Tangua (Brazil). share/E7/7-28D10000664000175000017500000000017212223317613011312 0ustar jtnjtn28D1 B Which of the following is not a DSC watch frequency? A. 2187.5 kHz. B. 2182.0 kHz. C. 6312.0 kHz. D. 12577.0 kHz. share/E7/7-9B20000664000175000017500000000041412223317612011226 0ustar jtnjtn9B2 B What statement best describes demodulation? A. Detuning the receiver to remove interfering signals. B. Extracting intelligence from the radio carrier signal. C. Removing atmospheric noise from the signal. D. Separating the TELEX signals from the voice signals. share/E7/7-54H60000664000175000017500000000021712223317614011323 0ustar jtnjtn54H6 D Maritime Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system? A. AMVER. B. NAVTEX. C. Inmarsat-M SES. D. SafetyNETTM. share/E7/7-89J50000664000175000017500000000106312223317615011335 0ustar jtnjtn89J5 A What is the best method for a GMDSS Radio Operator to determine which SITOR (NBDP) station to contact for the purpose of sending a chargeable message or cable? A. Listen to each station's "free signals" and call the strongest station. B. Listen to each station's voice announcement and determine which channel(s) will be monitored. C. Listen to each station's MSI broadcast to determine which public correspondence station to contact. D. Listen to the U.S. Coast Guard's traffic list to determine which Coast Guard station will handle commercial traffic. share/E7/7-86J30000664000175000017500000000125112223317615011327 0ustar jtnjtn86J3 B A Distress Priority DSC call may be formatted and transmitted specifying and requesting: A. Nature of Distress, vessel position, follow-on frequency, only voice follow-on communications. B. Nature of Distress or alternate frequency but not both in a single call, vessel position or alternate frequency/emission but not both in a single call, voice or TELEX follow-up communications. C. Nature of Distress or alternate frequency but not both in a single call, vessel position or alternate frequency/emission but not both in a single call, only TELEX follow-up communications. D. Nature of Distress, vessel position, follow-on frequency, only TELEX follow-on communications. share/E7/7-52H40000664000175000017500000000056112223317614011321 0ustar jtnjtn52H4 A What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system? A. Programming the receiver to reject certain stations and message categories. B. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours. C. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. D. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours. share/E7/7-51H10000664000175000017500000000114112223317614011310 0ustar jtnjtn51H1 C How is mutual interference on 518 kHz among NAVTEX stations avoided? A. All stations transmit at the same time but stations are limited to daytime operation only to reduce the radius of propagation. B. Transmitter power is limited, station assignment codes are not shared by other NAVAREAS and stations alternate between daytime and nighttime operations. C. Transmissions scheduled on a time-sharing basis, power limited and station assignment codes are geographically separated. D. Station codes are not shared by other NAVAREAS, transmissions scheduled on a time-sharing basis and power is limited. share/E7/7-86J50000664000175000017500000000115412223317615011333 0ustar jtnjtn86J5 C To make a call to another vessel requesting voice communications regarding important company business, the GMDSS operator should: A. Select Routine priority, enter other vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, J2B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. B. Select Routine priority, enter own vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, J3E emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. C. None of these answers is correct. D. Select Urgency priority, enter other vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. share/E7/7-13C30000664000175000017500000000106012223317612011301 0ustar jtnjtn13C3 C Which statement is false regarding a GMDSS-equipped ship? A. A conditional or partial exemption may be granted, in exceptional circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the vessel is equipped. B. The regulations apply to all passenger ships regardless of size and cargo ships of 300 gross tons and upwards. C. Ships must have the required equipment inspected at least once every five years. D. Ships must carry at least two persons holding a GMDSS Radio Operator's license for Distress and Safety radio-communications purposes. share/E7/7-60I20000664000175000017500000000017312223317614011316 0ustar jtnjtn60I2 C Which satellite should be chosen when operating in the Eastern Gulf of Mexico? A. POR. B. IOR. C. AOR-W. D. AOR-E. share/E7/7-48F10000664000175000017500000000113112223317613011312 0ustar jtnjtn48F1 B What actions should the GMDSS radio operator take prior to any potential Distress situation? A. Create a table or chart of all the DSC coast stations that might be used during the vessel's itinerary. B. All of these answers are good operational practice and should be consistently done. C. Prepare a detailed Distress message file on both satellite & MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) equipment containing all information needed in a Distress so it will be available for last-minute editing. D. Ensure all LES choices are correct and then updated properly as the vessel transits different SAR jurisdictions. share/E7/7-81J10000664000175000017500000000060112223317615011316 0ustar jtnjtn81J1 A How are paired SITOR (NBDP) frequencies normally used? A. These are normally used for ARQ communications with coast radio stations. B. These are normally used for FEC communications with coast radio stations. C. These are normally used only for Distress communications to limit channel interference. D. These are normally used for DSC communications with coast radio stations. share/E7/7-55H20000664000175000017500000000031412223317614011316 0ustar jtnjtn55H2 D What kind(s) of broadcasts are not available through SafetyNET TM? A. MSI and messages to specific geographic areas. B. Storm warnings. C. Distress and Urgency bulletins. D. Vessel traffic lists. share/E7/7-79I50000664000175000017500000000063412223317615011336 0ustar jtnjtn79I5 B A vessel is experiencing problems tracking the satellite in an Inmarsat-C SES while at sea. The problem is least likely caused by? A. Extremely heavy rain/snow storms. B. Local RF interference by in-port cell phone or other radio systems. C. Shadowing caused by an obstacle, such as a mast, between the SES antenna and the satellite. D. The vessel is on the fringe of the coverage area of the satellite. share/E7/7-56H20000664000175000017500000000103612223317614011321 0ustar jtnjtn56H2 C How is a MSI (Maritime Safety Information) broadcast received by an Inmarsat-C SES that is engaged in communications? A. The broadcast message is missed and the Radio Operator must request a retransmission. B. The broadcast message is stored in the EGC memory and will automatically be printed at the conclusion of the ongoing traffic. C. There is no loss of information since broadcasts of "vital" messages will be repeated. D. The radio operator can request retransmission of messages missing from numeric serial number succession. share/E7/7-55H40000664000175000017500000000020512223317614011317 0ustar jtnjtn55H4 B What information is promulgated by the international SafetyNET TM? A. Traffic Lists. B. MSI. C. Priority Messages. D. MARAD. share/E7/7-92J10000664000175000017500000000114312223317615011322 0ustar jtnjtn92J1 B Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. In ARQ, each character is transmitted twice, about 250 milliseconds apart. B. In ARQ, the "information sending station" will transmit a block of three characters that the receiving station will subsequently acknowledge or request be retransmitted. C. In ARQ, the "information sending station" transmits a block of three characters twice, about 250 milliseconds apart. D. SITOR (NBDP) communications can be used to contact a NAVTEX transmitting station when requesting a repeat transmission of a missed NAVTEX message. share/E7/7-40F60000664000175000017500000000065612223317613011322 0ustar jtnjtn40F6 A What is not an advantage of an AIS SART signal when compared to a radar-based SART signal? A. The AIS SART can be detected much farther away than radar SART models. B. Not every AIS transmission needs to be received to achieve an accurate presentation of the location. C. The AIS SART position has GPS accuracy and transmits on AIS VHF frequencies. D. AIS SART units may be easier to find in poor radar target conditions. share/E7/7-24D30000664000175000017500000000016212223317612011306 0ustar jtnjtn24D3 D Which of the following would indicate an F77 terminal? A. 150036. B. 430364290. C. 1502460. D. 766832922. share/E7/7-79I10000664000175000017500000000037512223317615011334 0ustar jtnjtn79I1 C What immediate remedy can be used to correct shadowing of the satellite signal by a shipboard obstruction? A. Relocate the mast or other obstruction. B. Raise the transmit power level. C. Change the ship's course. D. Increase the receiver gain. share/E7/7-97J20000664000175000017500000000112712223317616011333 0ustar jtnjtn97J2 B A ship at anchor has been communicating with a shore station approximately 200 miles distant on a frequency in the 4 MHz band through mid-morning. Toward the late afternoon and evening, what effect should be noticed? A. Communications should be maintained with slight improvement in the signal received from the shore station. B. Communications should gradually improve and peak at night and early morning. C. Communications should slowly deteriorate but may be continued throughout the night. D. Communications should gradually deteriorate and become impossible on this frequency by night. share/E7/7-42F20000664000175000017500000000026712223317613011316 0ustar jtnjtn42F2 A Which of the following satellite systems is of particular & dedicated importance to search and rescue missions under GMDSS? A. COSPAS/SARSAT. B. Inmarsat. C. GPS. D. Iridium. share/E7/7-51H40000664000175000017500000000072712223317614011324 0ustar jtnjtn51H4 B Which of these cannot happen when a paper model NAVTEX receiver runs out of paper? A. The unit is unable to print messages and all subsequent MSI broadcasts may be missed until the paper is replaced. B. The system will automatically change from receiving MSI by NAVTEX to receiving it by SafetyNET TM so that no messages will be lost. C. It may give off either an audible and/or visual alarm. D. MSI messages may be missed because the unit cannot print them out. share/E7/7-28D20000664000175000017500000000031212223317613011307 0ustar jtnjtn28D2 C Which of the following channels and modes should be used when initiating a Distress alert transmission? A. Ch-6 DSC. B. Ch-6 Radiotelephony. C. Ch-70 DSC. D. Ch-13 Radiotelephony and Ch-16 DSC. share/E7/7-2A60000664000175000017500000000013712223317611011223 0ustar jtnjtn2A6 D Which of these can be used to receive MSI? A. SART. B. EPIRB. C. Inmarsat-B. D. NAVTEX. share/E7/7-45F40000664000175000017500000000046612223317613011324 0ustar jtnjtn45F4 D Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Operation on Ch-16. B. Antenna must be permanently-affixed. C. Simplex (single frequency) voice communications only. D. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 2.0 Watts. share/E7/7-99J60000664000175000017500000000076412223317616011347 0ustar jtnjtn99J6 C What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system? A. All of these symptoms would indicate a potential battery charger malfunction. B. After testing the station on battery power, a voltmeter reading of 30 volts for a brief period followed by a steady 26 volt reading. C. A constant 30 volt reading on the GMDSS console voltmeter. D. After testing the station on battery power, the ammeter reading indicates a high rate of charge that then declines. share/E7/7-92J40000664000175000017500000000035212223317615011326 0ustar jtnjtn92J4 A Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode? A. This is an interactive mode. B. Each character is repeated three times. C. Each character is transmitted twice. D. This mode is generally used to broadcast messages. share/E7/7-66I40000664000175000017500000000021412223317614011322 0ustar jtnjtn66I4 C Which mode of communication is possible through an Inmarsat-C SES? A. SITOR (NBDP). B. Radiotelephone. C. TELEX and e-mail. D. DSC. share/E7/7-26D40000664000175000017500000000034112223317612011310 0ustar jtnjtn26D4 C DSC transmissions are encoded: A. Using J3E mode for proper follow-on communications. B. Using F1B mode to ensure proper reception. C. Using a ten-bit error detecting code. D. Using J2B mode for correct transmission. share/E7/7-12B20000664000175000017500000000066112223317612011304 0ustar jtnjtn12B2 C Why is an antenna tuner required for MF-HF transmissions? A. The antenna tuner calculates the proper spectrum band for the operator to use. B. To ensure transmissions are restricted to legal marine frequencies. C. The length of the physically-fixed antenna must be electrically matched to the intended frequency of operation. D. The antenna tuner indicates whether the ionosphere is ready to reflect a transmission properly. share/E7/7-52H60000664000175000017500000000063112223317614011321 0ustar jtnjtn52H6 A Which messages are mandatory to be received and should not typically be rejected or disabled by the operator of a NAVTEX receiver? A. Navigational warnings, meteorological warnings, SAR information. B. Meteorological warnings, SAR information, Pilot Service Messages. C. Meteorological warnings, meteorological forecasts, navigational warnings. D. SAR information, navigational warnings, ice reports. share/E7/7-24D10000664000175000017500000000033712223317612011310 0ustar jtnjtn24D1 B Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-B terminal? A. A 9 digit number beginning with the MID. B. A 9 digit number always starting with 3. C. A 7 digit number. D. A 9 digit number always starting with 4. share/E7/7-55H50000664000175000017500000000103412223317614011321 0ustar jtnjtn55H5 B To receive all mandatory MSI using the SafetyNET TM system the vessel must: A. Notify the NAVAREA coordinator you are using SafetyNET TM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information). B. Log-in and ensure the position is accurate to receive MSI for the NAVAREA the vessel is currently within. C. Set the receiver to your destination Inmarsat Ocean Region. D. Notify the NAVAREA coordinator you are using SafetyNET TM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information) and set the receiver to your destination Ocean Region. share/E7/7-23D30000664000175000017500000000016612223317612011311 0ustar jtnjtn23D3 A A MMSI 030346239 indicates what? A. Group MMSI. B. Inmarsat-C I.D. number. C. Coast station. D. Ship station. share/E7/7-12B60000664000175000017500000000037312223317612011310 0ustar jtnjtn12B6 A What advantage does a vertical whip have over a long wire? A. It radiates equally well in all directions. B. It radiates directionally for better propagation. C. It radiates a strong signal vertically. D. It radiates more signal fore and aft. share/E7/7-51H20000664000175000017500000000022412223317614011312 0ustar jtnjtn51H2 D When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range? A. Local noontime. B. Afternoon. C. Sunset. D. Middle of the night. share/E7/7-84J10000664000175000017500000000060212223317615011322 0ustar jtnjtn84J1 B For RF communications, "modulation" is best defined as: A. Using a single carrier frequency with the proper power level. B. The combination of information or intelligence on to a radio carrier frequency. C. Setting up the transceiver with the correct bandwidth to ensure proper communications. D. The combination of the received frequency and oscillator frequency in the mixer. share/E7/7-42F40000664000175000017500000000063212223317613011314 0ustar jtnjtn42F4 C Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is false? A. EPIRBs, ELTs, and PLBs use the system primarily for Distress alerting. B. These satellites monitor 406 MHz for EPIRB signals. C. After initiating a call request and selecting the LES, these satellites may be used for commercial messages. D. These satellites use Doppler shift measurement to determine the location of the beacons. share/E7/7-56H30000664000175000017500000000035112223317614011321 0ustar jtnjtn56H3 D Which of the following provides a unique automated system capable of addressing messages to pre-determined groups of ships or all vessels in both fixed and variable geographic areas? A. NAVTEX. B. AFRTS. C. NAVAREAs. D. EGC. share/E7/7-36E20000664000175000017500000000052512223317613011315 0ustar jtnjtn36E2 C Which of the following situations would normally use the Voice designation "Securite"? A. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). B. Messages containing information concerning the Safety of a mobile unit or person. C. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. D. Messages concerning On-scene communications. share/E7/7-90J20000664000175000017500000000074512223317615011330 0ustar jtnjtn90J2 A During SITOR (NBDP) ARQ operations through a coast station, what should the GMDSS operator do during the "Automatic Exchange of Answerbacks"? A. Do nothing other than wait for a GA+? prompt and then issue the desired command. B. Send a "WRU" then a "Here is" when requested to do so by the coast station. C. Send the necessary message file and then wait for time and charges. D. Wait for the coast station to transmit a menu of possible commands and select the desired action. share/E7/7-28D60000664000175000017500000000017112223317613011316 0ustar jtnjtn28D6 A How many HF DSC Distress watch channels must be guarded by a compulsory vessel underway? A. 2. B. 3. C. 4. D. 6. share/E7/7-83J30000664000175000017500000000107212223317615011325 0ustar jtnjtn83J3 A Which statement regarding channel spacing and bandwidth is true? A. Both TELEX bandwidth and channel spacing values are less than voice bandwidth and channel spacing values. B. Voice bandwidth is greater than TELEX bandwidth and therefore voice channel spacing values are less than TELEX channel spacing values. C. TELEX bandwidth is greater than voice bandwidth and therefore TELEX channel spacing values are less than voice channel spacing values. D. Both TELEX bandwidth and channel spacing values are greater than voice bandwidth and channel spacing values. share/E7/7-33E40000664000175000017500000000053612223317613011316 0ustar jtnjtn33E4 D What action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on 8 MHz? A. Make an "ALL STATIONS" call on all 5 H.F. TELEX channels canceling the alert. B. Make a "MAYDAY" call on 8414.5 kHz canceling the alert. C. Make an "Urgency" call on 8614.0 kHz canceling the alert. D. Make an "ALL STATIONS" call on 8291.0 kHz canceling the alert. share/E7/7-100J50000664000175000017500000000065412223317616011403 0ustar jtnjtn100J5 D Your antenna tuner becomes totally inoperative. What would you do to obtain operation on 2 HF bands? A. Without an operating antenna tuner, transmission is impossible. B. It is impossible to obtain operation on 2 different HF bands, without an operating antenna tuner. C. Bypass the antenna tuner and shorten the whip to 15 ft. D. Bypass the antenna tuner. Use a straight whip or wire antenna approximately 30 ft long. share/E7/7-95J40000664000175000017500000000126712223317616011340 0ustar jtnjtn95J4 B Why must the GMDSS operator be able to set-up FEC & ARQ modes and differentiate between them? A. The proper mode of SFEC must be selected for reception of HF MSI and ARQ selected for initial follow-on TELEX communications in a Distress situation. B. The proper mode must be selected for follow-on TELEX communications in a Distress situation and for the reception of HF MSI. C. The ARQ TELEX mode must be selected for follow-on TELEX communications in a Distress situation and the BFEC TELEX mode selected for reception of HF MSI. D. The BFEC TELEX mode must be selected for follow-on TELEX communications in a Distress situation and the ARQ TELEX mode selected for reception of HF MSI. share/E7/7-27D60000664000175000017500000000052012223317613011313 0ustar jtnjtn27D6 C DSC relays of Distress alerts by vessels: A. Should be done for all Distress alerts received aboard the ship. B. Should be transmitted to all ships involved in Distress traffic. C. Should be avoided; unless an acknowledgement has not been heard. D. Are the best means to provide for a retransmission of Distress communications. share/E7/7-66I20000664000175000017500000000077512223317614011334 0ustar jtnjtn66I2 A Which of the following best describes a shipboard Inmarsat-C system? A. A small, lightweight terminal capable of providing satellite store-and-forward message communications. B. A satellite communications system that provides real-time connectivity. C. A small, lightweight terminal used to transmit messages over high frequency (HF) bands to communicate through a satellite. D. A satellite communications system that also provides continuous Digital Selective Calling coverage for all ocean regions. share/E7/7-56H10000664000175000017500000000025012223317614011315 0ustar jtnjtn56H1 B Over what system are Enhanced Group Calls transmitted? A. COSPAS satellite. B. Inmarsat satellite. C. HF SITOR (NBDP) shore stations. D. NAVTEX shore stations. share/E7/7-53H60000664000175000017500000000036712223317614011330 0ustar jtnjtn53H6 B NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. Immediately following traffic lists. B. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. C. On request of maritime mobile stations. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. share/E7/7-11B20000664000175000017500000000016512223317612011302 0ustar jtnjtn11B2 D What is the channel spacing for authorized F1B/J2B frequencies? A. 170 Hz. B. 300 Hz. C. 3.0 kHz. D. 500 Hz. share/E7/7-48F40000664000175000017500000000104712223317613011323 0ustar jtnjtn48F4 A Which statement is NOT true regarding an Inmarsat Distress Alert? A. USCG coast stations will receive the alert and immediately notify the correct RCC. B. The operator selection of LES will determine which associated RCC will receive the alert. C. If the operator selects an invalid or inoperative LES code the NCS for that service will intercept the call and reroute the alert. D. If the LES choice is not updated properly the Distress Alert might be routed to a non-optimum RCC, introducing delays and confusion into the Distress situation. share/E7/7-78I20000664000175000017500000000072512223317615011333 0ustar jtnjtn78I2 A A vessel, before transiting the Panama Canal, on a voyage from San Diego to Miami, loses the ability to communicate via Inmarsat. The most likely cause is: A. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Pacific satellite. B. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Southbury Shore Station. C. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Western Atlantic satellite. D. The satellite orbit is beyond the usable range of the SES. share/E7/7-48F60000664000175000017500000000110112223317613011314 0ustar jtnjtn48F6 A Which statement is true regarding Inmarsat "hot-key" Distress Alerts? A. The LES programmed by the watch officers into the Distress Alert Update menu determines which RCC will receive your initial Distress Alert. B. The vessel's position is checked against the SAR jurisdictions and the proper LES updated as the vessel changes NAVAREAS. C. The GPS position updates the Distress Alert Update menu to the correct LES choice to ensure proper communications with an RCC. D. The Distress Alert defaults are set correctly by the manufacturer and then automatically updated. share/E7/7-54H30000664000175000017500000000040312223317614011315 0ustar jtnjtn54H3 B What system can provide an automated service in coastal waters where it may not be feasible to establish the NAVTEX service or where shipping density is too low to warrant its implementation? A. AMVER. B. SafetyNETTM. C. VHF DSC. D. ARQ SITOR (NBDP). share/E7/7-42F50000664000175000017500000000074212223317613011317 0ustar jtnjtn42F5 C Which of the following statements concerning the EPIRB system is true? A. GOES weather satellites will provide alerting with complete worldwide coverage. B. COSPAS-SARSAT satellites always provides an alert and position report within 10 minutes of reception. C. The Inmarsat system will not provide alerts and position report for 406 MHz EPIRBs equipped with GPS receivers. D. The GPS satellite system will relay an alert and position report within 20 minutes of reception. share/E7/7-67I50000664000175000017500000000104512223317614011327 0ustar jtnjtn67I5 B Which statement concerning Inmarsat-B and Inmarsat-C terminals is correct? A. Both Inmarsat-B and Inmarsat-C units are subject to shadowing effects due to their omni-directional antennas. B. Both Inmarsat-B and Inmarsat-C units are subject to shadowing effects, but Inmarsat-B units have directional antennas. C. Both Inmarsat-B and Inmarsat-C units are subject to shadowing effects, but Inmarsat-C units have directional antennas. D. Both Inmarsat-B and Inmarsat-C units are subject to shadowing effects, due to their directional antennas. share/E7/7-35E20000664000175000017500000000061512223317613011314 0ustar jtnjtn35E2 D Which of the following situations would normally use the Urgency priority? A. A crewmember falling over the side. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember with potential loss of life. C. An important meteorological warning concerning hazardous weather. D. A cargo shift or weather situation considered to be of greater hazard than would justify a Safety priority designation. share/E7/7-50G50000664000175000017500000000064312223317614011320 0ustar jtnjtn50G5 C The USA-INT control on VHF units: A. Was made necessary by a desire for more duplex channels in the U.S. B. Correctly set, will result in duplex operations in U.S. Coastal waters on the "alpha" channels. C. Correctly set, will result in simplex operations in U.S. Coastal waters on the "alpha" channels. D. Was made necessary by a desire to convert simplex international channels to duplex channels in the U.S. share/E7/7-10B60000664000175000017500000000040112223317612011276 0ustar jtnjtn10B6 D Which of the following statements is true? A. An RF carrier is always required to carry the information. B. There is only a single tone used in J2B mode. C. There are a carrier and two sidebands in H3E mode. D. There are two tones used in J2B mode. share/E7/7-87J60000664000175000017500000000026712223317615011341 0ustar jtnjtn87J6 C What does the term "ARQ" mean in SITOR (NBDP) operations? A. Automation Repeat Request. B. Automaton Repeat Request. C. Automatic Repeat Request. D. Automatic Request Repeat. share/E7/7-1A50000664000175000017500000000063612223317611011225 0ustar jtnjtn1A5 A What is the responsibility of compulsory GMDSS vessels? A. Every vessel must be able to perform communications functions essential for its own safety and the safety of other vessels. B. Vessels must transmit a DSC distress relay upon receipt of a DSC distress alert. C. Only the vessels closest to a Distress incident must render assistance. D. Vessels must immediately acknowledge all DSC distress alerts. share/E7/7-30E50000664000175000017500000000077612223317613011322 0ustar jtnjtn30E5 C What information should be included in a Distress follow on voice transmission after a DSC Alert? A. Ship's Name and Call Sign, MMSI number, DSC frequency used and any other information that might facilitate rescue. B. Ship's position, Ship's IMN, the nature of distress and assistance requested. C. Ship's Name and Call Sign, MMSI number & position, the nature of distress and assistance requested. D. Ship's Name and Call sign, repeat IMN, provide any other information that might facilitate rescue. share/E7/7-20C10000664000175000017500000000105612223317612011302 0ustar jtnjtn20C1 B Which of the following statements meets requirements for 47 CFR 80 Subpart-W? A. GMDSS Radio Logs may not be retained aboard compulsory vessels in an electronic file (e.g., word processing) format. B. GMDSS Radio Logs must contain entries of all Distress and Urgency communications affecting your own ship. C. GMDSS Radio Logs must be retained aboard compulsory vessels for a period of at least 90 days in their original form. D. Entries in the GMDSS Radio Log are only required for communications within the vessel's intended Sea Area of operation. share/E7/7-46F50000664000175000017500000000031112223317613011313 0ustar jtnjtn46F5 C "On-scene" communications would best be represented by? A. Using Inmarsat-C "hot-key" function. B. Sending DSC alert on VHF Ch-70. C. SITOR (NBDP) on 2174.5 kHz. D. SITOR (NBDP) on 4125.0 kHz. share/E7/7-15C30000664000175000017500000000137212223317612011311 0ustar jtnjtn15C3 A Which statement is false regarding the maintenance of GMDSS equipment at sea? A. The GMDSS maintainer may not be the person designated to have primary responsibility for radio-communications during Distress incidents even if licensed as an operator. B. Ships must carry at least one person who qualifies as a GMDSS maintainer for the maintenance and repair of equipment if the at-sea maintenance option is selected. C. All at-sea maintenance and repairs must be performed by, or under the supervision of a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer license. D. The GMDSS maintainer may be the person responsible for ensuring that the watches are properly maintained and that the proper guard channels and the vessel's position are entered into the DSC equipment. share/E7/7-15C20000664000175000017500000000072412223317612011310 0ustar jtnjtn15C2 D When may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port? A. When the vessel is in an over-carriage condition. B. When the vessel has arranged for both duplication of equipment and shore-based maintenance. C. When the vessel is carrying only two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators and is capable of performing all required functions. D. When the vessel has replaced a required piece of GMDSS-related equipment but its performance has not been verified or logged. share/E7/7-8B40000664000175000017500000000023012223317612011223 0ustar jtnjtn8B4 A Which of the following systems is least susceptible to atmospheric disturbances? A. Inmarsat. B. NAVTEX. C. MF SITOR (NBDP). D. HF SITOR (NBDP). share/E7/7-49G30000664000175000017500000000034312223317613011322 0ustar jtnjtn49G3 C Which of the following factors does not normally affect the range of VHF transmissions? A. Salt water ingress into the antenna coaxial cable. B. Power level setting. C. Ionospheric refraction. D. Vessel antenna height. share/E7/7-21D10000664000175000017500000000017012223317612011300 0ustar jtnjtn21D1 A A typical call sign for a large container ship under U. S. flag would be: A. KBZY. B. WBX1469. C. NADN. D. KPH. share/E7/7-32E30000664000175000017500000000064212223317613011312 0ustar jtnjtn32E3 D Under what condition would you not relay a DSC Distress alert? A. If the mobile unit in Distress is incapable of further Distress alert communications. B. If no Coast Station/Mobile Unit acknowledgement of the alert is observed. C. No distress traffic has been heard and the DSC alert is unacknowledged via DSC. D. A coast station DSC acknowledgment of the original Distress alert was received by your vessel. share/E7/7-75I60000664000175000017500000000111512223317615011326 0ustar jtnjtn75I6 C If an Inmarsat Distress Alert Setup menu contains an incorrect or unavailable LES code what happens to the Distress Alert transmission? A. The NCS updates the LES codes in the Distress Alert Setup menu as the vessel moves from ocean region to ocean region to ensure this does not happen. B. The NCS will send a Distress Alert Setup incorrect LES code alarm so the alert can be corrected and re-transmitted. C. The NCS will step in and route the Distress Alert transmission to an RCC. D. If the LES code is incorrect then the Distress Alert transmission is not detected by any RCC. share/E7/7-68I60000664000175000017500000000062612223317614011335 0ustar jtnjtn68I6 A Which Inmarsat Earth Stations could a vessel utilize for Inmarsat-C traffic if operating off the Atlantic Coast of the United States and synched to the AOR-W satellite? A. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands), Eik (Norway). B. Santa Paula (USA), Aussaguel (France) or Eik (Norway). C. Southbury (USA), Santa Paula (USA) or Yamaguchi (Japan). D. Southbury, (USA), Nakhoda (Russia) or Beijing (PRC). share/E7/7-82J40000664000175000017500000000023212223317615011322 0ustar jtnjtn82J4 C ITU duplex channel 1604 would mean: A. Ch-16 in the 4 MHz band. B. Ch-1604 in the MF band. C. Ch-4 in the 16 MHz band. D. Ch-4 in the 6 MHz band. share/E7/7-81J20000664000175000017500000000055212223317615011324 0ustar jtnjtn81J2 B How are paired SSB frequencies normally used? A. These are normally used for FEC communications with coast radio stations. B. These are normally used for J3E communications with coast radio stations. C. These are normally used for ARQ communications with coast radio stations. D. These are normally used for DSC communications with coast radio stations. share/E7/7-52H30000664000175000017500000000105312223317614011315 0ustar jtnjtn52H3 D Which of the following statements is true? A. No NAVTEX receiver can be programmed to reject category A, B, D and L messages since they are mandatory to be received via NAVTEX. B. Upon entering a new NAVTEX station's broadcast range, the GMDSS Radio Operator enters the station's SELCAL number. C. The GMDSS Radio Operator can select the "None" option in the message category menu. D. A GMDSS Radio Operator may choose to program certain NAVTEX receivers to reject category A, B, D and L messages if they are being received by another MSI system. share/E7/7-18C30000664000175000017500000000022512223317612011310 0ustar jtnjtn18C3 B While underway, how frequently is the DSC controller required to be tested? A. Once a week. B. Once a day. C. Twice a week. D. Once a month. share/E7/7-18C50000664000175000017500000000057212223317612011317 0ustar jtnjtn18C5 C The best way to test the MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) system is: A. Make a radiotelephone call to a coast station. B. Initiate an ARQ call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. C. Initiate an ARQ call to a Coast Station and wait for the automatic exchange of answerbacks. D. Initiate an FEC call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. share/E7/7-80J50000664000175000017500000000054412223317615011327 0ustar jtnjtn80J5 D To set-up the MF/HF Transceiver for a TELEX call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR (NBDP) operations. B. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether ARQ or FEC is preferred. C. Select J3E mode for ARQ and H3E mode for FEC. D. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. share/E7/7-95J30000664000175000017500000000077412223317616011341 0ustar jtnjtn95J3 A If the vessel is experiencing atmospheric interference with NAVTEX broadcasts, especially in the tropics, the GMDSS operator should: A. Select one of the 8 HF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. B. Select one of the 6 HF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in ARQ TELEX mode. C. Select one of the 6 MF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. D. Select the MF MSI frequency dedicated to tropical MSI and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. share/E7/7-83J50000664000175000017500000000021612223317615011326 0ustar jtnjtn83J5 B Communications with an emission of F1B/J2B would typically have a channel spacing of: A. 0.3 kHz. B. 0.5 kHz. C. 2.8 kHz. D. 3.0 kHz. share/E7/7-16C10000664000175000017500000000034712223317612011311 0ustar jtnjtn16C1 B Which FCC license meets the requirement to serve as a GMDSS operator? A. General Radiotelephone Operator's License. B. GMDSS Radio Operator's License. C. Marine Radio Operator's Permit. D. GMDSS Radio Maintainer's License. share/E7/7-2A20000664000175000017500000000015212223317611011214 0ustar jtnjtn2A2 A What equipment utilizes satellite communications? A. Inmarsat-C. B. VHF-MF-HF. C. NAVTEX. D. SART. share/E7/7-40F10000664000175000017500000000066612223317613011316 0ustar jtnjtn40F1 B How does the searching vessel's radar interrogate a survival craft SART? A. Activate the IFF interrogation system. B. The SART responds automatically and transmits the 12-blip signal when it detects the search craft or other vessels' X-Band radar signal. C. Maintains watch on VHF-FM Ch-70 for the SART's unique identifier. D. The SART responds automatically when it detects the search craft or other vessel's 10-cm radar signal. share/E7/7-6A30000664000175000017500000000070312223317611011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A3 B Which of the following is a GMDSS requirement for all vessels over 300 gross tons operating within range of a MF-DSC equipped shore station? A. Ship's Master or radio officer must be on watch at all times. B. Only one of the three maintenance options is required. C. MF communications must be handled by the holder of a General Radiotelephone Operator's License. D. Only FCC required spare parts and a maintenance kit for repairs are required. share/E7/7-29E20000664000175000017500000000120112223317613011307 0ustar jtnjtn29E2 B Which of the following statements is true regarding Distress alerting under GMDSS? A. Ship to shore Distress alerts are used to alert other ships in port of navigational hazards. B. The Distress alert should identify the station in Distress and its position & time of position update. Also, the alert may include the nature of the Distress, the type of assistance required, or the course and speed of the mobile unit. C. Ship-to-ship Distress alerts are used to alert other ships in the vicinity of navigational hazards and bad weather. D. The vessel nearest to the emergency must notify the Coast Guard before leaving the vicinity. share/E7/7-5A30000664000175000017500000000026112223317611011221 0ustar jtnjtn5A3 C Vessels operating in which sea area(s) are required to carry either Inmarsat or HF equipment or a combination thereof under GMDSS? A. All sea areas. B. A4. C. A3. D. A1. share/E7/7-20C40000664000175000017500000000042112223317612011300 0ustar jtnjtn20C4 A How long must the radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee? A. At least 30 days after the last entry. B. At least one year after the last entry. C. At least two years after the last entry. D. At least 90 days after the last entry. share/E7/7-78I30000664000175000017500000000077212223317615011336 0ustar jtnjtn78I3 B What can be the visual observation of a condition whereby it may be possible to initiate a reliable Inmarsat TELEX transmission but a voice transmission may not be possible? A. An indication on a meter or on the display terminal of high transmit power. B. An indication on a meter or on the terminal of low receiver signal strength. C. An indication of a very high antenna elevation on the display terminal screen. D. An indication that the antenna has reached its maximum travel in one direction. share/E7/7-73I20000664000175000017500000000036512223317615011326 0ustar jtnjtn73I2 B Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine number 516-229-4339 in Long Beach, CA, U.S.? A. 015162294339#. B. 15162294339. C. 015162294339. D. 1 516-229-4339. share/E7/7-74I40000664000175000017500000000101012223317615011315 0ustar jtnjtn74I4 C Which of the following is not correct with regard to Inmarsat-C e-mail? A. It is possible to send e-mail messages from your ship's Inmarsat-C terminal to any e-mail address in the world. B. To receive e-mails from shore, your ship's e-mail address must be registered with an Inmarsat C Land Earth Station Service Provider. C. An additional hardware upgrade is required to enable your ship's Inmarsat-C terminal to send and receive e-mails. D. Not all land earth station service providers support e-mail service. share/E7/7-51H60000664000175000017500000000047512223317614011326 0ustar jtnjtn51H6 C What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations? A. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore. B. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime. C. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km). D. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km). share/E7/7-16C30000664000175000017500000000074312223317612011313 0ustar jtnjtn16C3 D Which FCC license meets the requirements to perform or supervise the performance of at-sea adjustments, servicing, or maintenance which may affect the proper operation of the GMDSS station? A. General Radiotelephone Operator's License with Shipboard RADAR endorsement. B. Marine Radio Operator's Permit or GMDSS Maintainer's license. C. GMDSS Radio Operator's license or Marine Radio Operator's Permit. D. GMDSS Operator's/Maintainer's license or GMDSS Maintainer's license. share/E7/7-93J60000664000175000017500000000035012223317616011330 0ustar jtnjtn93J6 B To correctly address a SITOR (NBDP) message and transmit it "live" to a shore-based office the GMDSS operator would dial which sequence: A. DIRTLX0051440344+. B. DIRTLX051440344+. C. DIRTLX581440344+. D. DIRTLX05811500260+. share/E7/7-71I40000664000175000017500000000032312223317614011317 0ustar jtnjtn71I4 B Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to a vessel in the IOR? A. 853446323868. B. 583446976519. C. 582446323868. D. 870446976519. share/E7/7-96J50000664000175000017500000000110012223317616011324 0ustar jtnjtn96J5 D Which statement concerning frequency band selection and propagation most corresponds with standard practice. A. Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) and Optimum Usable Frequency (OUF) should be calculated prior to setting up the transceiver. B. Propagation rules, Sunspot cycle status and seasonal variations (winter & summer) must always be employed to calculate the proper band selection. C. Propagation "rules of thumb" should be combined with Solar flare alerts to determine band selection. D. Propagation "rules of thumb" are usually sufficient for routine operations. share/E7/7-35E30000664000175000017500000000053012223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn35E3 A Which of the following situations would not properly use the Urgency priority? A. Abandoning the vessel just before sinking. B. Treatment of a crewmember breaking a leg in a cargo hold. C. Leaking oil from a minor tank fracture requiring a mandatory pollution report. D. An unexpected deviation in the forecast track line of a typhoon. share/E7/7-66I10000664000175000017500000000057012223317614011324 0ustar jtnjtn66I1 D Which of the following best describes Inmarsat-C operation? A. Is an analog-based system. B. Requires a stabilized directional antenna. C. Provides for voice, TELEX, high and low-speed data and compressed video communications. D. Is a digital store-and-forward system that also provides Enhanced Group Call, data reporting, polling and Distress alerting capabilities. share/E7/7-75I20000664000175000017500000000071312223317615011325 0ustar jtnjtn75I2 D In what way(s) may a Distress message be initiated through Inmarsat? A. By transmitting the Distress message on the U.S. Coast Guard's dedicated monitoring channel. B. By adding the word "Distress" in the first line of the message's preamble. C. All Inmarsat units must use a dedicated key that can be pressed for immediate action. D. By pressing dedicated key(s) for this purpose or using menu-driven features to produce a Distress priority message. share/E7/7-50G20000664000175000017500000000033212223317614011310 0ustar jtnjtn50G2 A Which channel is utilized for the required Bridge-to-Bridge watch? A. VHF-FM on Ch-13 in most areas of the continental United States. B. DSC on Ch-70. C. VHF-FM on Ch-16. D. The vessel's VHF working frequency. share/E7/7-40F30000664000175000017500000000074312223317613011314 0ustar jtnjtn40F3 D How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity? A. The DSC unit will react to the SART's signal and respond with the two-tone auto alarm. B. The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical mile radius, per IMO standards. C. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on a SART. D. The SART's dots on the PPI will become arcs and then eventually become concentric circles. share/E7/7-94J10000664000175000017500000000076412223317616011335 0ustar jtnjtn94J1 D Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. Communication is established on the working channel and answerbacks are exchanged before FEC broadcasts can be received. B. All of these answers are true. C. Weather broadcasts cannot be made in FEC because sending each character twice would cause the broadcast to be prohibitively long. D. Two-way communication with the coast radio station using FEC is not necessary to be able to receive the broadcasts. share/E7/7-77I10000664000175000017500000000113412223317615011324 0ustar jtnjtn77I1 A Upon receipt of SafetyNETTM messages of the Distress or Urgency category on the ship's EGC receiver, what action is required by the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Manually reset the alarm. B. No immediate action is required as an audible tone will be generated at the beginning and end of the transmission and a paper printout of the message will be generated. C. No immediate action is required by the operator since the transmission will be automatically acknowledged by the receiving vessel. D. A periodic alarm tone will be heard until the radio operator prints the message from the unit's memory. share/E7/7-69I30000664000175000017500000000063312223317614011331 0ustar jtnjtn69I3 C To request medical assistance from Inmarsat via voice (using an Inmarsat-B SES) what would be the correct procedure? A. Enter 36# and then the phone number for the Inmarsat medical advisory system. B. Enter 32# and then the phone number for the Inmarsat medical advisory system. C. Enter 32# to request the Inmarsat medical advisory system. D. Enter 32+ to request the Inmarsat medical advisory system. share/E7/7-52H50000664000175000017500000000124312223317614011320 0ustar jtnjtn52H5 D What statement is true regarding the control the operator can exercise over the NAVTEX receiver's operation? A. The operator can set the unit to automatically reject any and all categories of messages if the ship desires to not receive them. B. Upon entering a coastal area for the first time, the operator enters code KK to indicate "ready to receive NAVTEX". C. To reduce the number of messages, the operator can select code 00 to indicate "not in coastal passage". D. The operator can set most units to reject all messages except navigation, meteorological warnings, and search and rescue messages. If the unit will reject such messages it may be unsafe to do so. share/E7/7-50G40000664000175000017500000000077412223317614011324 0ustar jtnjtn50G4 C The USA-INT control on VHF units: A. Selects duplex operations for U.S. coastal waters and simplex operations in non-U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. B. Ensures that the "alpha" channels are correctly set to duplex for use in U.S. waters & on VTS channels. C. Changes selected international duplex channels to simplex channels for use in U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. D. Changes selected international simplex channels to duplex channels for use in U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. share/E7/7-44F40000664000175000017500000000040712223317613011316 0ustar jtnjtn44F4 A What part of a satellite EPIRB may function as a visual aid to rescue vessels? A. Strobe light. B. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB. C. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB. D. Loud beeping tone emitted by the unit, once activated. share/E7/7-4A10000664000175000017500000000106612223317611011222 0ustar jtnjtn4A1 B Which of the following is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels? A. A compulsory vessel must carry at least two (2) FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operators in all sea areas as well as a GMDSS Maintainer in sea areas A3 & A4. B. A compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements based on the intended sea area of operation. C. A compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress alerts and carry only one (1) FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operator in sea areas A1 & A2. D. None of these answers are correct. share/E7/7-8B30000664000175000017500000000024312223317612011226 0ustar jtnjtn8B3 D Which of the following systems is least susceptible to fading or static interference? A. HF SITOR (NBDP). B. MF-HF DSC Controller. C. VHF ARQ. D. Inmarsat. share/E7/7-92J30000664000175000017500000000041612223317615011326 0ustar jtnjtn92J3 D Of the following, which is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode? A. The acceptance code consists of three characters. B. A continuous data stream is transmitted. C. Forward error correction reduces the number of errors. D. Each data block consists of three characters. share/E7/7-46F40000664000175000017500000000034512223317613011321 0ustar jtnjtn46F4 C Which of the following frequencies have NOT been designated for GMDSS "On-scene" or SAR communications? A. VHF Ch-16. B. MF radiotelephony on 2182.0 kHz. C. SITOR (NBDP) on 2182.0 kHz. D. HF radiotelephony on 4125.0 kHz. share/E7/7-100J20000664000175000017500000000075012223317616011375 0ustar jtnjtn100J2 C Which would indicate a malfunction in a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system? A. No discernable traffic has been heard on the 2182 kHz during the radiotelephone silent periods. B. Dramatic increase in noise level observed during night and early morning hours. C. Failure to contact another station 60 miles distant during daytime operation. D. The visual indication of power to the antenna fluctuates while testing the radiotelephone alarm signal generator into an artificial antenna. share/E7/7-17C10000664000175000017500000000152112223317612011305 0ustar jtnjtn17C1 A Which statement is false regarding the GMDSS requirement for ship sources of energy? A. The reserve sources of energy need to supply independent MF and HF radio installations at the same time. B. At all times while the vessel is at sea, a sufficient supply of electrical energy to operate the radio installations and charge any batteries which may be part of the reserve source of energy is required. C. An uninterruptible power supply or other means of ensuring a continuous supply of electrical power to all GMDSS equipment that could be affected by normal variations and interruptions of ship's power is required. D. If a vessel's position is constantly required for the proper performance of a GMDSS station, provisions must be made to ensure position information is uninterrupted if the ship's source of main or emergency energy fails. share/E7/7-73I30000664000175000017500000000036612223317615011330 0ustar jtnjtn73I3 C Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine on a vessel's Inmarsat-B terminal in the AOR-E? A. 581366269025. B. 870466269025. C. 870323972514. D. 581761138138. share/E7/7-20C50000664000175000017500000000055112223317612011305 0ustar jtnjtn20C5 D Which statement concerning radio log archival by the station licensee is false? A. Retain for two years if there are no Distress entries. B. Logs related to an investigation may not be destroyed without specific authorization. C. Retain for three years if there are Distress entries. D. Retain for one year unless there are Distress or Urgency entries. share/E7/7-77I60000664000175000017500000000102512223317615011330 0ustar jtnjtn77I6 B Which of the following statements concerning EGC configuration is false? A. NAVAREA selection should be monitored and appropriately updated. B. The originator of MSI information cannot specify receipt only by vessels within a specific geographical area, circular or rectangular. C. The originator of MSI information can specify receipt only by vessels within a specific geographical area, circular or rectangular. D. GMDSS operators generally can select additional NAVAREAS to acquire EGC messages of interest to the vessel. share/E7/7-34E30000664000175000017500000000105012223317613011306 0ustar jtnjtn34E3 B What is meant by the term "Seelonce Mayday"? A. Stations remaining off the air to safeguard proprietary information. B. Stations not directly involved with the on-going Distress communications may not transmit on the Distress frequency or channel. C. Two three-minute silent periods, at 15 and 45 minutes after the hour that provide a transmitting "window" for distressed vessels to transmit Distress alerts using J3E. D. Communications on a Distress frequency or channel is banned for 24 hours following the cessation of the Distress traffic. share/E7/7-24D60000664000175000017500000000035512223317612011315 0ustar jtnjtn24D6 A Which of the following would indicate an F77 terminal? A. A 9 digit number always starting with 76. B. A 12 digit number starting with the MID. C. A 9 digit number ending with the MID. D. A 9 digit number always starting with 4. share/E7/7-78I60000664000175000017500000000047212223317615011336 0ustar jtnjtn78I6 D Which functions may the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator License NOT perform on the Inmarsat-C equipment? A. Maintain the antenna clear of soot, paint, etc. B. Log-on, traffic and log-off functions. C. Entry of position data and selection of LES. D. Optimize performance by adjusting the transmitter EIRP. share/E7/7-10B20000664000175000017500000000040012223317612011271 0ustar jtnjtn10B2 A On what frequencies would the J3E emission be used for GMDSS Distress communications? A. 2182.0 kHz, 16420.0 kHz or 8291.0 kHz. B. 2182.0, 2187.5 KHz or 8414.5 kHz. C. 8414.5 KHz, 8291.0 kHz or 8376.5 kHz. D. 4125.0 kHz, 16420.0 kHz or 4177.5 kHz. share/E7/7-36E40000664000175000017500000000051012223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn36E4 A Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. Important navigational or meteorological warnings. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. C. An unanticipated warning related to piracy or terrorism. D. Grounding in a way that could lead to imminent danger to the ship's crew. share/E7/7-85J20000664000175000017500000000124612223317615011331 0ustar jtnjtn85J2 B How are high seas (HF) radiotelephone communications initially established between a vessel and a public correspondence station? A. The vessel listens for "free signals" and calls the public correspondence station on the SITOR (NBDP) calling channel with the strongest marker signal. B. The vessel calls and establishes voice contact with the public correspondence station on a channel that the station is known to monitor, and the two stations then proceed with their business. C. The vessel calls the public correspondence station on VHF Channel 16, and the two stations then switch to the working channel. D. Public Correspondence Stations operate SITOR (NBDP) only. share/E7/7-60I30000664000175000017500000000017712223317614011323 0ustar jtnjtn60I3 D Which longitude corresponds to the AOR-W satellite for Inmarsat-B/C communications? A. 64E. B. 178E. C. 15.5W. D. 54W. share/E7/7-8B50000664000175000017500000000044312223317612011232 0ustar jtnjtn8B5 D Which of the following frequency bands would most likely provide reliable communications between two stations that are 100 miles (160 km) apart? A. The Low Frequency (LF) band. B. The High Frequency (HF) band. C. The Very High Frequency (VHF) band. D. The Medium Frequency (MF) band. share/E7/7-39F30000664000175000017500000000062612223317613011324 0ustar jtnjtn39F3 A How can a SART's detection and effective range be maximized? A. The SART should be held or mounted as high as possible and in a vertical position. B. The SART should be placed in water immediately so it will begin transmitting. C. Switch the SART into the "high" power position. D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching radar signal. share/E7/7-28D30000664000175000017500000000015712223317613011317 0ustar jtnjtn28D3 D How many total frequencies are available for DSC Distress alerting? A. One. B. Two. C. Five. D. Seven. share/E7/7-89J10000664000175000017500000000042012223317615011325 0ustar jtnjtn89J1 A Which of the following would be a valid SELCAL for use in ARQ communications? A. 1106. B. 212420 WHAQ X. C. Four marks (ones) and three spaces (zeroes) forming the binary signal "1001101". D. This is established by the communications protocol used with the modem. share/E7/7-93J50000664000175000017500000000053712223317616011336 0ustar jtnjtn93J5 A When requesting a direct TELEX connection to a vessel's Inmarsat-B terminal, (i.e. making a SITOR (NBDP) call to an Inmarsat-B unit) the GMDSS operator must: A. DIRTLX, 0, Ocean Area Code, TELEX number, +. B. DIRTLX, 00, Ocean Area Code, TELEX number, +. C. DIRTLX, 0, Country code, TELEX number, +. D. DIRTLX, 00, Country code, TELEX number. share/E7/7-52H10000664000175000017500000000062212223317614011314 0ustar jtnjtn52H1 B How is a NAVTEX receiver programmed to reject certain messages? A. The transmitting station's two-digit identification can be entered to de-select reception of its broadcasts. B. By choosing a message category's single letter (A-Z) identifier and then deselecting or deactivating. C. By entering the SELCAL of the NAVTEX transmitting station. D. By pressing "00" in the transmitter's ID block. share/E7/7-2A30000664000175000017500000000016312223317611011217 0ustar jtnjtn2A3 B What equipment is used in or near the survival craft? A. NAVTEX. B. EPIRB. C. Fathometer. D. COSPAS-SARSAT. share/E7/7-56H40000664000175000017500000000034612223317614011326 0ustar jtnjtn56H4 A What system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship Distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area? A. EGC. B. NAVTEX. C. AMVER. D. DSC. share/E7/7-96J40000664000175000017500000000066212223317616011337 0ustar jtnjtn96J4 A GMDSS operators should routinely focus on the factors affecting propagation in what priority? A. Distance & time of day, seasonal variations, sunspot cycle, solar flare alerts. B. Sunspot cycle, distance & time of day, seasonal variations, solar flare alerts. C. Solar flare alerts, distance & time of day, sunspot cycle, seasonal variations. D. Solar flare alerts, sunspot cycle, seasonal variations, distance & time of day. share/E7/7-32E20000664000175000017500000000063312223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn32E2 C Your ship received a Distress relay from a coast station on DSC VHF channel 70. What action should the watch officer take? A. Retransmit the DSC call on Ch-70 to other vessels in the vicinity. B. Monitor Ch-06 to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. C. Monitor Ch-16 to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. D. Transmit a voice "Mayday Relay" call on Ch-13. share/E7/7-24D40000664000175000017500000000016512223317612011312 0ustar jtnjtn24D4 A Which of the following would indicate an F77 terminal? A. 765044177. B. 003668202. C. 436682433. D. 1500270. share/E7/7-23D10000664000175000017500000000034612223317612011307 0ustar jtnjtn23D1 C A DSC call is received from a station with a MMSI number of 003669991. What type of station made the call? A. A vessel operating in Sea Area A3. B. A group ship station. C. A U.S. coast station. D. An Intercoastal vessel. share/E7/7-80J40000664000175000017500000000067012223317615011326 0ustar jtnjtn80J4 A Which statement regarding GMDSS MF/HF Transceiver frequency set-up is true: A. Some consoles allow both manual keypad entry and ITU channel recall from a database or memory. B. Transmit and receive frequencies must always be manually entered from the keypad. C. Transmit and receive frequencies must always be recalled from a database or memory. D. Frequencies in the manufacturer's databases are always accurate and legal for use. share/E7/7-12B40000664000175000017500000000036512223317612011307 0ustar jtnjtn12B4 A What is the most common type of antenna for GMDSS MF-HF? A. Vertically polarized whip antenna. B. Horizontally polarized long wire antenna. C. Horizontally polarized vertical whip antenna. D. Satellite radome with vertical polarization. share/E7/7-41F40000664000175000017500000000113412223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn41F4 D Why should functional testing of a SART be minimized? A. Potential interference with safe navigation, notifying other vessels of an actual Distress and minimize power consumption. B. Minimize power consumption of the battery and only test at sea to reduce potential interference or confusion. C. Possibility of misinterpretation by other vessels as a Distress situation and only test in port to prevent potential interference with safe navigation or at-sea vessels. D. Potential interference with safe navigation, possible misinterpretation of an actual Distress, minimizes draining the battery. share/E7/7-88J50000664000175000017500000000070312223317615011334 0ustar jtnjtn88J5 D The purpose of "parity" in SITOR (NBDP) communications is? A. Error correction in HF BFEC MSI broadcasts, SFEC NAVTEX broadcasts and two way ARQ exchanges. B. Error correction in SFEC NAVTEX broadcasts, HF SFEC MSI broadcasts and two-way ARQ exchanges. C. Error correction in BFEC NAVTEX broadcasts, HF BFEC MSI broadcasts and one-way ARQ broadcasts. D. Error correction in HF BFEC MSI broadcasts, NAVTEX broadcasts and two-way ARQ exchanges. share/E7/7-38E20000664000175000017500000000071112223317613011314 0ustar jtnjtn38E2 A Which action is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS radio Operator to take in a Distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned? A. Transmit Distress calls by HF/MF/VHF DSC or Inmarsat. B. Switch off EPIRB and SART manually. C. Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on channel 13. D. Transmit Distress calls by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal. share/E7/7-76I40000664000175000017500000000117212223317615011330 0ustar jtnjtn76I4 A What is your vessel's obligation upon receipt of a Distress priority EGC message requesting that vessels report in response to a SAR situation? A. Silence the alarm, notify the master and send a message to the RCC with your vessel's position and capabilities. B. Read the Distress EGC message and if the situation is too far away no response is required. C. Read the Distress EGC message and await instructions from the RCC as how to proceed to the distress. D. Silence the alarm, notify the Master and await instructions from the RCC as to whether your vessel is requisitioned or released from participation in SAR activity. share/E7/7-49G60000664000175000017500000000111612223317613011324 0ustar jtnjtn49G6 B The effectiveness of VHF communications is maximized by: A. The adjustment of squelch for maximum receiver sensitivity, setting transmitter power to 1W & selecting an appropriate channel. B. Appropriate setting of the transmitter power, selecting an appropriate channel & adjustment of squelch for maximum receiver sensitivity. C. Selecting an appropriate channel, adjustment of squelch for minimum receiver sensitivity & setting transmitter power to 1W. D. Selecting an appropriate channel, adjustment of squelch for minimum receiver sensitivity, setting transmitter power to 25W. share/E7/7-41F60000664000175000017500000000027512223317613011320 0ustar jtnjtn41F6 B The SART is required to have sufficient battery capacity to operate in the stand-by mode for what period of time? A. Three days. B. Four days. C. Eight hours. D. Forty-eight hours. share/E7/7-62I20000664000175000017500000000104712223317614011321 0ustar jtnjtn62I2 A What is the primary function of a LES? A. To provide direct communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. B. To monitor and control communications through the Inmarsat satellite for which it is responsible. C. To provide multi-mode communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the coast radio station that will deliver it. D. To determine which satellite is best suited to provide communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. share/E7/7-84J20000664000175000017500000000062612223317615011331 0ustar jtnjtn84J2 C For RF communications, "bandwidth" is best defined as: A. The modulation technique required to insure proper ITU channel spacing. B. The emission designation resulting from the desired modulation technique. C. The portion of the radio spectrum consumed by a particular emission selection and modulation technique. D. The portion of the radio spectrum reserved for frequency allocations by the ITU. share/E7/7-31E30000664000175000017500000000115612223317613011312 0ustar jtnjtn31E3 A What is the proper procedure to be followed upon receipt of a Distress alert transmitted by use of Digital Selective Calling techniques? A. Set watch on the radiotelephone Distress and Safety frequency associated with the Distress and Safety calling frequency on which the Distress alert was received. B. Set watch on the DSC alerting frequency in the band of frequencies the alert was received. C. Set a continuous watch on VHF-FM Channel 13, 16 and DSC on Channel 70. D. Ship stations equipped with narrow-band direct-printing equipment should respond to the Distress alert as soon as practicable by this means. share/E7/7-76I50000664000175000017500000000105612223317615011332 0ustar jtnjtn76I5 D What statement is true regarding LES codes and Inmarsat "hot-key" alert default menus? A. Automatic or manual updating of the LES code only needs to be done when switching to a different ocean region satellite. B. The SAR jurisdiction software automatically updates the "hot-key" menu based on the vessel's position. C. The LES code is determined by the NAVAREA based on the vessel's current position. D. The LES code must be updated by the officers depending upon the SAR jurisdictions the vessel transits and current ocean region satellite in use. share/E7/7-31E50000664000175000017500000000076012223317613011314 0ustar jtnjtn31E5 B What action should be taken on receipt of a DSC Distress alert? A. Read the display screen and/or printout, silence the alarm, always call the Master to confirm the alert is real. B. Silence the alarm, read the display screen and/or printout and listen for any follow on transmissions. C. Listen for any follow on voice/TELEX transmission on the appropriate DSC frequency. D. Silence the alarm, read the display screen and/or printout, only call the Master if the alert is within 500 NM. share/E7/7-47F30000664000175000017500000000065412223317613011324 0ustar jtnjtn47F3 A Which statement is not true regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. The position of the EPRIB is always transmitted in the outgoing transmission (unless the unit is a GPIRB). B. Signals received by low altitude, near-polar orbiting satellites are relayed to a ground receiving station (LUT). C. Doppler shift is used to locate the position of the EPIRB. D. EPIRBs are satellite beacons used as alerting & homing devices. share/E7/7-33E30000664000175000017500000000051412223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn33E3 C What action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on MF? A. Send another DSC alert on 2187.5 kHz. and follow on with voice on 2187.5 kHz. B. No action is necessary. C. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2182.0 kHz. D. Send a DSC alert on all 7 DSC frequencies and follow on voice on 2174.5 kHz. share/E7/7-1A40000664000175000017500000000065112223317611011221 0ustar jtnjtn1A4 D GMDSS is primarily a system based on: A. Ship-to-ship Distress communications using MF or HF radiotelephony. B. VHF digital selective calling from ship to shore. C. Distress, Urgency and Safety communications carried out by the use of narrow-band direct printing telegraphy. D. The linking of search and rescue authorities ashore with shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress or in need of assistance. share/E7/7-58H10000664000175000017500000000022712223317614011323 0ustar jtnjtn58H1 D Which NAVAREA is associated with the western North Atlantic and the Caribbean Sea? A. NAVAREA X. B. NAVAREA XI. C. NAVAREA XII. D. NAVAREA IV. share/E7/7-70I10000664000175000017500000000020012223317614011305 0ustar jtnjtn70I1 D Which key is used to indicate the end of a selection in a TELEX call via an Inmarsat-B SES? A. *. B. ENTER. C. #. D. +. share/E7/7-19C20000664000175000017500000000022512223317612011310 0ustar jtnjtn19C2 D A vessel certified for service in Sea Area A-2 is required to maintain watch on: A. 2174.5 kHz. B. 2182.0 kHz. C. 2738.0 kHz. D. 2187.5 kHz. share/E7/7-68I10000664000175000017500000000061712223317614011330 0ustar jtnjtn68I1 B Which Inmarsat Earth stations would be available for Inmarsat-C traffic if the vessel is off the Pacific Coast of the United States but logged-in to the AOR-W satellite? A. EIK (Norway), Tangua (Brazil), Thermopylae (Greece). B. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands), or EIK (Norway). C. Santa Paula (USA), Psary (Poland), Yamaguchi (Japan). D. Beijing (PRC), Fucino (Italy), Nudol (Russia). share/E7/7-74I10000664000175000017500000000113212223317615011317 0ustar jtnjtn74I1 D How may an Inmarsat-C unit be used to send text communications to an Internet destination? A. Call up the file menu, insert the internet address in the first line of the file and use the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu to send the message. B. Use the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu, compose a text file and use the file attach function in the file menu. C. Internet addresses cannot be reached from an Inmarsat-C terminal without a separate e-mail computer. D. Compose a text file, use the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu & specify the recipient using the address book function (or by manual entry) for e-mail. share/E7/7-76I20000664000175000017500000000106612223317615011330 0ustar jtnjtn76I2 C What information should be sent in a detailed satellite Distress message that was not included in the initial "hot-key" Distress Alert? A. Name/Call sign of vessel, vessel position, vessel description, all vessel I.D. numbers, LES code for Distress traffic. B. POB, vessel description, all vessel I.D. numbers, shore contact numbers, vessel position. C. Name/Call sign of vessel, POB, vessel description, all vessel I.D. numbers and shore contact numbers. D. Name/Call sign of vessel, nature of Distress, POB, vessel description and all vessel I.D. numbers. share/E7/7-89J60000664000175000017500000000130312223317615011333 0ustar jtnjtn89J6 B Which statement is correct regarding HF SITOR (NBDP) under GMDSS? A. Distress communications other than directly to the Coast Guard or other coast stations on the channels that they normally guard, should be in the broadcast SSB mode. B. Safety communications by direct-printing telegraphy should be in the ARQ mode when communicating with the U.S. Coast Guard or other coast stations on channels that they normally guard. C. The ARQ mode may not be used subsequently to the FEC mode even when it is advantageous to do so. D. Distress communications other than directly to the Coast Guard or other coast stations on the channels that they normally guard, should be in the broadcast FEC or SSB mode. share/E7/7-87J10000664000175000017500000000112712223317615011330 0ustar jtnjtn87J1 C What is meant by describing a Coast Station with the acronym ATOR? A. The station's BFEC operations are computerized and a rigid operating sequence must be followed correctly. B. The station will control all of the ARQ operations and it will generate the proper service request codes at the correct time in the sequence. C. The station's ARQ operations are computerized and a rigid operating sequence must be followed correctly. D. The station will control all of the ARQ operations and it will provide prompts for the operator to request time & charges at the correct time in the sequence. share/E7/7-97J60000664000175000017500000000062512223317616011341 0ustar jtnjtn97J6 B How can a GMDSS operator determine the best frequency band to choose for a SITOR (NBDP) transmission to a shore station? A. By consulting propagation tables. B. Listen to shore station "free signals" and choose the band with the strongest signal. C. If static interference is present, try lower bands first. D. During nighttime, choose higher frequencies. Choose lower frequencies in the daytime. share/E7/7-46F60000664000175000017500000000040012223317613011313 0ustar jtnjtn46F6 D For "On-scene" communications, vessels in Distress and SAR Aircraft should use? A. VHF Ch-70, 4125 kHz J3E, 5680 kHz J3E. B. VHF Ch-70, 4125 kHz J2B, 5680 kHz J3E. C. VHF Ch-16, 4125 kHz F1B, 3023 kHz J3E. D. VHF Ch-16, 4125 kHz J3E, 3023 kHz J3E. share/E7/7-33E10000664000175000017500000000046012223317613011307 0ustar jtnjtn33E1 A What action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on VHF? A. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16. B. Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70. C. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13. D. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A. share/E7/7-92J20000664000175000017500000000143612223317615011330 0ustar jtnjtn92J2 C What statement is true regarding the exchange between two parties engaged in SITOR (NBDP) communications? A. In ARQ, each character is transmitted twice, with the second displaced in time from the first. B. In ARQ, the "sending" station transmits a block of three characters and the "receiving" station responds with a one character Repeat Request. Following this the "transmitting" station will send a new block. C. In ARQ, the ISS transmits a block of 3 characters and the IRS checks for parity. If the received block is correct a one-character control signal is sent notifying the ISS to proceed with the next block. If the parity check fails the block must be resent. D. Broadcasts of Maritime Safety Information, traffic lists, etc. can be copied by the receiving station in ARQ mode. share/E7/7-41F50000664000175000017500000000050212223317613011310 0ustar jtnjtn41F5 A Which is NOT a valid maintenance and testing function for a SART? A. Operational test with several vessels to determine effective transmitting range. B. Inspection of container for apparent damage. C. Inspect battery expiration date and the lanyard condition. D. Brief operational test utilizing own ship's radar. share/E7/7-60I40000664000175000017500000000017712223317614011324 0ustar jtnjtn60I4 A Which longitude corresponds to the AOR-E satellite for Inmarsat-B/C communications? A. 15.5W. B. 64E. C. 178E. D. 54W. share/E7/7-57H50000664000175000017500000000035612223317614011331 0ustar jtnjtn57H5 A Which frequency/mode is authorized for use internationally for Maritime Safety Information transmissions? A. 4209.5 kHz using FEC mode. B. 4209.5 kHz using ARQ mode. C. 4125.0 kHz using simplex mode. D. 4125.0 kHz using FEC mode. share/E7/7-7B20000664000175000017500000000016312223317611011224 0ustar jtnjtn7B2 D What is the frequency range for High Frequency? A. 300-3,000 kHz. B. 30-300 MHz. C. 10-30 MHz. D. 3-30 MHz. share/E7/7-98J10000664000175000017500000000070212223317616011331 0ustar jtnjtn98J1 D The Distress Alarm sounds and the screen readout no longer contains the particulars of the Distress: A. The particulars are rarely routed to the printer so it is of no use to examine the printer. B. Examine the Transmitted Data Directory or the printer to recover the information. C. Call the Distress vessel on the DSC frequency and request a retransmission. D. Examine the Received Data Directory or the printer to recover the information. share/E7/7-62I60000664000175000017500000000034212223317614011322 0ustar jtnjtn62I6 D What is the purpose of a CODEC? A. Noise and echo-canceling used in TELEX operation. B. To enable Distress communications. C. To enable data communications. D. To convert analog voice signals to digital transmissions. share/E7/7-28D50000664000175000017500000000044012223317613011314 0ustar jtnjtn28D5 D Which of the following are the MF/HF DSC Distress watch frequencies? A. 2177.5, 4210.0, 6314.0, 8416.5 12579.0, 16806.5. B. 2182.0, 4125.0, 6215.0, 8291.0, 12290.0, 16420.0. C. 2174.5, 4177.5, 6268.0, 8376.5, 12520.0, 16695.0. D. 2187.5, 4207.5, 6312.0, 8414.5, 12577.0, 16804.5. share/E7/7-95J10000664000175000017500000000064712223317616011336 0ustar jtnjtn95J1 C If the vessel is within range of NAVTEX broadcasts and both the Inmarsat-C and the NAVTEX receiver are inoperative the GMDSS operator should: A. Select 518 kHz ARQ TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. B. Request repairs of the Sat-C system and wait until within range of NAVTEX. C. Select 518 kHz FEC TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. D. Select an HF MSI frequency and ARQ TELEX mode to receive MSI. share/E7/7-79I30000664000175000017500000000056612223317615011340 0ustar jtnjtn79I3 A Which statement is correct regarding a method that a vessel experiencing problems with shadowing of an Inmarsat-B (or F77) SES antenna by an on-board obstruction could use to attempt reliable communications? A. Change course to remove the shadow. B. Change the Coast Station ID programming. C. Install a shadow correction filter. D. Switch from TELEX to voice mode. share/E7/7-97J50000664000175000017500000000025512223317616011337 0ustar jtnjtn97J5 A At mid-day, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate with a shore station some 75 miles distant? A. MF. B. VHF-FM. C. 22 MHz band. D. 16 MHz band. share/E7/7-56H50000664000175000017500000000043412223317614011325 0ustar jtnjtn56H5 D What services are available through Enhanced Group Calls? A. Maritime Safety Information and vessel traffic lists. B. Hourly NOAA weather broadcasts from the NWS. C. Coastal weather broadcasts. D. Maritime Safety Information and messages to pre-defined groups of subscribers. share/E7/7-1A30000664000175000017500000000102512223317611011214 0ustar jtnjtn1A3 C What is the basic concept of GMDSS? A. Shoreside authorities will rely on reports from nearby vessels to become aware of Distress alerts. B. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation only after the correct chain of DSC relays takes place. C. SAR authorities ashore can be alerted to a Distress situation & shipping in the vicinity can be requested to participate in SAR operations. D. SAR authorities ashore wait to have EPIRB Distress alerts confirmed by satellite follow-on communications. share/E7/7-14C50000664000175000017500000000116012223317612011305 0ustar jtnjtn14C5 C Which of the following documents or publications are required by Part 80 of the FCC rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? A. Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate, ITU Master Plan of GMDSS Coast stations, and ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. B. ITU Master Plan of GMDSS Coast stations, ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations, ITU List IV & List V. C. ITU List IV & List V, Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate & ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. D. ITU List IV & List V, Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate & IMO manual for Maritime Mobile stations. share/E7/7-17C20000664000175000017500000000104112223317612011303 0ustar jtnjtn17C2 B What is the meaning of "Reserve Source of Energy"? A. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. B. Power to operate the radio installation and conduct Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship's main and emergency sources of electrical power. C. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements. D. The diesel fueled emergency generator that supplies AC to the vessel's Emergency power bus. share/E7/7-64I40000664000175000017500000000065212223317614011326 0ustar jtnjtn64I4 A What is the effect of having five periods (e.g. .....) in the text of a TELEX transmission on an Inmarsat-B SES? A. The transmission will automatically terminate after those characters are transmitted. B. Only the first period will be routed to the receiving party. C. Only the first two periods will be routed to the receiving party. D. This will automatically trigger the reversal of charges to the receiving party. share/E7/7-22D30000664000175000017500000000022012223317612011277 0ustar jtnjtn22D3 B What does the MID (Maritime Identification Digits) signify? A. Port of registry. B. Nationality. C. Gross tonnage. D. Passenger vessel. share/E7/7-73I50000664000175000017500000000035612223317615011331 0ustar jtnjtn73I5 A Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine on a vessel's F77 terminal in the IOR? A. 870763240864. B. 583442519372. C. 1870442519372. D. 870323500121. share/E7/7-26D30000664000175000017500000000060212223317612011307 0ustar jtnjtn26D3 B When sending a DSC call: A. Vessel's position will automatically be sent with DSC calls specifying an alternate frequency. B. Vessel's position will automatically be sent if the vessel is sending a "Distress Hot Key" alert. C. Vessel's MMSI will indicate its ocean region and vessel position. D. Vessel's MMSI and position will automatically be sent for all types of DSC calls. share/E7/7-98J30000664000175000017500000000132012223317616011330 0ustar jtnjtn98J3 B What are potential dangers of automatic transceiver switching in response to a DSC call? A. Incorrectly formatted DSC calls from other vessels result in a warning in the DSC alarm screen but the vessel still might be switched to an illegal or improper outcome. B. The transceiver may be switched out of the marine bands or the frequency may not match the requested priority or emission. C. The automatic transceiver switching software always detects improper priorities, emissions & frequencies to ensure there is no danger. D. The automatic transceiver switching feature always interrupting safe navigation of your own vessel and placing the unit on the GMDSS Distress, Urgency or Safety follow-on frequencies. share/E7/7-27D50000664000175000017500000000054412223317613011320 0ustar jtnjtn27D5 B In all cases, the transmit frequency of a MF/HF console DSC Distress alert: A. Will always go out first on 2187.5 kHz. B. Depends upon operator DSC Call set up entries or manufacturer's defaults. C. Will go out on 8 MHz and 2 MHz and one other DSC Distress frequency. D. Will always go out first on 8414.5 kHz to ensure receipt by a coast station. share/E7/7-18C10000664000175000017500000000033512223317612011310 0ustar jtnjtn18C1 D Under GMDSS, a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at sea? A. Annually, by a representative of the FCC. B. At the annual SOLAS inspection. C. Monthly. D. Daily. share/E7/7-65I40000664000175000017500000000101412223317614011320 0ustar jtnjtn65I4 D What statement is true regarding Inmarsat-C? A. There is a propagation delay, but a direct connection is made between the ship and shore users. B. There are delays in establishing communications. Then a direct real-time connection is maintained with the other party. C. The TELEX message is stored until the mailbox is accessed by the station desiring to retrieve their message. D. This is a store and forward network, with an intermediate step that means there is no direct connection between ship and shore users. share/E7/7-6A40000664000175000017500000000107712223317611011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A4 C What statement is correct regarding the maintenance requirements for A3 ships under GMDSS? A. If the vessel selects at-sea maintenance no additional parts and spares are required. B. On-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer's license will fully meet the requirements. C. Redundancy of functions of certain equipment and on-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer's license will partially meet this requirement. D. Shoreside maintenance and scheduled tests and inspections will not partially meet this requirement. share/E7/7-62I10000664000175000017500000000105012223317614011312 0ustar jtnjtn62I1 D What is the primary function of an NCS? A. To provide direct communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. B. To provide multi-mode communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the coast radio station that will deliver it. C. To determine which satellite is best suited to provide communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. D. To monitor and control communications through the Inmarsat satellite for which it is responsible. share/E7/7-63I60000664000175000017500000000075612223317614011334 0ustar jtnjtn63I6 C What is the primary purpose of an Inmarsat LES? A. The LES is required for ship-ship Inmarsat communications, ship-shore communications are handled by terrestrial Coast Radio Stations. B. The LES monitors all operations of the satellite and assigns channels and frequencies to the vessel. C. The LES makes the satellite connection between the vessel and the requested destination for all types of services. D. The LES is dedicated only to processing all vessel Distress priority calls. share/E7/7-87J40000664000175000017500000000042712223317615011335 0ustar jtnjtn87J4 B A Coast Station that is described as ATOR typically provides what type of services? A. NAVTEX BFEC weather broadcasts. B. ARQ SITOR (NBDP) connections to shoreside terminals. C. BFEC SITOR (NBDP) connections to shoreside terminals. D. SITOR (NBDP) HF weather broadcasts. share/E7/7-49G40000664000175000017500000000037712223317613011332 0ustar jtnjtn49G4 D Much longer than normal VHF communications distances are typically caused by: A. Changing power from 1W to 25 W. B. Skywave reflections from the D layer. C. Ionospheric activity in layers F1/F2. D. Atmospheric ducting or tropospheric propagation. share/E7/7-92J60000664000175000017500000000124312223317615011330 0ustar jtnjtn92J6 A Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode: A. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters, the shore station checks for proper parity. If parity is OK, the shore station indicates readiness for transmission of the next 3 characters. B. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters twice and then waits for an "RQ" signal to indicate proper receipt before continuing transmission. C. The Ship station sends each character twice, using a time diversity system to ensure proper parity. D. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters, the shore station checks for proper parity and then requests the same group be resent to enable error correction. share/E7/7-3A20000664000175000017500000000030012223317611011210 0ustar jtnjtn3A2 D What sea area is defined as being within range of a shore-based MF station that provides for continuous DSC alerting? A. Coastal waters. B. Sea area A3. C. Sea area A1. D. Sea area A2. share/E7/7-6A60000664000175000017500000000031112223317611011221 0ustar jtnjtn6A6 D A ship operating in sea area A-1 must have the following provisions for maintenance: A. Shore maintenance. B. Duplication of equipment. C. At Sea Maintenance. D. Any one of these is sufficient. share/E7/7-58H30000664000175000017500000000026112223317614011323 0ustar jtnjtn58H3 B NAVAREAs referred to in NAVTEX are the same as used in: A. GMDSS sea areas. B. Inmarsat SafetyNETTM. C. International Vessel Traffic Service. D. Inmarsat ocean regions. share/E7/7-37E30000664000175000017500000000016112223317613011313 0ustar jtnjtn37E3 C Which channel is designated for GMDSS Digital Selective Calling? A. Ch-06. B. Ch-16. C. Ch-70. D. Ch-83. share/E7/7-90J10000664000175000017500000000100712223317615011317 0ustar jtnjtn90J1 D Which of the following events will take place immediately after phasing with a Coast Station on an available channel? A. The ship station begins transmitting the text to the destination telex terminal. B. The vessel will request the shore station's answerback to confirm it has reached the correct station. C. The ship will transmit the desired command (such as DIRTLX+, OBS+ or AMV+) to the coast radio station. D. After exchanging answer-backs (WRU/AAB) the coast station transmits GA+? and awaits a command. share/E7/7-17C60000664000175000017500000000060612223317612011315 0ustar jtnjtn17C6 B Which of the following terms is defined as a back-up power source that provides power to radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications when the vessel's main and emergency generators cannot? A. Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG). B. Reserve Source of Energy (RSE). C. Reserve Source of Diesel Power (RSDP). D. Emergency Back-up Generator (EBG). share/E7/7-16C50000664000175000017500000000126012223317612011310 0ustar jtnjtn16C5 D Which of the following are personnel, functional, or equipment FCC requirements of the GMDSS? A. One FCC licensed GMDSS radio operator in sea areas A1 & A2, two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators in sea areas A3 & A4 and equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations. B. Distress alerting and response, two USCG STCW GMDSS watchstanders, equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations. C. Equipment carriage reduced for sea areas A3 & A4, Distress alerting and response and two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators. D. Equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations, distress alerting and response and two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators. share/E7/7-12B50000664000175000017500000000056112223317612011306 0ustar jtnjtn12B5 D What is the purpose or function of the antenna coupler? A. Electrically matching the antenna system to the transmit frequency. B. Changing the overall wavelength of the antenna system (in addition to the fixed length whip). C. Enabling maximum transmitted signal on the band chosen by the operator. D. All of these answers are functions of the antenna coupler. share/E7/7-39F10000664000175000017500000000067312223317613011324 0ustar jtnjtn39F1 C What indication is given to the personnel in a survival craft of the approach of SAR craft? A. The Satellite EPIRB will change its strobe light pattern to indicate radar interrogation. B. The SART informs survivors when the SART switches to the "standby" mode. C. The SART may provide a visual or audible indication of interrogation by a 3-cm radar. D. The AIS SART will alarm to indicate that SAR craft with radars are getting close. share/E7/7-43F60000664000175000017500000000026512223317613011321 0ustar jtnjtn43F6 C Which of the following EPIRBs is most likely to be used to transmit a Distress alert signal? A. S-Band EPIRBs. B. X-Band EPIRBs. C. 406 MHz EPIRBs. D. 121.5/243 MHz EPIRBs. share/E7/7-77I50000664000175000017500000000056512223317615011337 0ustar jtnjtn77I5 A What is the equipment arrangement that provides the maximum availability for reception of MSI broadcasts when using Inmarsat-C for TELEX communications? A.. Separate EGC receiver. B. Integrating EGC receiver with the existing Inmarsat-C equipment. C. Redundancy using HF SSB to receive voice broadcasts. D. Automatic switching between Inmarsat-C and EGC functions. share/E7/7-70I60000664000175000017500000000037212223317614011324 0ustar jtnjtn70I6 D Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-B address for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 440122 in the United Kingdom (TELEX country code 51)? A. 51440122. B. (51)440122+. C. 51440122#. D. 51440122+. share/E7/7-44F10000664000175000017500000000031512223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn44F1 B Which of the following would best be used for visual detection of a distressed vessel? A. A 9-GHz SART's beacon. B. An EPIRB's strobe light. C. A 121.5-MHz EPIRB beacon. D. A 406-MHz EPIRB beacon. share/E7/7-4A60000664000175000017500000000075712223317611011235 0ustar jtnjtn4A6 A Which of the following are required GMDSS functions for vessels? A. Transmit and receive locating signals, general communications and SAR communications. B. Transmit and receive general communications, transmit Distress Alerts by at least one means, MSI. C. Transmit and receive locating signals, send MSI to other ships via EGC, Bridge-to-Bridge communications. D. Transmit and receive SAR communications, transmit Distress Alerts by at least one means, Bridge-to-Bridge communications. share/E7/7-30E40000664000175000017500000000104712223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn30E4 C What is the proper format for a Distress follow on voice transmission? (3x is three times), A. All Ships 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. B. Mayday 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign once, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. C. Mayday 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. D. All Stations 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. share/E7/7-44F20000664000175000017500000000036012223317613011312 0ustar jtnjtn44F2 C Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? A. Radio Direction Finder (RDF). B. Survival Craft Transceiver. C. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz. D. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz. share/E7/7-26D50000664000175000017500000000034612223317612011316 0ustar jtnjtn26D5 C DSC transmissions are received: A. Using voice or TELEX modes as appropriate. B. Using J3E or H3E modes as appropriate. C. Using digital decoding by the DSC controller. D. Using F1B and/or J2B decoding by the transceiver. share/E7/7-24D50000664000175000017500000000017112223317612011310 0ustar jtnjtn24D5 D Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-B terminal? A. 150036. B. 430363275. C. 1502460. D. 366632824. share/E7/7-12B30000664000175000017500000000035712223317612011307 0ustar jtnjtn12B3 D A vertical quarter wave antenna with a good ground connection will: A. Radiate directionally due to being grounded. B. Not function due to being grounded. C. Only be used in Satellite communications. D. Radiate omni-directionally. share/E7/7-51H50000664000175000017500000000040312223317614011314 0ustar jtnjtn51H5 B Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 2187.5 kHz. B. 518 kHz. C. 4209.5 kHz. D. VHF channel 16 when the vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2. share/E7/7-36E60000664000175000017500000000047512223317613011325 0ustar jtnjtn36E6 A Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. A scenario concerning an important navigational or meteorological warning. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. C. A crewmember falling over the side. D. Important company communications involving weather routing. share/E7/7-9B30000664000175000017500000000062112223317612011227 0ustar jtnjtn9B3 C Which statement best describes amplitude modulation? A. The character data from the terminal is changed to audio tones. B. The frequency is varied in synchronization with the modulating signal. C. The amplitudes in the sideband(s) changes but the radio carrier frequency remains constant. D. The amplitude of the carrier is changed but there is still only a single frequency being transmitted. share/E7/7-21D20000664000175000017500000000031112223317612011276 0ustar jtnjtn21D2 B What would the number 1090 indicate? A. A ship DSC MMSI number. B. A coast station SITOR (NBDP) SELCAL number. C. A coast station DSC MMSI number. D. A ship station SITOR (NBDP) SELCAL number. share/E7/7-18C40000664000175000017500000000052312223317612011312 0ustar jtnjtn18C4 C At sea, all required equipment (other than Survival Craft Equipment) must be proven operational by: A. Testing at least every 48 hours. B. Weekly testing of all S.C.E. and other compulsory equipment. C. Daily testing or daily successful use of the equipment. D. Daily testing of the S.C.E. and weekly tests of the other equipment. share/E7/7-83J40000664000175000017500000000036112223317615011326 0ustar jtnjtn83J4 B The proper sequence of channel spacing from narrow to widest is: A. SSB voice, SITOR (NBDP), VHF-FM voice. B. SITOR (NBDP), SSB-voice, VHF-FM voice. C. VHF-FM voice, SITOR (NBDP), SSB-voice. D. SITOR (NBDP), VHF-FM voice, SSB-voice. share/E7/7-7B60000664000175000017500000000024112223317611011225 0ustar jtnjtn7B6 C What is the primary frequency range for terrestrial communications using skywave propagation? A. 300-3,000 kHz. B. 30-300 MHz. C. 3-30 MHz. D. 10-30 MHz. share/E7/7-62I40000664000175000017500000000054612223317614011326 0ustar jtnjtn62I4 C How is maximum coverage provided by satellites in the maritime satellite service? A. Four satellites in polar orbit. B. Four satellites in geo-stationary orbit for each Inmarsat Service (B, C, F77 and M). C. Four satellites in geo-stationary orbit approximately 22,184 miles above the equator. D. Through coordinated use of COSPAS-SARSAT satellites. share/E7/7-91J30000664000175000017500000000044712223317615011331 0ustar jtnjtn91J3 A What sequence of ARQ codes matches the following: Send synoptic weather, switch control from a station currently transmitting over to the receiving station, terminate phasing with coast station. A. OBS+, +?, BRK+. B. OBS+, WRU then Here is, BRK+. C. OBS+, GA+?, KKKK. D. AMV+, +?, KKKK. share/E7/7-93J20000664000175000017500000000063712223317616011334 0ustar jtnjtn93J2 B The DIRTLX command should be given to a coast station at what point in time? A. Immediately following the automatic exchange of answerbacks. B. After receipt of the Go Ahead indication following the automatic exchange of answerbacks. C. After receipt of the Go Ahead indication followed by the automatic exchange of answerbacks. D. Sent at the beginning of the message to request a direct TELEX connection. share/E7/7-55H60000664000175000017500000000066412223317614011332 0ustar jtnjtn55H6 C In using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information): A. Only unscheduled Urgency and Distress messages will be received if the Inmarsat-C SES is not logged in. B. Both scheduled MSI and unscheduled Urgency and Distress messages will be received if the Inmarsat-C SES is logged in. C. All of these answers are correct. D. The Inmarsat-C SES must have Enhanced Group Calling (EGC) capability to receive MSI. share/E7/7-55H30000664000175000017500000000021312223317614011315 0ustar jtnjtn55H3 A Which satellite system promulgates Maritime Safety Information? A. Inmarsat-C SafetyNETTM. B. AMVER. C. NAVTEX. D. Inmarsat-M SES. share/E7/7-5A40000664000175000017500000000101212223317611011215 0ustar jtnjtn5A4 D Within a single sea area, what is the primary reason GMDSS imposes carriage requirements for different radio subsystems? A. Redundancy in duplicating all operational functions in the event of a system failure. B. Different subsystems are required to meet the specific equipment carriage requirements of national authorities. C. GMDSS vessels must be equipped to communicate in all modes with coast radio stations. D. The combined capabilities of redundant subsystems mitigate the risk of a single point of failure. share/E7/7-39F50000664000175000017500000000066112223317613011325 0ustar jtnjtn39F5 B At what point does a SART begin transmitting? A. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the "on" position. B. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz radar signal. C. It must be manually activated or water activated before radiating. D. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in water. share/E7/7-14C40000664000175000017500000000115412223317612011307 0ustar jtnjtn14C4 C Which of the following documents or publications are required by the FCC for GMDSS vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? A. IMO master plan of shore-based facilities (or substitute), station logs, appropriate operator licenses, Inmarsat handbook for GMDSS. B. NGA Pub. 117 (or substitute), station logs, appropriate operator licenses, IAMSAR manual volume III. C. Part 80 FCC rules, station logs, station licenses, ITU publications, ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. D. Part 80 FCC rules, station logs, station licenses, ITU publications, IMO manual for Maritime Mobile stations. share/E7/7-38E40000664000175000017500000000044012223317613011315 0ustar jtnjtn38E4 C GMDSS vessels equipped for Sea Areas A2, A3 or A4 must maintain a continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz. A. Only in areas beyond Inmarsat coverage. B. Only outside of areas covered by VHF-DSC. C. At all times when underway. D. When directed to do so by a cognizant rescue authority. share/E7/7-63I20000664000175000017500000000043312223317614011320 0ustar jtnjtn63I2 D To keep the Inmarsat-B or F77 antenna pointing at the desired satellite, regardless of the ship's position and course, it has an input from the vessel's: A. Operational radar. B. Automated Radar Plotting Aid (ARPA equipped radar). C. Steering control system. D. Gyrocompass. share/E7/7-54H10000664000175000017500000000032112223317614011312 0ustar jtnjtn54H1 D Where NAVTEX cannot be feasibly established, what system can be implemented to provide an automated service in coastal waters to receive MSI? A. AMVER. B. VHF DSC. C. ARQ SITOR (NBDP). D. SafetyNETTM. share/E7/7-71I50000664000175000017500000000034412223317614011323 0ustar jtnjtn71I5 B Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to an Inmarsat-B terminal in the AOR-W? A. 584765044177. B. 584331014013. C. 870331014013. D. 584331014013+. share/E7/7-35E10000664000175000017500000000014612223317613011312 0ustar jtnjtn35E1 C The Radiotelephone Urgency signal is: A. Mayday. B. Securite. C. Pan Pan. D. Seelonce Feenee. share/E7/7-10B40000664000175000017500000000034412223317612011302 0ustar jtnjtn10B4 C What is the signal transmitted in H3E mode? A. Two sidebands, upper and lower. B. A reduced carrier and the lower sideband. C. A full carrier and the upper sideband. D. A full carrier and both upper and lower sidebands. share/E7/7-71I20000664000175000017500000000032612223317614011320 0ustar jtnjtn71I2 D Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to a vessel in the AOR-E? A. 870436772983. B. 571436772983. C. 581323500120+. D. 581323500120. share/E7/7-57H20000664000175000017500000000027012223317614011321 0ustar jtnjtn57H2 B The U.S. Coast Guard communications station providing HF MSI broadcast coverage for NAVAREA IV is: A. NOJ (Kodiak). B. NMF (Boston). C. NMC (San Francisco). D. NMO (Honolulu). share/E7/7-57H60000664000175000017500000000014612223317614011327 0ustar jtnjtn57H6 B How many frequencies are assigned specifically for HF MSI broadcasts? A. 6. B. 8. C. 5. D. 7. share/E7/7-14C60000664000175000017500000000054012223317612011307 0ustar jtnjtn14C6 D Which of the following references should be consulted to identify the name of a vessel based on its Maritime Mobile Service Identity? A. ITU list of Coast Stations. B. ITU List of Radio-determination and Ship Stations. C. ITU Master Plan of Shore-Based Facilities. D. ITU List of Ship Stations and Maritime Mobile Service Identity Assignments. share/E7/7-21D50000664000175000017500000000021112223317612011300 0ustar jtnjtn21D5 A What type of station would be assigned the call sign WAB2174? A. Tug boat. B. Container ship. C. Passenger ship. D. Bulk Tanker. share/E7/7-17C40000664000175000017500000000060112223317612011306 0ustar jtnjtn17C4 D What characteristics describe the GMDSS Reserve Source of Energy (RSE)? A. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time. B. Cannot be independent of the propelling power of the ship. C. Must be incorporated into the ship's electrical system. D. Must be independent of the ship's electrical system when the RSE is needed to supply power to the GMDSS equipment. share/E7/7-64I20000664000175000017500000000026512223317614011324 0ustar jtnjtn64I2 C Which mode of Inmarsat-B communications may be possible with a lower received signal strength? A. Fax. B. Voice Communications. C. TELEX. D. Binary computer file transfers. share/E7/7-72I10000664000175000017500000000042112223317615011315 0ustar jtnjtn72I1 B Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 45992 in Taiwan (TELEX country code 769)? A. 76945992+. B. None of these answers is correct. C. 769 45992+. D. (769)45992. share/E7/7-91J10000664000175000017500000000034212223317615011321 0ustar jtnjtn91J1 C What sequence of ARQ codes matches the following: manual over, end of message text, end of connection to land destination terminal? A. NNNN, KKKK, GA+. B. KKKK, DIRTLX, NNNN. C. +?, NNNN, KKKK. D. +?, . . . . ., BRK+. share/E7/7-3A50000664000175000017500000000027612223317611011227 0ustar jtnjtn3A5 B SITOR (NBDP) equipment is a partial or alternate carriage requirement under GMDSS for vessels operating in which sea area(s)? A. A1. B. A3 and A4. C. A1 and A2. D. A1, A2, A3 and A4. share/E7/7-29E30000664000175000017500000000077312223317613011325 0ustar jtnjtn29E3 C If a GMDSS Radio Operator initiates a DSC Distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens? A. The transmission is aborted and an alarm sounds to indicate this data must be provided by the operator. B. The transmission is not initiated and "ERROR" is indicated on the display readout. C. The transmission will be made with "default" information provided automatically. D. The receiving station will poll the DSC unit of the vessel in Distress to download the necessary information. share/E7/7-9B10000664000175000017500000000044112223317612011225 0ustar jtnjtn9B1 A What statement best describes modulation? A. Imposing intelligence onto a radio carrier signal. B. Changing mark-space to 1 and 0. C. Adjusting the frequency to the optimum band for long distance communications. D. Converting the carrier from a low frequency to a higher frequency. share/E7/7-94J30000664000175000017500000000067112223317616011334 0ustar jtnjtn94J3 B Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. FEC requests are first acknowledged by the vessel's transmitter before broadcasts can be received. B. FEC mode broadcasts can be passively received without the transmitter being active. C. Weather broadcasts are always made in ARQ mode to ensure reception. D. ARQ mode communications can be passively received without the transmitter being active. share/E7/7-99J40000664000175000017500000000076112223317616011342 0ustar jtnjtn99J4 B What will cause an individual battery cell to reverse polarity. A. High discharge rates without allowing for a cool down period. B. When discharging the battery string if a cell becomes weaker than the remaining cells, the discharge current will effectively charge the weaker cell in reverse polarity. C. Insufficient charging which does not bring all of the cells up to full charge. D. The charging circuits are connected in the correct polarity but all of the cells are equally charged. share/E7/7-47F40000664000175000017500000000044212223317613011320 0ustar jtnjtn47F4 B Which statement is NOT true regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. EPIRBs are satellite beacons used as alerting/locating devices. B. May be used to transmit public correspondence. C. Locates Distress beacons transmitting on 406 MHz. D. Doppler shift is used to locate the beacons. share/E7/7-18C20000664000175000017500000000070112223317612011306 0ustar jtnjtn18C2 A Which statement concerning the testing of a compulsory radiotelephone station is false? A. Calling the USCG on VHF CH-16 or 2182.0 kHz is the most effective method. B. Tests may be accomplished by using the equipment for normal business. C. A daily test is necessary unless the equipment was used for routine traffic. D. The test may not interfere with communications in progress and must wait or be suspended if a request to do so is made. share/E7/7-3A60000664000175000017500000000046512223317611011230 0ustar jtnjtn3A6 C What is defined as the area within the radiotelephone coverage area of at least one VHF coast station in which continuous DSC alerting is available as defined by the IMO regulation for GMDSS? A. Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR. B. Sea Area A2. C. Sea Area A1. D. Coastal and Inland Waters. share/E7/7-41F20000664000175000017500000000101712223317613011307 0ustar jtnjtn41F2 B Why is it important to limit the duration of testing a SART? A. Excessive testing causes "burn in" on the vessel's radar display. B. Testing in port or even at sea may cause interference to other radars or a test signal may be misinterpreted as a genuine Distress situation. C. To prevent overheating, a SART requires sufficient ventilation that is significantly reduced when the SART is being tested. D. If another SART is testing at the same time, the two signals will cause damage to the unit that transmitted them. share/E7/7-97J30000664000175000017500000000033012223317616011327 0ustar jtnjtn97J3 C At mid-day in the summer, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate, using SITOR (NBDP) with a shore station some 1800 miles distant? A. VHF-FM. B. Lower HF bands. C. Higher HF bands. D. MF. share/E7/7-60I10000664000175000017500000000030712223317614011314 0ustar jtnjtn60I1 B Which satellite(s) would most likely be selected for use when the vessel is operating off the eastern shore of the United States? A. IOR. B. AOR-W. C. POR. D. Either AOR-W or IOR will work.. share/E7/7-80J30000664000175000017500000000066312223317615011327 0ustar jtnjtn80J3 D Which statement regarding GMDSS MF/HF Transceiver frequency set-up is true: A. Manual keypad entries are quicker and more certain than using the database. B. All consoles ensure that manual keypad entries are checked for legal outcomes. C. All consoles ensure that ITU channel recall from a database produces accurate and legal outcomes. D. Using the manufacturer's database typically produces a more swift and certain result. share/E7/7-8B10000664000175000017500000000023712223317611011226 0ustar jtnjtn8B1 B Which of the following systems is most susceptible to fading or static interference? A. Inmarsat. B. HF SITOR (NBDP). C. DSC on channel 70. D. VHF ARQ. share/E7/7-77I40000664000175000017500000000026612223317615011334 0ustar jtnjtn77I4 D Which of the following is utilized to transmit Enhanced Group Calls? A. COSPAS satellite. B. HF SITOR (NBDP) shore stations. C. NAVTEX shore stations. D. Inmarsat satellite. share/E7/7-11B30000664000175000017500000000033212223317612011277 0ustar jtnjtn11B3 A You look up a frequency table and all the listings end in either .0 or .5 kHz. What kind of emission is used with these frequencies? A. F1B/J2B SITOR (NBDP). B. J3E SSB Voice. C. F3E FM Voice. D. G3E FM Voice. share/E7/7-7B40000664000175000017500000000017112223317611011225 0ustar jtnjtn7B4 B What is the frequency range for Ultra High Frequency? A. 3-30 MHz. B. 300-3,000 MHz. C. 30-300 MHz. D. 10-30 MHz. share/E7/7-23D50000664000175000017500000000046112223317612011311 0ustar jtnjtn23D5 B Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is false? A. All Coast Station MMSI must begin with 2 zeros. B. All Coast Station MMSI must begin with the MID then 2 zeros. C. A group call must begin with a single zero followed by the MID. D. The first 3 digits of a ship MMSI comprise the MID. share/E7/7-88J40000664000175000017500000000066712223317615011344 0ustar jtnjtn88J4 A Which statement best defines the SITOR (NBDP) acronym "BFEC"? A. Error correction for one-way TELEX broadcasts of weather or navigation information. B. Error Correction when 2 stations are in direct & phased telephone communications with each other. C. Error Correction when 2 stations are in direct & phased TELEX communications with each other. D. Error correction when 1 station sends a one-way TELEX to a single other station. share/E7/7-22D10000664000175000017500000000023312223317612011301 0ustar jtnjtn22D1 D What is the MID? A. Mobile Identification Number. B. Marine Indemnity Directory. C. Mobile Interference Digits. D. Maritime Identification Digits. share/E7/7-36E50000664000175000017500000000026012223317613011314 0ustar jtnjtn36E5 D The Radiotelephone Safety signal is: A. "Safety Safety Safety". B. "Pan Pan" repeated 3 times. C. "Securite Securite" repeated 3 times. D. "Securite" repeated 3 times. share/E7/7-33E20000664000175000017500000000052212223317613011307 0ustar jtnjtn33E2 B What action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on MF? A. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2187.5 kHz. B. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2182.0 kHz. C. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2174.5 kHz. D. Send another DSC alert and follow on with voice on 2182.0 kHz. share/E7/7-53H20000664000175000017500000000101512223317614011313 0ustar jtnjtn53H2 B If the Inmarsat-C terminal is inoperative but the vessel remains within NAVTEX coverage -- which of the following message categories should not be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Navigational warnings, meteorological warnings and metrological forecasts. B. Meteorological warnings, Search and Rescue information and Navigational warnings. C. Search and Rescue information, navigational warnings and other electronic navaid messages. D. Search and Rescue information, Meteorological warnings and ice reports. share/E7/7-79I20000664000175000017500000000057412223317615011336 0ustar jtnjtn79I2 D A vessel loses Inmarsat-B SES operation after a large course change. Which of the following could most likely cause this? A. Shadowing of the SES antenna by clouds or other weather formations. B. Misalignment of the shadow correction filter. C. The vessel sailed beyond the footprint of the satellite coverage. D. System loses gyro follow-up or a gyro system malfunction. share/E7/7-13C10000664000175000017500000000062712223317612011307 0ustar jtnjtn13C1 A How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected? A. Annually, by the FCC or designated authority. B. Annually, by the U.S. Coast Guard. C. Annually, by the FCC, and every six months if the vessel sails outside of Sea Areas A1 and A2. D. The FCC's annual inspection may be waived if and only if monthly inspections are performed by the vessel's on-board GMDSS Radio Maintainer. share/E7/7-67I60000664000175000017500000000122712223317614011332 0ustar jtnjtn67I6 C When Inmarsat-B and Inmarsat-C terminals are compared: A. Inmarsat-B units provide greater communications capabilities, with the benefits of greater size, weight, installation expense and initial cost. B. Inmarsat-C provides lesser communications capabilities, with the trade-offs of greater size, weight, installation expense and initial cost. C. Inmarsat-B units provide greater communications capabilities, with the trade-offs of greater size, weight, installation expense and initial cost. D. Inmarsat-C units are of smaller size, weight, installation expense and initial cost and provide greater communications capabilities due to modern technology. share/E7/7-80J20000664000175000017500000000065512223317615011327 0ustar jtnjtn80J2 C MF/HF Transceiver Power levels should be set: A. To the highest possible level to ensure effective communications. B. To the lowest possible level at all times regardless of whether communications are effective. C. To the lowest level needed to achieve the necessary propagation radius and communications range. D. To the highest level possible so as to ensure other stations cannot "break-in" on the channel during use. share/E7/7-83J20000664000175000017500000000060712223317615011327 0ustar jtnjtn83J2 D The purpose of ITU channel spacing is: A. To minimize the number of voice & TELEX channels available. B. To make most efficient use of the radio spectrum, by using voice channels rather than TELEX channels. C. To make most efficient use of the radio spectrum, by using TELEX channels rather than voice channels. D. To minimize the possibility of interference from adjacent channels. share/E7/7-19C40000664000175000017500000000135712223317612011321 0ustar jtnjtn19C4 B Proper watchkeeping includes the following: A. Monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode, setting the DSC scanner to 2 MHz, 4 MHZ and 8 MHz for ships in the vicinity, notifying the Master of any Distress alerts. B. After silencing an alarm all displays and/or printouts are read, monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode, notifying the Master of any Distress alerts. C. Notifying the Master of any Distress alerts, setting the DSC scanner to 2 MHz, 4 MHZ and 8 MHz for ships in the vicinity, monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode. D. Setting the DSC scanner only to the mandatory 2 MHz & 8 MHz, maintain continuous watch on 2182.0 kHz or 4125.0 kHz, notify the Master of any Distress traffic heard. share/E7/7-45F10000664000175000017500000000053512223317613011316 0ustar jtnjtn45F1 A With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers not communicate? A. Communication between the ship and survival craft transceivers ashore. B. Communication between the ship and its survival craft. C. Communication between rescue units and survival craft. D. Communication between multiple survival craft and with aircraft. share/E7/7-43F30000664000175000017500000000054412223317613011316 0ustar jtnjtn43F3 A What statement is true regarding 406 MHz EPIRB transmissions? A. Transmits a unique hexadecimal identification number. B. Allows immediate voice communications with the RCC. C. Coding permits the SAR authorities to know if manually or automatically activated. D. GMDSS Radio Operator programs an I.D. into the SART immediately prior to activation. share/E7/7-45F30000664000175000017500000000060312223317613011314 0ustar jtnjtn45F3 C Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristics? A. Permanently-affixed antenna, watertight, power 1W or 25W. B. Watertight, power a minimum of 1W, operation on CH-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70. C. Operation on Ch-16, watertight, permanently-affixed antenna. D. Operation on Ch-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70, power 1W, permanently-affixed antenna. share/E7/7-35E50000664000175000017500000000044712223317613011322 0ustar jtnjtn35E5 B The Urgency Priority should be used for: A. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). B. Messages containing information concerning the Safety of a mobile unit or person. C. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. D. Messages concerning On-scene communications. share/E7/7-100J10000664000175000017500000000103012223317616011364 0ustar jtnjtn100J1 B Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system which must be reported to the Master? A. Much lower noise level observed during daytime operation. B. No indication of power output when speaking into the microphone. C. When testing a radiotelephone alarm on 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna, the Distress frequency watch receiver becomes unmuted, an improper testing procedure. D. Failure to contact a shore station 600 nautical miles distant during daytime operation. share/E7/7-59I10000664000175000017500000000143112223317614011323 0ustar jtnjtn59I1 C Which of the following actions should be taken once the vessel is berthed and will not leave port again for several weeks? A. The GMDSS Radio Operator must notify the NCS that the vessel will be off-line, and wait for the NCS to acknowledge with a confirmation number that must be logged. B. The Inmarsat-C system can be powered down without taking additional steps once the GMDSS Radio Operator has ensured that all incoming SafetyNET TM messages have been received and stored. C. The GMDSS Radio Operator may log out of the Inmarsat-C system and turn the power off (unless the vessel decides to leave the unit on during the port stay). D. The GMDSS Radio Operator must transmit an all-ships alert, to notify vessels within the satellite's footprint that the vessel will be off-line. share/E7/7-11B60000664000175000017500000000012112223317612011276 0ustar jtnjtn11B6 C Which mode occupies the least bandwidth? A. H3E. B. A3E. C. J2B. D. F3E. share/E7/7-32E60000664000175000017500000000102312223317613011307 0ustar jtnjtn32E6 A DSC Relays of DSC Distress alerts received from other ships should be done? A. Only when the original DSC call is not acknowledged and no follow-on Distress traffic has been heard. B. Only by Inmarsat-C TELEX with Distress priority conveying the follow-on Distress traffic that has been heard. C. Only by Inmarsat-B voice or TELEX with Distress priority if no follow-on Distress traffic has been heard. D. Preferably by MF/HF voice or TELEX directly to the RCC conveying the follow-on Distress traffic that has been heard. share/E7/7-96J20000664000175000017500000000115212223317616011330 0ustar jtnjtn96J2 C GMDSS operators should learn which of the following propagation "rules of thumb"? A. Longer distance = lower frequency, Shorter distance = higher frequency; Daytime = higher frequency, nighttime = lower frequency. B. Longer distance = lower frequency, Shorter distance = lower frequency, Daytime = lower frequency, nighttime = higher frequency. C. Longer distance = higher frequency, Shorter distance = lower frequency, Daytime = higher frequency, nighttime = lower frequency. D. Longer distance = higher frequency, Shorter distance = higher frequency, Daytime = lower frequency, nighttime = higher frequency. share/E7/7-65I30000664000175000017500000000102712223317614011323 0ustar jtnjtn65I3 C How is a signal radiated from an Inmarsat-C system's antenna? A. It is a highly focused directional signal that must be beamed at the desired satellite. B. It is usually radiated in an omni-directional pattern, but an optional feature allows it to be directional for use when the vessel is on the fringe of the satellite's footprint. C. It is radiated in an omni-directional pattern. D. It is radiated in an omni-directional pattern that can be reversed by the Operator to attain directional beaming to an alternate satellite. share/E7/7-67I20000664000175000017500000000114212223317614011322 0ustar jtnjtn67I2 D When Inmarsat-B and Inmarsat-C terminals are compared: A. Inmarsat-B antennas are larger, but omni-directional, while Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller and parabolic, for aiming at the satellite. B. Inmarsat-B antennas are parabolic and smaller for higher gain, while Inmarsat-C antennas are larger but omni-directional. C. Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller, but omni-directional, while Inmarsat-B antennas are parabolic for lower gain. D. Inmarsat-B antennas are larger, but directional for higher gain, while Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller and non-parabolic, and do not require aiming at the satellite. share/E7/7-39F60000664000175000017500000000025312223317613011323 0ustar jtnjtn39F6 C A SART's signal cannot be detected: A. In poor visibility, or at night. B. In heavy seas. C. By a search vessel's 10 cm Radar. D. By a search vessel's 3 cm Radar. share/E7/7-58H40000664000175000017500000000035612223317614011331 0ustar jtnjtn58H4 C A vessel operating in the Western Atlantic or along the East coast of North America and Central America from Canada to Venezuela, including the Caribbean and Panama, would be located in which NAVAREA? A. X. B. XI. C. IV. D. XIII. share/E7/7-66I60000664000175000017500000000073712223317614011336 0ustar jtnjtn66I6 D Which of the following best describes the full range of services provided by the Inmarsat-C Satellite system? A. Polling, enhanced group call, and one-way position and data reporting via satellite. B. FM voice communications via satellite. C. Two-way messaging and data communications on a store-and-forward basis. D. Polling, enhanced group call, one-way position and data reporting via satellite, two-way messaging and data communications on a store-and-forward basis. share/E7/7-78I10000664000175000017500000000074212223317615011331 0ustar jtnjtn78I1 D A vessel with an 18-hour ETA to the Panama Canal on a voyage from Miami loses the ability to communicate via Inmarsat. The most likely cause is? A. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Southbury Land Earth Station. B. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Eastern Atlantic satellite. C. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Western Atlantic satellite. D. An equipment fault resulting in a loss of signal from the satellite. share/E7/7-35E40000664000175000017500000000052312223317613011314 0ustar jtnjtn35E4 B Which of the following situations would normally use the Urgency priority? A. A collision with the ship taking on water. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. C. Important company communications related to an itinerary change. D. Scenarios concerning the Safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. share/E7/7-19C60000664000175000017500000000113112223317612011311 0ustar jtnjtn19C6 C Which is true concerning a required watch on VHF Ch-16? A. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is required on Ch-16 in addition to both Ch-13 and the VTS channel. B. It is not compulsory at all times while at sea until further notice, unless the vessel is in a VTS system. C. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is not required on Ch-16 provided the vessel monitors both Ch-13 and the VTS channel. D. It is not always compulsory in sea areas A2, A3 and A4. share/E7/7-46F20000664000175000017500000000030312223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn46F2 A Which of the following channels is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment? A. Ch-16. B. Ch-6. C. Ch-13. D. Ch-70. share/E7/7-53H40000664000175000017500000000125212223317614011320 0ustar jtnjtn53H4 D What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver prints a particular type of message content from a programmed NAVTEX station? A. The serial number and type of message have already been received but additional printouts are generated to ensure receipt aboard the vessel. B. The subject indicator has been programmed for rejection by the operator but the message contains a priority override print command. C. The transmitting station ID covering your area has been programmed for rejection by the operator or has not been previously received. D. The serial number and type of message has not been previously received or the subject indicator has not been programmed for rejection. share/E7/7-11B40000664000175000017500000000015112223317612011277 0ustar jtnjtn11B4 B How many SITOR (NBDP) signals can occupy the space of one voice signal? A. 10. B. 6. C. 4. D. 2. share/E7/7-86J40000664000175000017500000000077412223317615011341 0ustar jtnjtn86J4 C Which of these statements regarding a multi-frequency MF/HF DSC Distress alert is false? A. Some units transmit on the mandatory MF/HF DSC watch frequencies first, and then on the others. B. Some units transmit in ascending order of propagation radius to alert nearby ships or shore stations first. C. May be transmitted in any order programmed by the GMDSSS operator. D. Multi-frequency alerts work quite differently, depending on the manufacturer and require care and understanding of the feature. share/E7/7-21D60000664000175000017500000000036112223317612011307 0ustar jtnjtn21D6 B What number will a ship station use to identify itself using SITOR (NBDP)? A. Four digit SELCAL. B. Five digit SELCAL or 9 digit SELCAL number identical to MMSI. C. 9 digit Inmarsat-B I. D. number. D. 9 digit Inmarsat-C I.D. number. share/E7/7-48F20000664000175000017500000000065112223317613011321 0ustar jtnjtn48F2 C What information should be contained in a detailed Distress message that was not transmitted by an initial Distress "hot-key" alert? A. Vessel position, course & speed and the nature of Distress. B. The distress vessel's IMN and position at the time of alert. C. Vessel name & call sign, POB and all potential means to communicate with the vessel. D. Vessel name & call sign, distress vessel's IMN & vessel position. share/E7/7-95J20000664000175000017500000000060612223317616011332 0ustar jtnjtn95J2 D If the vessel is beyond range of NAVTEX broadcasts and the Inmarsat-C system fails, the GMDSS operator must: A. Select 518 kHz ARQ TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. B. Request repairs of the Sat-C system and wait until within range of NAVTEX. C. Select 518 kHz FEC TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. D. Select an HF MSI frequency and FEC TELEX mode to receive MSI. share/E7/7-2A40000664000175000017500000000027012223317611011217 0ustar jtnjtn2A4 C What equipment is programmed to initiate transmission of Distress alerts and calls to individual stations? A. NAVTEX. B. GPS. C. DSC Controller. D. DSC Scanning Watch Receiver. share/E7/7-25D40000664000175000017500000000017112223317612011310 0ustar jtnjtn25D4 D Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. 150036. B. 366294824. C. 1502690. D. 430346275. share/E7/7-34E40000664000175000017500000000051412223317613011313 0ustar jtnjtn34E4 C How is "radio silence" imposed? A. By the Land Earth Station (LES) controlling the Distress communications on that frequency. B. By the nearest Public Correspondence Coast Station. C. By the On Scene Coordinator (OSC) or the RCC chosen by the SAR Mission Coordinator. D. By the vessel first responding to the Distress call. share/E7/7-25D30000664000175000017500000000017412223317612011312 0ustar jtnjtn25D3 C Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. 003668202. B. 325468263. C. 436682433. D. 1500270. share/E7/7-69I20000664000175000017500000000066412223317614011334 0ustar jtnjtn69I2 B A vessel is tracking the AOR-E satellite. To initiate an operator assisted ship-to-shore telephone contact to a shoreside party in the U.S.A., # 202-456-7890, through a European Earth Station, a valid Inmarsat operations/dialing sequence would be? A. Select LES: 001# then dial 1112024567890. B. Select LES: 012# then dial 1112024567890#. C. Select LES: 001# then dial 0012024567890#. D. Select LES: 001+ then dial 202 4567890. share/E7/7-37E50000664000175000017500000000016012223317613011314 0ustar jtnjtn37E5 A How many HF frequencies are available for DSC Distress related calls? A. Five. B. Four. C. Two. D. One. share/E7/7-69I10000664000175000017500000000063612223317614011332 0ustar jtnjtn69I1 A A vessel is tracking the AOR-W satellite. To initiate an automatic ship-to-shore telephone contact to a shoreside party in the U.S. phone # 123-456-7890, via Southbury Earth Station, a valid Inmarsat operations/dialing sequence is? A. Select LES 001# then dial 0011234567890#. B. Select LES #002 then dial 11234567890#. C. Select LES 104# then dial 11234567890+. D. Select LES 001+ then dial 123 4567890#. share/E7/7-88J30000664000175000017500000000066112223317615011335 0ustar jtnjtn88J3 D Which statement best defines the SITOR (NBDP) acronym "ARQ"? A. Error Correction when 2 stations are in direct & phased telephone communications with each other. B. Error correction for one-way TELEX transmissions to a single other station. C. Error correction for one-way TELEX broadcasts of weather or navigation information. D. Error Correction with 2 stations are in direct & phased TELEX communications with each other. share/E7/7-32E40000664000175000017500000000073212223317613011313 0ustar jtnjtn32E4 A The relay of DSC Distress alerts: A. Can quickly overburden the GMDSS systems in the vicinity with improperly transmitted or inappropriately relayed DSC calls. B. Was not originally an intended function of the GMDSS system but now is the preferred method to notify an RCC. C. Remains the preferred method for passing Distress message traffic to an RCC or Coast Station. D. Should always be done immediately to ensure a Coast Station receives the DSC Distress Alert. share/E7/7-22D20000664000175000017500000000014212223317612011301 0ustar jtnjtn22D2 A How many digits are in the MID (Maritime Identification Digits)? A. 3. B. 7. C. 9. D. 10. share/E7/7-31E60000664000175000017500000000054112223317613011312 0ustar jtnjtn31E6 C What action should be taken if a Distress alert is received on the 12 MHz DSC frequency? A. Use DSC to acknowledge/relay the alert using the 12 MHz DSC frequency. B. Do nothing. Ship is too far away to render assistance. C. Set the transceiver to 12290.0 kHz simplex J3E emission. D. Set the transceiver to 12520.0 kHz simplex F1B/J2B emission. share/E7/7-83J10000664000175000017500000000051012223317615011317 0ustar jtnjtn83J1 C Which statement regarding bandwidth and channel spacing is correct: A. Bandwidth values are a function of channel spacing values. B. Channel spacing values are not a function of bandwidth values. C. Channel spacing values are a function of bandwidth values. D. Bandwidth & channel values do not vary with emission mode. share/E7/7-88J10000664000175000017500000000065312223317615011334 0ustar jtnjtn88J1 B Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. ARQ transmissions are acknowledged by the Information Receiving Station only at the end of the message. B. ARQ transmissions are made in data groups consisting of three-character blocks. C. ARQ communications rely upon error correction by time diversity transmission and reception. D. Forward error correction is an interactive mode. share/E7/7-19C10000664000175000017500000000072312223317612011312 0ustar jtnjtn19C1 C A vessel certified for service in Sea Area A3 is required to maintain a watch on: A. VHF Channel 70, MF Frequency 2182.0 kHz, HF on 8414.5 kHz and one other HF DSC frequency. B. MF Frequency 2187.5 kHz, HF on 8414.5 kHz and one other HF DSC frequency, HF on 4125.0 kHz. C. VHF Channel 70, MF Frequency 2187.5 kHz, HF on 8414.5 kHz and one other HF DSC frequency. D. VHF Channel 16, VHF Channel 70, MF Frequency 2187.5 kHz, HF on 8414.5 MHz and HF 4177.5 MHz. share/E7/7-1A60000664000175000017500000000042512223317611011222 0ustar jtnjtn1A6 B GMDSS is required for which of the following? A. All vessels capable of international voyages. B. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. C. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coast radio stations. D. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons. share/E7/7-92J50000664000175000017500000000040312223317615011324 0ustar jtnjtn92J5 D In ARQ, when the information sending station (ISS) receives a signal that the parity check failed what happens? A. The next block will be sent. B. The data link will break. C. The acknowledge light should illuminate. D. The last block will be resent. share/E7/7-43F40000664000175000017500000000062712223317613011321 0ustar jtnjtn43F4 B Which of the following is normally part of 406 MHz satellite EPIRBs? A. A strobe light, automatic float-free bracket, 1-watt 406-MHz alert beacon. B. A 5-watt 406-MHz alert beacon, Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), strobe light. C. Automatic float-free bracket, 5-watt 121.5 MHz homing beacon, strobe light. D. Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), 1-watt 121.5 MHz alerting beacon, strobe light. share/E7/7-26D60000664000175000017500000000035612223317612011320 0ustar jtnjtn26D6 D Properly formatted MF-HF DSC transmissions can request which of the following emissions for follow on communications? A. J3E/H3E telex emissions. B. F1B/J2B voice emissions. C. J3E/F3E voice emissions. D. J3E/H3E voice emissions. share/E7/7-59I20000664000175000017500000000115712223317614011331 0ustar jtnjtn59I2 D What action should always be taken before powering down an Inmarsat-C terminal or leaving one satellite footprint for another? A. An Inmarsat-C system must never be powered down or mandatory MSI messages will be lost. B. Send a message to the NCS advising arrival in port or request the NCS log your terminal in with the new satellite. C. No action is required -- the terminal will automatically log in with the new satellite when the NCS common channel is detected or after power up. D. Log out with the current NCS to inform them you are off the air or to enable a proper log in procedure with the new satellite. share/E7/7-82J50000664000175000017500000000132712223317615011331 0ustar jtnjtn82J5 C What is a potential danger of using the manufacturer's database to set up for operations using MF-HF ITU frequency assignments? A. All manufacturer's frequency databases are required to be standardized & accurate so that there is no danger. B. Using the manufacturer's frequency database to setup the transceiver typically takes longer and is more prone to error than a manual setup. C. Different manufacturers use different database numbering systems to incorporate the ITU assignments into the transceiver and therefore a potential for confusion exists. D. Using the manufacturer's frequency databases ensures that the transceiver is always restricted to the vessel's licensed frequencies so that there is no danger. share/E7/7-78I50000664000175000017500000000044412223317615011334 0ustar jtnjtn78I5 C What maintenance function may the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator license perform, or supervise the performance of, on an Inmarsat-C SES? A. Painting the antenna dome. B. Adjust the station's EIRP. C. Adjust any front panel controls. D. Adjust a reference oscillator or synthesizer. share/E7/7-32E10000664000175000017500000000076112223317613011312 0ustar jtnjtn32E1 B Your ship received a Distress relay from a coast station on DSC freq. 2187.5 kHz. What action should the watch officer take? A. Retransmit the DSC call on 2187.5 kHz to other vessels in the vicinity to assist in SAR operations. B. Monitor 2182.0 kHz to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. C. Transmit a voice "Mayday Relay" call on 2187.5 kHz to other vessels in the vicinity. D. Transmit a voice "Mayday Relay" call on 2182.0 kHz to other vessels in the vicinity. share/E7/7-18C60000664000175000017500000000046012223317612011314 0ustar jtnjtn18C6 D The best way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal is: A. Send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation. B. Send a message to another ship terminal. C. If the "Send" light flashes, proper operation has been confirmed. D. Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal. share/E7/7-1A10000664000175000017500000000103512223317611011213 0ustar jtnjtn1A1 A What is the fundamental concept of the GMDSS? A. GMDSS utilizes automated systems and satellite technology to improve emergency communications for the world's shipping industry. B. It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques. C. It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost commercial communications. D. It is intended to provide compulsory vessels with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels. share/E7/7-62I50000664000175000017500000000035212223317614011322 0ustar jtnjtn62I5 C What is meant by the characters GA+ on an Inmarsat terminal? A. Go ahead for store & forward telex operations. B. The instruction to "give address". C. Go ahead for live telex operations. D. General Address (to all stations). share/E7/7-70I20000664000175000017500000000036612223317614011323 0ustar jtnjtn70I2 A Which number, if typed at an Inmarsat-B SES by a vessel in the Western Atlantic, would result in placing an automatic TELEX call to a subscriber number of 123456? A. 00230123456+. B. 00230123456#. C. 0012131234567#. D. 00 1 213 1234567+. share/E7/7-15C10000664000175000017500000000054212223317612011305 0ustar jtnjtn15C1 C Which of the following maintenance functions is not the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Visual inspection of equipment, including the antenna and associated components. B. Perform on-the-air verification checks. C. Aligning the power output stage for maximum power. D. Perform scheduled testing of the battery's charged condition. share/E7/7-72I50000664000175000017500000000044212223317615011324 0ustar jtnjtn72I5 D If your vessel is in the IOR, which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 77829 in the Philippines (TELEX country code 758)? A. 75877829+. B. 87375877829. C. 58375877829. D. 75877829. share/E7/7-38E10000664000175000017500000000100012223317613011303 0ustar jtnjtn38E1 D Which of the following steps should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a Distress situation? A. Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable Inmarsat unit. B. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location and situation. C. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate properly. D. Secure the EPIRB to the survival craft and mount the SART in a position to maximize its elevation. share/E7/7-37E20000664000175000017500000000024412223317613011314 0ustar jtnjtn37E2 B Which of the following frequencies is designated for On-scene Distress and Safety communications? A. 4209.5 kHz. B. 2174.5 kHz. C. 518.0 kHz. D. 490.0 kHz. share/E7/7-40F40000664000175000017500000000074512223317613011317 0ustar jtnjtn40F4 A What signal is detected as originating from an AIS SART and how is the signal displayed? A. An AIS SART signal is shown on any AIS receiver as a special MMSI-like coded symbol. B. The 3-cm radar reflections are converted to AIS signals and displayed on ECDIS/ARPA screens. C. An AIS SART transmits on AIS frequencies and the signals are converted to 3-cm radar targets for display on 3-cm radars. D. An AIS SART transmits on 9 GHz so that a 3-cm radar can display the signals. share/E7/7-75I30000664000175000017500000000064012223317615011325 0ustar jtnjtn75I3 A How is an Inmarsat Distress priority message ordinarily initiated on board the vessel? A. By pressing one or more dedicated "Distress key" controls on the equipment. B. By dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit. C. By contacting the LES operator and announcing a Distress condition is in progress. D. By contacting the LES operator using the radiotelephone Distress procedure "Mayday"... etc. share/E7/7-43F10000664000175000017500000000062012223317613011307 0ustar jtnjtn43F1 C What features may be found on GMDSS satellite EPIRB units? A. Strobe light, Distress homing transmission on 406 MHz, float-free release bracket. B. Emergency transmission on 406 MHz, hydrostatic release, AIS homing frequency. C. Float-free release bracket, strobe light & Distress alert transmission on 406 MHz. D. Hydrostatic release, Distress alert transmission on 121.5 MHz, strobe light. share/E7/7-85J40000664000175000017500000000126512223317615011334 0ustar jtnjtn85J4 D What is the correct procedure for calling a coast radio station using HF radiotelephone? A. On a properly selected ITU channel, give the name of the coast radio station being called three times, and the words "this is" followed by the name of the ship initiating the call three times, and ending with "over". B. Contact the nearest U.S.C.G. station to add the desired ship's call sign to the station's traffic list. C. Request the VTS operator place the call on channel 22A. D. On a correct ITU channel, give the call sign of the coast radio station three times using phonetics, the words "this is", followed by the ship's call sign three times using phonetics and ending with "over". share/E7/7-37E40000664000175000017500000000016012223317613011313 0ustar jtnjtn37E4 D How many MF frequencies are available for DSC Distress related calls? A. Five. B. Four. C. Two. D. One. share/E7/7-19C30000664000175000017500000000044612223317612011316 0ustar jtnjtn19C3 A What are the mandatory DSC watchkeeping bands/channels? A. 8 MHz HF DSC, 1 other HF DSC, 2 MHz MF DSC and VHF Ch-70. B. 2 MHz MF DSC, 8 MHz DSC, VHF Ch-16 and 1 other HF DSC. C. VHF Ch-70, 2 MHz MF DSC, 6 MHz DSC and 1 other HF DSC. D. VHF Ch-70, 2 MHZ MF DSC, 4 MHZ DSC and 8 MHz DSC. share/E7/7-90J40000664000175000017500000000137112223317615011326 0ustar jtnjtn90J4 C For ARQ communications with a Public Correspondence Coast Station, which sequence of events best describes reaching the point in time where the text of TELEX communications should be sent. A. Transceiver setup, SELCAL selection, Initiate Call, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), OPR+, operator entry of the appropriate automatic TELEX code. B. Transceiver setup, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), OPR+, operator entry of the appropriate automatic TELEX code. C. Transceiver setup, SELCAL selection, Initiate Call, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), GA+?, enter DIRTLX xy+, MOM, MSG+? and exchange of terminal answerbacks. D. Transceiver setup, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), GA+? and then send message text. share/E7/7-76I30000664000175000017500000000127312223317615011331 0ustar jtnjtn76I3 D What actions should be taken to transmit a detailed satellite Distress message to a RCC handling your vessel's initial "hot-key" Distress Alert? A. Compose a detailed Distress message, attach it to the Distress Alert Setup menu and re-transmit the "hot-key" Distress Alert. B. Call up and edit a pre-saved detailed Distress message, select the closest LES and press the "hot-key." C. Compose a detailed Distress message, use the Transmit or SEND/REC menu and send it to both the RCC and to your company emergency contact number. D. Call up and edit a pre-saved detailed Distress message, use the Transmit or SEND/REC menu, select Distress priority and choose the best LES for the situation. share/E7/7-22D40000664000175000017500000000020312223317612011301 0ustar jtnjtn22D4 C Which of the following numbers indicates a U.S. flag ship station? A. 036627934. B. 243537672. C. 338426791. D. 003382315. share/E7/7-61I10000664000175000017500000000104012223317614011310 0ustar jtnjtn61I1 A Which action must be taken to ensure that incoming message traffic of all priority levels will be received through Inmarsat-C? A. The GMDSS Radio Operator must log-in to the desired satellite (if the unit did not automatically do so). B. No additional action is necessary after turning on the receiver and aiming the antenna at the desired satellite. C. The system needs only to be commissioned and turned on. D. The GMDSS Radio Operator must log-in to the desired satellite and receive the message reference number (MRN) from the LES. share/E7/7-53H30000664000175000017500000000053412223317614011321 0ustar jtnjtn53H3 C How are NAVTEX broadcasts transmitted? A. NAVTEX is transmitted by commercial coast radio stations following their traffic lists. B. NAVTEX is transmitted only when an Urgency or Distress broadcast is warranted. C. Using FEC techniques. D. No more often than every two hours and should immediately follow the radiotelephone silent periods. share/E7/7-29E50000664000175000017500000000073412223317613011324 0ustar jtnjtn29E5 A For a MF/HF DSC Distress call which statement is false? A. It always requests J3E Voice follow-on communications so other vessels can hear the Mayday. B. It will send the minimal necessary information using the "Distress Button" or "Distress Hot Key". C. It will send a more detailed Distress format if time permits and operator data entries are correctly performed. D. It does not contain all the information normally of interest in on-scene Distress communications. share/E7/7-71I60000664000175000017500000000057712223317614011334 0ustar jtnjtn71I6 C Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to two vessels in the POR - the first Inmarsat-C and the second Inmarsat-B? A. 583452998777 first and 583323500120 second. B. 582450302113 first and 582761579051 second. C. 582452998777 first and 582323500120 second. D. 582600267098 first and 582450302113 second. share/E7/7-3A30000664000175000017500000000045612223317611011225 0ustar jtnjtn3A3 A If a vessel is engaged in local trade and at no point in its voyage travels outside the range of a VHF shore station with continuous DSC alerting then the vessel is operating in what area? A. Sea area A1. B. Coastal and international zones. C. Inland and coastal waters. D. Sea areas A1 and A2. share/E7/7-82J30000664000175000017500000000042712223317615011327 0ustar jtnjtn82J3 B What is meant by the term duplex "ITU channel"? A. This refers to a vessel's SELCAL number. B. A standardized series of frequency pairings for common use. C. This refers to VHF channels 1-28 and 60-88. D. A series of frequency pairings used for ship-ship communications. share/E7/7-20C30000664000175000017500000000025012223317612011277 0ustar jtnjtn20C3 D Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship? A. Captain's office. B. Sea cabin. C. Anywhere on board the vessel. D. At the GMDSS operating position. share/E7/7-33E60000664000175000017500000000073412223317613011320 0ustar jtnjtn33E6 B What action should you take after sending a false or accidental Distress alert on Inmarsat-C? A. Press the "Distress Hot Keys" then press the "cancel" key. B. Select "Transmit" or "SEND/REC" menu and send a cancellation message via the LES used for the Distress alert. C. Do nothing until the RCC contacts your vessel to determine if the Distress alert was genuine. D. Select the cancel false Distress alert option in the Distress Setup Menu and re-transmit the call. share/E7/7-70I30000664000175000017500000000030012223317614011310 0ustar jtnjtn70I3 B Which of the following numbers is appropriate for an Inmarsat-B terminal placing a TELEX call via Southbury to another ship logged-in to the AOR-E? A. 001+. B. 001+. C. 002+. D. 013+. share/E7/7-5A50000664000175000017500000000054712223317611011232 0ustar jtnjtn5A5 A If operating within Ocean Area A1, and outside of NAVTEX coverage, a GMDSS-equipped vessel must carry: A. Equipment capable of reception of Maritime Safety Information by the Inmarsat enhanced group call system, or HF SITOR (NBDP). B. A GPS receiver. C. Equipment capable of maintaining a continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz. D. An Inmarsat-B terminal. share/E7/7-37E60000664000175000017500000000017312223317613011321 0ustar jtnjtn37E6 B How many frequencies are available under GMDSS for DSC Distress-related calls? A. Six. B. Seven. C. Four. D. Five. share/E7/7-89J30000664000175000017500000000115512223317615011335 0ustar jtnjtn89J3 C Which of the following methods will give a GMDSS Radio Operator the best indication of whether ARQ communication can be established with a coast radio station? A. Referring to propagation charts will tell the Operator when the eruption of communication shattering solar flares will occur. B. Selecting a frequency in the MF band averts interference from severe static discharges. C. Monitor the coast radio station's "free signals" and call on the frequency on which the loudest and most consistent signals are heard. D. Re-position the antenna toward the coast radio station and press the "call request" button. share/E7/7-42F30000664000175000017500000000067412223317613011321 0ustar jtnjtn42F3 B Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is false? A. 406 MHz EPIRBs are units that are used as alerting devices. B. Doppler frequency measurements provide more precise locations than GPIRB signals. C. The Doppler frequency measurement concept is used to determine the EPIRB's location. D. Satellites in a low-earth polar orbit detect EPIRB beacons on 406 MHz and relay the information to a Local User Terminal (LUT). share/E7/7-55H10000664000175000017500000000016212223317614011316 0ustar jtnjtn55H1 C SafetyNETTM promulgates what type of information? A. Traffic Lists. B. News advisories. C. MSI. D. MARAD. share/E7/7-96J30000664000175000017500000000057612223317616011342 0ustar jtnjtn96J3 D What would be the most appropriate HF bands for communicating from San Francisco to Taiwan or the Philippines? A. 12 MHz during daylight at each end and 2 MHz when dark at each end. B. 8 MHz during daylight hours and 16 MHz during darkness. C. 6 MHz during daylight hours and 8 MHz during darkness. D. 16 or 22 MHz when daylight at each end and 8 MHz when dark at each end. share/E7/7-65I10000664000175000017500000000023012223317614011314 0ustar jtnjtn65I1 A Which mode of communications is NOT possible through an Inmarsat-C SES? A. Shore-to-ship Facsimile. B. Data. C. TELEX. D. Emergency Activation. share/E7/7-9B50000664000175000017500000000060012223317612011226 0ustar jtnjtn9B5 A Which statement best describes frequency modulation? A. The information signal changes the radio carrier frequency but the amplitude remains constant. B. Both the amplitude and frequency are changed by the modulating signal. C. Frequency modulation is subject to interference by atmospheric noise. D. High level mixing of the final amplifier signal and the information signal. share/E7/7-75I10000664000175000017500000000106412223317615011324 0ustar jtnjtn75I1 C Which statement is false regarding an Inmarsat Distress request? A. The NCS in each ocean region automatically monitors the processing of such calls by other LESs in that region and processes calls if any anomaly exists in the system. B. If all satellite channels are busy then one of them will be preempted by a Distress request. C. Any Distress request is automatically switched to an Inmarsat Distress working frequency. D. Any request message with Distress priority is automatically recognized by the LES and a satellite channel is instantly assigned. share/E7/7-26D20000664000175000017500000000045212223317612011311 0ustar jtnjtn26D2 A MF-HF DSC alerts are transmitted using what emission type? A. J2B to ensure compatibility with DSC receivers. B. J3E to ensure correct voice follow-on frequencies are used. C. F1B to ensure correct SITOR (NBDP) follow-on frequencies are used. D. A3E to achieve the best transmission range. share/E7/7-99J50000664000175000017500000000054112223317616011337 0ustar jtnjtn99J5 B What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of lead acid batteries? A. Higher temperature results in a higher specific gravity reading. B. Higher temperature results in a lower specific gravity reading. C. Temperature has no effect on the specific gravity reading. D. Lower temperature results in a lower specific gravity reading. share/E7/7-25D10000664000175000017500000000027612223317612011313 0ustar jtnjtn25D1 A You receive a TELEX with the sender's I.D. of 433863491. What type of terminal sent this message to your vessel? A. Inmarsat-C. B. Land TELEX terminal. C. Inmarsat-B. D. Inmarsat-M. share/E7/7-47F50000664000175000017500000000033112223317613011316 0ustar jtnjtn47F5 B What information is transmitted by a 406 MHz EPIRB alert? A. Vessel position and nature of Distress. B. A unique Hexadecimal I.D. number. C. Vessel name and identification. D. Vessel MMSI number and position. share/E7/7-13C50000664000175000017500000000124212223317612011305 0ustar jtnjtn13C5 A During an annual GMDSS station inspection: A. All required documents and publications might have to be produced and GMDSS operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies. B. Licensed GMDSS operators may not be required to demonstrate equipment competencies but all required equipment must be fully operational. C. All required equipment must be fully operational and any required publications that are not current must be on order. D. GMDSS operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies and any of required equipment that is not fully operational can be repaired at the next port of call as long as there is functional duplication. share/E7/7-57H10000664000175000017500000000021612223317614011320 0ustar jtnjtn57H1 A Which HF SITOR (NBDP) mode would be selected to receive MSI broadcasts from high seas shore stations? A. FEC. B. AM. C. RTTY. D. ARQ. share/E7/7-17C50000664000175000017500000000077212223317612011320 0ustar jtnjtn17C5 A What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? A. Compulsory ships must have emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications. B. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries). C. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications. D. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a Distress alert. share/E7/7-50G60000664000175000017500000000054512223317614011322 0ustar jtnjtn50G6 D Proper and legal VHF operations require all of these except? A. The channel must be designated as valid for the nature or type of communications desired. B. Simplex, duplex and alpha channel modes must be correctly selected. C. The power level must be appropriately chosen by the operator. D. The correct bandwidth must be selected by the operator. share/E7/7-73I40000664000175000017500000000042512223317615011325 0ustar jtnjtn73I4 D Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine number 1424-8821-902 in the United Kingdom (voice country code 44)? A. 44 1424-8821-902. B. 4414248821902#. C. 44+ 14248821902+. D. 4414248821902. share/E7/7-66I30000664000175000017500000000025612223317614011327 0ustar jtnjtn66I3 B Which of the following modes of communications are available when using Inmarsat-C? A. Fax reception. B. TELEX and e-mail. C. 14400 BPS Data. D. Voice transmissions. share/E7/7-91J60000664000175000017500000000020512223317615011324 0ustar jtnjtn91J6 C All country codes which are transmitted by MF/HF SITOR (NBDP) are preceded by which character(s)? A. 00. B. +. C. 0. D. DIR. share/E7/7-47F10000664000175000017500000000062012223317613011313 0ustar jtnjtn47F1 C Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a Distress situation when embarking in survival craft? A. EPIRB and SART switched on manually prior to embarking; remain aboard vessel in Distress. B. Notify RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF DSC in portable equipment. C. Switch on EPIRB and SART immediately and leave on. D. Communicate via Inmarsat-C from the survival craft. share/E7/7-100J60000664000175000017500000000065012223317616011400 0ustar jtnjtn100J6 A Your MF-HF whip antenna breaks off and is carried away in a storm. What would you do to regain operation on MF-HF frequencies? A. Rig a wire antenna approximately 35-40 ft long per the equipment instruction manual. B. Rig a wire antenna 10-15 ft long from the antenna tuner to the highest vertical support. C. Rig a horizontal, center-fed dipole antenna 40 ft long. D. Rig a long wire antenna at least 200 ft long. share/E7/7-87J50000664000175000017500000000025712223317615011337 0ustar jtnjtn87J5 B The acronym SITOR (NBDP) stands for: A. Simplified Telephony Over Radio. B. Simplex TELEX Over Radio. C. Simplified TELEX Over Radio. D. Simplex Telephony Over Radio. share/E7/7-54H20000664000175000017500000000117512223317614011323 0ustar jtnjtn54H2 A What action should a GMDSS Radio Operator take when SafetyNET TM Distress or Urgency messages are received by the vessel's EGC receiver? A. Aural and/or visual alarms are activated and require manual deactivation. B. No immediate action is required, as an audible tone will be generated at the beginning and end of the transmission and a paper printout of the message will be generated. C. No immediate action is required by the operator, since the transmission will be automatically acknowledged by the receiving vessel. D. A periodic alarm tone will be heard until the radio operator prints the message from the unit's memory. share/E7/7-31E20000664000175000017500000000022612223317613011306 0ustar jtnjtn31E2 D What is meant by the acronym "EOS" in a DSC message? A. Error Of Sequence. B. End Of Signals. C. Equal Operating Signals. D. End Of Sequence. share/E7/7-3A10000664000175000017500000000040612223317611011216 0ustar jtnjtn3A1 C Which of the following regions lie outside Sea Areas A1, A2, and A3? A. Sea Areas only apply to Inmarsat footprint areas. B. Sea Area A3-I Inmarsat coverage and Sea Area A3-S HF SITOR (NBDP) coverage. C. Sea Area A4. D. There are no additional Sea Areas. share/E7/7-98J60000664000175000017500000000051012223317616011333 0ustar jtnjtn98J6 D An incoming DSC Distress alert on 8414.5 kHz will have what result? A. The DSC controller will emit both an audible and visual alarm. B. The particulars of the alert may be printed out. C. The Distress information contained in the alert will be sent to the data directory. D. All of these answers would typically occur. share/E7/7-48F30000664000175000017500000000071312223317613011321 0ustar jtnjtn48F3 D Which GMDSS equipment is best suited to simultaneous long-range communications with an RCC/coast station and OSC vessels or SAR aircraft? A. MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) transmitters using telex follow on frequencies. B. Inmarsat Signals routed via the RCC to the SAR vessels & aircraft under their control. C. VHF transmitters to reach SAR aircraft and OSC vessels as well as the RCC/coast station. D. MF-HF SSB transmitters using voice follow-on frequencies. share/E7/7-33E50000664000175000017500000000055212223317613011315 0ustar jtnjtn33E5 A What action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on 12577.0 kHz? A. Make an "ALL STATIONS" call on the associated 12 MHz J3E frequency canceling the alert. B. No action is necessary. C. Make an "ALL STATIONS" call on all 5 H.F. TELEX frequencies canceling the alert. D. Send a message to the nearest RCC via Inmarsat canceling the alert. share/E7/7-50G30000664000175000017500000000040612223317614011313 0ustar jtnjtn50G3 B While conducting routine communications using the wheelhouse VHF with a station 1 mile distant, your recommended power setting would be: A. 25 watts after dark. B. 1 watt, day or night. C. 25 watts during a clear sunny day. D. 1 watt using DSC at night. share/E7/7-84J60000664000175000017500000000037212223317615011333 0ustar jtnjtn84J6 A The proper sequence of emissions corresponding to the sequence SSB-Voice without carrier, USB-Voice with carrier, FM-Voice and SITOR (NBDP) TELEX is: A. J3E, H3E, F3E, F1B. B. H3E, J3E, F3E, F1B. C. J3E, H3E, F1B, F3E. D. H3E, J3E, F1B, F3E. share/E7/7-22D60000664000175000017500000000017412223317612011312 0ustar jtnjtn22D6 D Which of the following numbers indicates a ship station MMSI? A. 003372694. B. 030356328. C. 3384672. D. 623944326. share/E7/7-44F50000664000175000017500000000021212223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn44F5 D What is an example of a locating signal? A. SSB phone traffic. B. Ship to shore transmissions. C. Loran C. D. A float-free EPIRB. share/E7/7-67I40000664000175000017500000000070512223317614011330 0ustar jtnjtn67I4 B When Inmarsat-B and Inmarsat-C terminals are compared: A. Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller, with active parabolic antennas but no rewind capability. B. Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller, with passive non-parabolic antennas but no rewind capability. C. Inmarsat-B antennas are larger, with passive non-parabolic antennas that require rewind capability. D. Inmarsat-B antennas are larger, with stationary parabolic antennas but no rewind capability. share/E7/7-31E40000664000175000017500000000024512223317613011311 0ustar jtnjtn31E4 B What is meant by the acronym "ECC" in a DSC message? A. Every Cipher Counted. B. Error Check Character. C. Error Cannot Confirm. D. Even Characters Counted. share/E7/7-34E20000664000175000017500000000117612223317613011316 0ustar jtnjtn34E2 A When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposed? A. Routine communications can resume after the Rescue Coordination Center transmits a message on the frequency or channel being used for emergency communications stating that such traffic has concluded. B. After determining that the frequency or channel appears to be no longer in use. C. After determining that geographic distance from the Distress situation will prohibit any other signal from interfering with emergency communications. D. If, in the master's opinion, communications on that frequency will interfere with emergency communications. share/E7/7-99J10000664000175000017500000000017712223317616011340 0ustar jtnjtn99J1 C What is the normal voltage of a single lead acid battery cell? A. 1.5 volts. B. 2.5 volts. C. 2.1 volts. D. 1.2 volts. share/E7/7-71I10000664000175000017500000000060212223317614011314 0ustar jtnjtn71I1 C From an Inmarsat-C terminal, which of the following are correctly formatted address for sending TELEX messages to two vessels in the AOR-W? First to an Inmarsat-B and second to an Inmarsat-C. A. 870366719020 first and 870436671929 second. B. 584436671929 first and 584366719020 second. C. 584366719020 first and 584436671929 second. D. 58136671920 first and 58136671929 second. share/E7/7-90J60000664000175000017500000000055712223317615011335 0ustar jtnjtn90J6 D During ARQ communications, which of these is least likely to cause a coast station to break the phased radio connection: A. If the error percentage of repeat requests becomes too high. B. If the operator enters "BRK+". C. If the automatic exchange of answerbacks is interrupted by keyboard entries. D. If the operator enters "NNNN" at the end of the message. share/E7/7-59I50000664000175000017500000000066512223317614011337 0ustar jtnjtn59I5 B On an Inmarsat-C system, what is the importance of a successful "SYNC" indication after power up? A. The system is not yet locked on to the NCS signal until a log-in command is performed. B. Sufficient signal strength on the NCS common channel is being received. C. There is company telex traffic being received on the NCS common channel. D. The NCS has confirmed log-in status is on so routine traffic can be sent and received. share/E7/7-96J10000664000175000017500000000055512223317616011335 0ustar jtnjtn96J1 B The "short rules" of propagation necessary to select the appropriate frequency band are: A. Shorter distance = Higher Frequency, Daytime = Higher Frequency. B. Shorter distance = Lower Frequency, Daytime = Higher Frequency. C. Shorter distance = Higher Frequency, Daytime = Lower Frequency. D. Shorter distance = Lower Frequency, Daytime = Lower Frequency. share/E7/7-90J50000664000175000017500000000064512223317615011332 0ustar jtnjtn90J5 C During ARQ communications, which of these is least likely to cause a coast station to immediately break the phased radio connection: A. If the automatic exchange of answerbacks is interrupted by keyboard entries. B. If the error percentage of repeat requests becomes too high. C. If the operator enters "KKKK" at the end of the message. D. If the BRK+? Command is transmitted after time and charges are received. share/E7/7-44F60000664000175000017500000000027712223317613011325 0ustar jtnjtn44F6 A Which device provides the best method to locate a ship in Distress or survival craft in the GMDSS? A. Satellite EPIRBs. B. Radio Direction Finder. C. MF/HF DSC. D. VHF homing device. share/E7/7-81J50000664000175000017500000000057212223317615011331 0ustar jtnjtn81J5 A An ITU simplex channel frequency assignment is defined as: A. Transmit and receive frequencies must be identical. B. Transmit and receive frequencies must be different. C. Transmit and receive frequencies may be different, depending on whether communications are ship-shore or ship to ship. D. Transmit and receive frequencies are different regardless of emission mode. share/E7/7-40F20000664000175000017500000000153512223317613011313 0ustar jtnjtn40F2 C What radar display changes indicate the correct approach to a SART and what care should be taken in a SAR situation? A. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become increasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should increase speed to reach Distress more quickly. B. A line of dots on a radar screen rotates to indicate the SART's position along its line of bearing; rescuing vessels should steer for the center of the line of dots. C. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become increasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should reduce speed as the arcs get greater in degree. D. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become decreasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should reduce speed as the arcs lessen in degree. share/E7/7-49G10000664000175000017500000000055212223317613011322 0ustar jtnjtn49G1 A Which of the following control selections may result in limited receiving range? A. Setting the squelch control to its maximum level. B. Setting the squelch control to its minimum level. C. The power switch is set to the "high" output position, resulting in receiver overloading. D. Setting the channel selection switch midway between channels 6 and 16. share/E7/7-10B10000664000175000017500000000054112223317612011276 0ustar jtnjtn10B1 D Which of the following statements describes the carrier? A. The carrier consists of at least 3 separate but closely spaced frequencies. B. The carrier is used to modulate the information signal. C. There are always sidebands on either side of the carrier. D. The carrier is a Radio Frequency (RF) signal that is modulated to carry intelligence. share/E7/7-13C60000664000175000017500000000055012223317612011307 0ustar jtnjtn13C6 B Which situation is least likely to result in an inspection of the radio installation by foreign governments or administrations? A. When the ship's station license cannot be produced without delay. B. When a ship visits a port for the first time. C. When operational irregularities are observed. D. When compulsory equipment is found to be inoperative. share/E7/7-83J60000664000175000017500000000021212223317615011323 0ustar jtnjtn83J6 C Communications with an emission of J3E would typically have a channel spacing of: A. 0.5 kHz. B. 0.3 kHz. C. 3.0 kHz. D. 2.8 kHz. share/E7/7-57H40000664000175000017500000000037212223317614011326 0ustar jtnjtn57H4 D Frequencies for receiving HF MSI (Maritime Safety Information) are: A. The same as used for NAVTEX. B. The same as used for contact a Coast Radio Station using FEC. C. Specified HF voice frequencies. D. Specified HF SITOR (NBDP) frequencies. share/E7/7-5A60000664000175000017500000000122512223317611011225 0ustar jtnjtn5A6 B What is the equipment carriage requirement for survival craft under GMDSS? A. At least three SCT units and two SARTs on every cargo ship between 300-500 gross tons and the same on all passenger ships regardless of tonnage. B. At least three SCT units and two SARTs on every passenger ship and cargo ships of 500 gross tons and upwards. C. At least two radar transponders must be carried on every cargo ship of 300-500 gross tons and two radar transponders (one for each side) of every passenger ship regardless of tonnage. D. All cargo vessels above 300 gross tons and every passenger ship regardless of tonnage must carry three SCT units and two SARTs. share/E7/7-29E40000664000175000017500000000026212223317613011317 0ustar jtnjtn29E4 D Repetition of a DSC Distress call is normally automatic if not acknowledged after a delay of: A. 2 - 5 minutes. B. 10-15 minutes. C. 1 - 2 minutes. D. 3.5 - 4.5 minutes. share/E7/7-14C30000664000175000017500000000044012223317612011303 0ustar jtnjtn14C3 B What publications should the GMDSS Radio Operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in Distress situations under GMDSS? A. The manufacturer's technical manuals. B. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. C. The manufacturer's operator manuals. D. 47 CFR Part 90 Subpart V. share/README0000644000175000017500000000237212223344612011213 0ustar jtnjtnfccexam is the top-level script. It chooses a question and uses ask.awk to present each question and interpret the response. The question pools were downloaded from http://wireless.fcc.gov/commoperators/index.htm?job=question_pools converted to plain text using LibreOffice and then split apart into a separate file for each question using the split.awk script. "Element 9.pdf" was converted using pdftotext. The question pools are stored in the E* directories. The question files will need to be updated when the pools expire or are modified. The E3png and E8png directories contain the diagrams for elements 3 and 8. They were extracted from the .doc files using LibreOffice. The E9png directory contains the diagrams for element 9, and was extracted from "Element 9.pdf" using pdfimages, manually renamed to agree with the figure names in element 9, and then converted to png using pnmtopng. Several manual edits were required to correct minor typographical and formatting errors. Some of the answers/distractors in the question pools appear to contain uncorrected typographical errors. The questions for elements 7 & 7R have "7-" & "7R-" prepended, so that the questions file prefix matches the element. # Copyright (C) 2012-2013 John Nogatch share/E3/0000775000175000017500000000000011731202664010603 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E3/3-77L10000664000175000017500000000050111724335201011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-77L1 B A(n) ____ and ____ can be combined to measure the characteristics of transmission lines. Such an arrangement is known as a time-domain reflectometer (TDR). A. Frequency spectrum analyzer, RF generator. B. Oscilloscope, pulse generator. C. AC millivolt meter, AF generator. D. Frequency counter, linear detector. share/E3/3-97P30000664000175000017500000000051011724335203011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-97P3 A What statement best describes the INMARSAT-B services? A. Voice at 16 kbps, Fax at 14.4 kbps and high-speed Data at 64/54. B. Store and forward high speed data at 36/48 kbps. C. Voice at 3 kHz, Fax at 9.6 kbps and Data at 4.8 kbps. D. Service is available only in areas served by highly directional spot beam antennas. share/E3/3-8A10000664000175000017500000000034311724335172011222 0ustar jtnjtn3-8A1 C What is the term used to identify an AC voltage that would cause the same heating in a resistor as a corresponding value of DC voltage? A. Cosine voltage. B. Power factor. C. Root mean square (RMS). D. Average voltage. share/E3/3-73K20000664000175000017500000000017211724335200011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-73K2 A Aviation services use predominantly ____ microphones. A. Dynamic B. Carbon C. Condenser D. Piezoelectric crystal share/E3/3-44F30000664000175000017500000000015111724335176011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-44F3 A In what radio stage is the image frequency normally rejected? A. RF. B. IF. C. LO. D. Detector. share/E3/3-90O40000664000175000017500000000014111724335202011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-90O4 C Shipboard RADAR is most commonly operated in what band? A. VHF. B. UHF. C. SHF. D. EHF. share/E3/3-75L10000664000175000017500000000077011724335201011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-75L1 D How is a frequency counter used? A. To provide reference points on an analog receiver dial thereby aiding in the alignment of the receiver. B. To heterodyne the frequency being measured with a known variable frequency oscillator until zero beat is achieved, thereby indicating the unknown frequency. C. To measure the deviation in an FM transmitter in order to determine the percentage of modulation. D. To measure the time between events, or the frequency, which is the reciprocal of the time. share/E3/3-41F20000664000175000017500000000053211724335175011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-41F2 B What is the definition of the term "receiver desensitizing"? A. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too low. B. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on a nearby frequency. C. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too high. D. A reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain control is turned down. share/E3/3-87N10000664000175000017500000000045511724335202011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-87N1 B What causes the SART to begin a transmission? A. When activated manually, it begins radiating immediately. B. After being activated the SART responds to RADAR interrogation. C. It is either manually or water activated before radiating. D. It begins radiating only when keyed by the operator. share/E3/3-100Q60000664000175000017500000000043411724335203011374 0ustar jtnjtn3-100Q6 A What is a GFI electrical socket used for? A. To prevent electrical shock by sensing ground path current and shutting the circuit down. B. As a gold plated socket. C. To prevent children from sticking objects in the socket. D. To increase the current capacity of the socket. share/E3/3-41F50000664000175000017500000000023211724335175011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-41F5 B Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its noise figure? A. The audio stage. B. The RF stage. C. The IF strip. D. The local oscillator. share/E3/3-33E10000664000175000017500000000031011724335175011301 0ustar jtnjtn3-33E1 C What is the voltage range considered to be valid logic low input in a TTL device operating at 5 volts? A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts. B. -2.0 to -5.5 volts. C. Zero to 0.8 volts. D. 5.2 to 34.8 volts. share/E3/3-86N10000664000175000017500000000043011724335202011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-86N1 B What is a common occurrence when voice-testing an SSB aboard a boat? A. Ammeter fluctuates down with each spoken word. B. Voltage panel indicator lamps may glow with each syllable. C. Automatic tuner cycles on each syllable. D. Minimal voltage drop seen at power source. share/E3/3-81L10000664000175000017500000000050611724335201011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-81L1 A On a 150 watt marine SSB HF transceiver, what would be indicated by a steady output of 75 watts when keying the transmitter on? A. There is probably a defect in the system causing the carrier to be transmitted. B. One of the sidebands is missing. C. Both sidebands are being transmitting. D. The operation is normal. share/E3/3-62I40000664000175000017500000000030011724335177011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-62I4 D What is the line current of a 7 horsepower motor operating on 120 volts at full load, a power factor of 0.8, and 95% efficient? A. 4.72 amps. B. 13.03 amps. C. 56 amps. D. 57.2 amps. share/E3/3-3A40000664000175000017500000000061511724335172011222 0ustar jtnjtn3-3A4 A Skin effect is the phenomenon where: A. RF current flows in a thin layer of the conductor, closer to the surface, as frequency increases. B. RF current flows in a thin layer of the conductor, closer to the surface, as frequency decreases. C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance. D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance. share/E3/3-46F30000664000175000017500000000027711724335176011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-46F3 D What is the primary purpose of the first IF amplifier stage in a receiver? A. Noise figure performance. B. Tune out cross-modulation distortion. C. Dynamic response. D. Selectivity. share/E3/3-45F60000664000175000017500000000052511724335176011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-45F6 A How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal? A. Slightly greater than the received-signal bandwidth. B. Approximately half the received-signal bandwidth. C. Approximately two times the received-signal bandwidth. D. Approximately four times the received-signal bandwidth. share/E3/3-76L30000664000175000017500000000023511724335201011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-76L3 D What stage determines the maximum frequency response of an oscilloscope? A. Time base. B. Horizontal sweep. C. Power supply. D. Vertical amplifier. share/E3/3-93O10000664000175000017500000000032011724335202011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-93O1 C How does the gain of a parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled? A. Gain does not change. B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707. C. Gain increases 6 dB. D. Gain increases 3 dB. share/E3/3-67J10000664000175000017500000000035411724335200011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-67J1 B What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 158 watts. B. 39.7 watts. C. 251 watts. D. 69.9 watts. share/E3/3-88N40000664000175000017500000000041511724335202011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-88N4 A Which of the following statements about NAVTEX is true? A. Receives MSI broadcasts using SITOR-B or FEC mode. B. The ship station transmits on 518 kHz. C. The ship receives MSI broadcasts using SITOR-A or ARQ mode. D. NAVTEX is received on 2182 kHz using SSB. share/E3/3-30D20000664000175000017500000000047711724335174011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-30D2 C What are the characteristics of an inverting operational amplifier (op-amp) circuit? A. It has input and output signals in phase. B. Input and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase. C. It has input and output signals 180 degrees out of phase. D. Input impedance is low while the output impedance is high. share/E3/3-26C50000664000175000017500000000052411724335174011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-26C5 C For current to flow in an NPN silicon transistor's emitter-collector junction, the base must be: A. At least 0.4 volts positive with respect to the emitter. B. At a negative voltage with respect to the emitter. C. At least 0.7 volts positive with respect to the emitter. D. At least 0.7 volts negative with respect to the emitter. share/E3/3-19C60000664000175000017500000000033211724335173011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-19C6 C What is the description of an optocoupler? A. A resistor and a capacitor. B. Two light sources modulated onto a mirrored surface. C. An LED and a photosensitive device. D. An amplitude modulated beam encoder. share/E3/3-87N40000664000175000017500000000036111724335202011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-87N4 D Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? A. Radio Direction Finder (RDF). B. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz. C. Survival Craft Transceiver. D. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz. share/E3/3-38E20000664000175000017500000000031511724335175011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-38E2 B What is the name of the semiconductor IC that has a fixed pattern of digital data stored in its memory matrix? A. RAM " Random-Access Memory. B. ROM " Read-Only Memory. C. Register. D. Latch. share/E3/3-82M20000664000175000017500000000030711724335201011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-82M2 C Name two types of spread spectrum systems used in most RF communications applications? A. AM and FM. B. QPSK or QAM. C. Direct Sequence and Frequency Hopping. D. Frequency Hopping and APSK. share/E3/3-62I30000664000175000017500000000044711724335177011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-62I3 A The expression "voltage regulation" as it applies to a shunt-wound DC generator operating at a constant frequency refers to: A. Voltage fluctuations from load to no-load. B. Voltage output efficiency. C. Voltage in the secondary compared to the primary. D. Rotor winding voltage ratio share/E3/3-57H50000664000175000017500000000046211724335177011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-57H5 A What is meant by the term modulation index? A. The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency. B. The processor index. C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio. D. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency. share/E3/3-11B30000664000175000017500000000016611724335172011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-11B3 A What is the second harmonic of SSB frequency 4146 kHz? A. 8292 kHz. B. 4.146 MHz. C. 2073 kHz. D. 12438 kHz. share/E3/3-76L40000664000175000017500000000055511724335201011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-76L4 A What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of an oscilloscope? A. Sweep oscillator quality and deflection amplifier bandwidth. B. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage. C. Sweep oscillator quality and tube face voltage increments. D. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments. share/E3/3-36E20000664000175000017500000000016311724335175011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-36E2 C What is a flip-flop circuit? A binary sequential logic element with ___stable states. A. 1 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 share/E3/3-72K20000664000175000017500000000056611724335200011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-72K2 C What type of antenna is used in an aircraft's Instrument Landing System (ILS) marker beacon installation? A. An electronically steerable phased-array antenna that radiates a directional antenna pattern. B. A folded dipole reception antenna. C. A balanced loop reception antenna. D. A horizontally polarized antenna that radiates an omnidirectional antenna pattern. share/E3/3-46F40000664000175000017500000000030711724335176011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-46F4 A What parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter using an op-amp? A. Bandpass characteristics. B. Desired current gain. C. Temperature coefficient. D. Output-offset overshoot. share/E3/3-43F60000664000175000017500000000020711731201714011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-43F6 B In Figure 3F15, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) is used to represent a local oscillator? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-52G50000664000175000017500000000030411724335176011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-52G5 C The class AB amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. Exactly 180 degrees. B. 360 degrees C. More than 180 but less than 360 degrees. D. Less than 180 degrees. share/E3/3-54G20000664000175000017500000000037611724335177011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-54G2 D What is a pi-network? A. A network consisting of a capacitor, resistor and inductor. B. The Phase inversion stage. C. An enhanced token ring network. D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors and one capacitor. share/E3/3-18B50000664000175000017500000000026211724335173011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-18B5 D Given a power supply with a full load voltage of 200 volts and a regulation of 25%, what is the no load voltage? A. 150 volts. B. 160 volts. C. 240 volts. D. 250 volts. share/E3/3-80L60000664000175000017500000000024611724335201011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-80L6 A What type of wire would connect an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay? A. GTO-15 high-voltage cable. B. RG8U. C. RG213. D. 16-gauge two-conductor. share/E3/3-83M50000664000175000017500000000012311724335201011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-83M5 D What CODEC is used in Phase 2 P25 radios? A. IWCE B. IMBC C. IMMM D. AMBE share/E3/3-83M40000664000175000017500000000052611724335201011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-83M4 A The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. What level is responsible for the actual transmission of data and handshaking signals? A. The physical layer. B. The transport layer. C. The communications layer. D. The synchronization layer. share/E3/3-71K50000664000175000017500000000046311724335200011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-71K5 B What type of encoding is used in an aircraft's mode C transponder transmission to a ground station of the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. Differential phase shift keying. B. Pulse position modulation. C. Doppler effect compressional encryption. D. Amplitude modulation at 95%. share/E3/3-99Q60000664000175000017500000000031111724335203011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-99Q6 C If the MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) power is present, how often must the personnel accessing the affected area be trained and certified? A. Weekly. B. Monthly. C. Yearly. D. Not at all. share/E3/3-44F20000664000175000017500000000051111724335176011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-44F2 D What is the mixing process in a radio receiver? A. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison. B. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase differentiation. C. Distortion caused by auroral propagation. D. The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies. share/E3/3-45F40000664000175000017500000000023411724335176011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-45F4 A A receiver selectivity of 10 KHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals? A. Double-sideband AM. B. SSB voice. C. CW. D. FSK RTTY. share/E3/3-87N20000664000175000017500000000042011724335202011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-87N2 D How should the signal from a Search And Rescue RADAR Transponder appear on a RADAR display? A. A series of dashes. B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART. C. A series of twenty dashes. D. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. share/E3/3-34E10000664000175000017500000000051511724335175011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-34E1 B What is a characteristic of an AND gate? A. Produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1". B. Produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1". C. Produces a logic "1" at its output if only one input is a logic "1". D. Produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0". share/E3/3-11B60000664000175000017500000000033511724335172011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-11B6 D What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 462,100,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of ± 1.0 ppm? A. 46.21 MHz. B. 10 Hz. C. 1.0 MHz. D. 462.1 Hz. share/E3/3-56G10000664000175000017500000000064311724335177011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-56G1 B How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power. B. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line to the transmitter and duplexer. C. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line. D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line. share/E3/3-74L20000664000175000017500000000032411724335200011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-74L2 D A 50 microampere meter movement has an internal resistance of 2,000 ohms. What applied voltage is required to indicate half-scale deflection? A. 0.01 volts B. 0.10 volts C. 0.005 volts. D. 0.05 volts. share/E3/3-67J30000664000175000017500000000035411724335200011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-67J3 A What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 37.6 watts. B. 237 watts. C. 150 watts. D. 23.7 watts. share/E3/3-71K60000664000175000017500000000146711724335200011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-71K6 D Choose the only correct statement about an aircraft's Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment. A. An aircraft's ADF transmission exhibits primarily a line-of-sight range to the ground-based target station and will not follow the curvature of the Earth. B. Only a single omnidirectional sense antenna is required to receive an NDB transmission and process the signal to calculate the aircraft's bearing to the selected ground station. C. All frequencies in the ADF's operating range except the commercial standard broadcast stations (550 to 1660 kHz) can be utilized as a navigational Non Directional Beacon (NDB) signal. D. An aircraft's ADF antennas can receive transmissions that are over the Earth's horizon (sometimes several hundred miles away) since these signals will follow the curvature of the Earth. share/E3/3-85N30000664000175000017500000000015611724335202011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-85N3 C What VHF Channel is used for Digital Selective Calling and acknowledgement? A. 16 B. 21A C. 70 D. 68 share/E3/3-98P40000664000175000017500000000057011724335203011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-98P4 A What best describes the GPS Satellites orbits? A. They are in six orbital planes equally spaced and inclined about 55 degrees to the equator. B. They are in four orbital planes spaced 90 degrees in a polar orbit. C. They are in a geosynchronous orbit equally spaced around the equator. D. They are in eight orbital planes at an altitude of approximately 1,000 miles. share/E3/3-83M60000664000175000017500000000046311724335201011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-83M6 B The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. The _______ level arranges the bits into frames and controls data flow. A. Transport layer. B. Link layer. C. Communications layer. D. Synchronization layer. share/E3/3-59H60000664000175000017500000000077011724335177011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-59H6 C What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width modulation system? A. A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant. B. The position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant. C. A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant. D. The number of standard pulses per second varies depending on the voice waveform at that instant. share/E3/3-65J60000664000175000017500000000014311724335200011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-65J6 A To lengthen an antenna electrically, add a: A. Coil. B. Resistor. C. Battery. D. Conduit. share/E3/3-60I10000664000175000017500000000035311724335177011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-60I1 D When a lead-acid storage battery is being charged, a harmful effect to humans is: A. Internal plate sulfation may occur under constant charging. B. Emission of oxygen. C. Emission of chlorine gas. D. Emission of hydrogen gas. share/E3/3-25C30000664000175000017500000000045311724335174011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-25C3 C What is the meaning of the term "beta" with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of: A. Base current with respect to emitter current. B. Collector current with respect to emitter current. C. Collector current with respect to base current. D. Base current with respect to gate current. share/E3/3-26C20000664000175000017500000000037611724335174011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-26C2 C What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off? A. There is no base current. B. The transistor is at its Class A operating point. C. There is no current between emitter and collector. D. There is maximum current between emitter and collector. share/E3/3-78L60000664000175000017500000000022711724335201011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-78L6 B What is the maximum FM deviation for voice operation of a normal wideband channel on VHF and UHF? A. 2.5 kHz B. 5.0 kHz C. 7.5 kHz D. 10 kHz share/E3/3-35E60000664000175000017500000000057011724335175011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-35E6 A What is a truth table? A. A list of input combinations and their corresponding outputs that characterizes a digital device's function. B. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp. C. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true. D. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp. share/E3/3-13B60000664000175000017500000000024111724335172011301 0ustar jtnjtn3-13B6 B What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.73 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 0.577 share/E3/3-9B20000664000175000017500000000016311724335172011225 0ustar jtnjtn3-9B2 B Which of the following Ohms Law formulas is incorrect? A. I = E / R B. I = R / E C. E = I x R D. R = E / I share/E3/3-58H40000664000175000017500000000031611724335177011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-58H4 A What does a two-tone test illustrate on an oscilloscope? A. Linearity of a SSB transmitter. B. Frequency of the carrier phase shift. C. Percentage of frequency modulation. D. Sideband suppression. share/E3/3-61I20000664000175000017500000000031711724335177011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-61I2 B What current will flow in a 6 volt storage battery with an internal resistance of 0.01 ohms, when a 3-watt, 6-volt lamp is connected? A. 0.4885 amps. B. 0.4995 amps. C. 0.5566 amps. D. 0.5795 amps. share/E3/3-81L40000664000175000017500000000103711724335201011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-81L4 C In a software-defined transceiver, what would be the best way for a technician to make a quick overall evaluation of the radio's operational condition? A. Set up a spectrum analyzer and service monitor and manually verify the manufacturer's specifications. B. Use another radio on the same frequency to check the transmitter. C. Use the built-in self-test feature. D. Using on-board self-test routines are strictly prohibited by the FCC in commercial transmitters. Amateur Radio is the only service currently authorized to use them. share/E3/3-6A10000664000175000017500000000024611724335172011222 0ustar jtnjtn3-6A1 B An AC ammeter indicates: A. Effective (TRM) values of current. B. Effective (RMS) values of current. C. Peak values of current. D. Average values of current. share/E3/3-98P30000664000175000017500000000012311724335203011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-98P3 C How many GPS satellites are normally in operation? A. 8 B. 18 C. 24 D. 36 share/E3/3-92O40000664000175000017500000000041111724335202011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-92O4 D What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at long ranges? A. Narrow pulse width and slow repetition rate. B. Narrow pulse width and fast repetition rate. C. Wide pulse width and fast repetition rate. D. Wide pulse width and slow repetition rate. share/E3/3-4A60000664000175000017500000000026311724335172011224 0ustar jtnjtn3-4A6 C How might you reduce the inductance of an antenna coil? A. Add additional turns. B. Add more core permeability. C. Reduce the number of turns. D. Compress the coil turns. share/E3/3-82M40000664000175000017500000000026611724335201011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-82M4 D A TDMA radio uses what to carry the multiple conversations sequentially? A. Separate frequencies. B. Separate pilot tones. C. Separate power levels. D. Separate time slots. share/E3/3-25C50000664000175000017500000000045011724335174011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-25C5 B The beta cutoff frequency of a bipolar transistor is the frequency at which: A. Base current gain has increased to 0.707 of maximum. B. Emitter current gain has decreased to 0.707 of maximum. C. Collector current gain has decreased to 0.707. D. Gate current gain has decreased to 0.707. share/E3/3-22C50000664000175000017500000000045611724335173011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-22C5 C A three-terminal regulator: A. Supplies three voltages with variable current. B. Supplies three voltages at a constant current. C. Contains a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element. D. Contains three error amplifiers and sensing transistors. share/E3/3-57H30000664000175000017500000000031011724335177011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-57H3 A What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz? A. 2.14 B. 0.214 C. 0.47 D. 47 share/E3/3-17B60000664000175000017500000000046111724335173011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-17B6 D Using the polar coordinate system, what visual representation would you get of a voltage in a sinewave circuit? A. To show the reactance which is present. B. To graphically represent the AC and DC component. C. To display the data on an XY chart. D. The plot shows the magnitude and phase angle. share/E3/3-12B10000664000175000017500000000023311731202270011262 0ustar jtnjtn3-12B1 D At pi/3 radians, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts? A. -4.3 volts. B. -2.5 volts. C. +2.5 volts. D. +4.3 volts. share/E3/3-29D20000664000175000017500000000040211724335174011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-29D2 B What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance. B. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance. C. Approximately equal to XL. D. Approximately equal to XC. share/E3/3-70K60000664000175000017500000000034511724335200011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-70K6 A On runway approach, an ILS Localizer shows: A. Deviation left or right of runway center line. B. Deviation up and down from ground speed. C. Deviation percentage from authorized ground speed. D. Wind speed along runway. share/E3/3-100Q50000664000175000017500000000034611724335203011375 0ustar jtnjtn3-100Q5 D Do shorted-stub lightning protectors work at all frequencies? A. Yes. B. No, the short also kills the radio signals. C. No, the short enhances the radio signal at the tuned band. D. No, only at the tuned frequency band. share/E3/3-84M40000664000175000017500000000045411724335201011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-84M4 C Which is the code used for SITOR-A and -B transmissions? A. The 5 bit baudot telex code. B. Each character consists of 7 bits with 3 "zeros" and 4 "ones". C. Each character consists of 7 bits with 4 "zeros" and 3 "ones". D. Each character has 7 bits of data and 3 bits for error correction. share/E3/3-53G50000664000175000017500000000042211724335176011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-53G5 D How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated? A. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal. B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer. C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer. D. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter. share/E3/3-88N30000664000175000017500000000032311724335202011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-88N3 C What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for weather facsimile HF (high frequency) reception? A. 500 Hz at -6 dB. B. 6 kHz at -6 dB. C. 1 kHz at -6 dB. D. 15 kHz at -6 dB. share/E3/3-42F30000664000175000017500000000057011724335175011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-42F3 A How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver? A. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage. B. As much gain as possible short of self oscillation. C. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first mixer stage. D. It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage. share/E3/3-12B50000664000175000017500000000021611731202343011270 0ustar jtnjtn3-12B5 C What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave? A. 170 volts AC. B. 240 volts AC. C. 120 volts AC. D. 350 volts AC. share/E3/3-89N60000664000175000017500000000023411724335202011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-89N6 C What voltage drop at the end of the last segment will satisfy NMEA 2000 network cabling plans? A. 0.5 volts B. 2.0 volts C. 1.5 volts D. 3.0 volts share/E3/3-60I50000664000175000017500000000020211724335177011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-60I5 D The average fully-charged voltage of a lead-acid storage cell is: A. 1 volt. B. 1.2 volts. C. 1.56 volts. D. 2.06 volts. share/E3/3-61I40000664000175000017500000000036011724335177011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-61I4 C If a marine radiotelephone receiver uses 75 watts of power and a transmitter uses 325 watts, how long can they both operate before discharging a 50 ampere-hour 12 volt battery? A. 40 minutes. B. 1 hour. C. 1 1/2 hours. D. 6 hours. share/E3/3-48F20000664000175000017500000000022611724335176011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-48F2 B Which circuit is used to detect FM-phone signals? A. Balanced modulator. B. Frequency discriminator. C. Product detector. D. Phase splitter. share/E3/3-5A20000664000175000017500000000025611724335172011223 0ustar jtnjtn3-5A2 B What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode? A. The peak inverse voltage (PIV). B. The junction temperature. C. The forward voltage. D. The back EMF. share/E3/3-48F60000664000175000017500000000046611724335176011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-48F6 B What is the definition of detection in a radio receiver? A. The process of masking out the intelligence on a received carrier to make an S-meter operational. B. The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal. C. The modulation of a carrier. D. The mixing of noise with the received signal. share/E3/3-100Q10000664000175000017500000000034211724335203011365 0ustar jtnjtn3-100Q1 D What device can protect a transmitting station from a direct lightning hit? A. Lightning protector. B. Grounded cabinet. C. Short lead in. D. There is no device to protect a station from a direct hit from lightning. share/E3/3-89N10000664000175000017500000000022211724335202011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-89N1 A What data language is bi-directional, multi-transmitter, multi-receiver network? A. NMEA 2000. B. NMEA 0181. C. NMEA 0182. D. NMEA 0183. share/E3/3-91O20000664000175000017500000000074211724335202011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-91O2 B What is the purpose or function of the RADAR duplexer/circulator? It is a/an: A. Coupling device that is used in the transition from a rectangular waveguide to a circular waveguide. B. Electronic switch that allows the use of one antenna for both transmission and reception. C. Modified length of waveguide that is used to sample a portion of the transmitted energy for testing purposes. D. Dual section coupling device that allows the use of a magnetron as a transmitter. share/E3/3-53G10000664000175000017500000000033611724335176011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-53G1 C What is the modulation index in an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3,000 Hz on either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1,000 Hz? A. 0.3 B. 3,000 C. 3 D. 1,000 share/E3/3-76L50000664000175000017500000000043211724335201011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-76L5 C An oscilloscope can be used to accomplish all of the following except: A. Measure electron flow with the aid of a resistor. B. Measure phase difference between two signals. C. Measure velocity of light with the aid of a light emitting diode. D. Measure electrical voltage. share/E3/3-64J30000664000175000017500000000016111724335200011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-64J3 A Which of the following represents the best standing wave ratio (SWR)? A. 1:1. B. 1:1.5. C. 1:3. D. 1:4. share/E3/3-29D30000664000175000017500000000023111724335174011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-29D3 D How could voltage be greater across reactances in series than the applied voltage? A. Resistance. B. Conductance. C. Capacitance. D. Resonance. share/E3/3-43F50000664000175000017500000000030611724335175011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-43F5 D What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? It must: A. Have a gain of less than 1. B. Be neutralized. C. Have sufficient negative feedback. D. Have sufficient positive feedback. share/E3/3-54G30000664000175000017500000000044611724335177011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-54G3 A What is the resonant frequency in an electrical circuit? A. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance. B. The highest frequency that will pass current. C. The lowest frequency that will pass current. D. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum. share/E3/3-95P50000664000175000017500000000043511724335203011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-95P5 B What is the main function of the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system? A. Monitor 121.5 MHz for voice distress calls. B. Monitor 406 MHz for distress calls from EPIRBs. C. Monitor 1635 MHz for coded distress calls. D. Monitor 2197.5 kHz for hexadecimal coded DSC distress messages. share/E3/3-49F40000664000175000017500000000021511724335176011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-49F4 A What causes a squelch circuit to function? A. Presence of noise. B. Absence of noise. C. Received tones. D. Received digital codes. share/E3/3-44F40000664000175000017500000000047311724335176011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-44F4 C What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit? A. Two and four times the original frequency. B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies. C. The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies. D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency. share/E3/3-93O20000664000175000017500000000023711724335202011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-93O2 A What type of antenna or pickup device is used to extract the RADAR signal from the wave guide? A. J-hook. B. K-hook. C. Folded dipole. D. Circulator. share/E3/3-53G60000664000175000017500000000045011724335176011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-53G6 B What is a balanced modulator? A. An FM modulator that produces a balanced deviation. B. A modulator that produces a double sideband, suppressed carrier signal. C. A modulator that produces a single sideband, suppressed carrier signal. D. A modulator that produces a full carrier signal. share/E3/3-30D10000664000175000017500000000060211724335174011300 0ustar jtnjtn3-30D1 D What is the main advantage of using an op-amp audio filter over a passive LC audio filter? A. Op-amps are largely immune to vibration and temperature change. B. Most LC filter manufacturers have retooled to make op-amp filters. C. Op-amps are readily available in a wide variety of operational voltages and frequency ranges. D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss. share/E3/3-64J50000664000175000017500000000031511724335177011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-64J5 B An antenna radiates a primary signal of 500 watts output. If there is a 2nd harmonic output of 0.5 watt, what attenuation of the 2nd harmonic has occurred? A. 10 dB. B. 30 dB. C. 40 dB. D. 50 dB. share/E3/3-81L20000664000175000017500000000061211724335201011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-81L2 B The tachometer of a building's elevator circuit experiences interference caused by the radio system nearby. What is a common potential "fix" for the problem? A. Replace the tachometer of the elevator. B. Add a .01 µF capacitor across the motor/tachometer leads. C. Add a 200 µF capacity across the motor/tachometer leads. D. Add an isolating resistor in series with the motor leads. share/E3/3-94O10000664000175000017500000000035111724335202011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-94O1 B The permanent magnetic field that surrounds a traveling-wave tube (TWT) is intended to: A. Provide a means of coupling. B. Prevent the electron beam from spreading. C. Prevent oscillations. D. Prevent spurious oscillations. share/E3/3-71K30000664000175000017500000000054211724335200011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-71K3 A What are the transmit and receive frequencies of an aircraft's mode C transponder operating in the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. Transmit at 1090 MHz, and receive at 1030 MHz B. Transmit at 1030 kHz, and receive at 1090 kHz C. Transmit at 1090 kHz, and receive at 1030 kHz D. Transmit at 1030 MHz, and receive at 1090 MHz share/E3/3-66J10000664000175000017500000000063611724335200011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-66J1 B What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line? A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance. B. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum. C. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum. D. The index of shielding for coaxial cable. share/E3/3-20C10000664000175000017500000000062411724335173011301 0ustar jtnjtn3-20C1 D What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor? A. Voltage on the plates and distance between the plates. B. Voltage on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates. C. Amount of charge on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates. D. Distance between the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates. share/E3/3-63J50000664000175000017500000000051011724335177011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-63J5 D What is meant by the term radiation resistance of an antenna? A. Losses in the antenna elements and feed line. B. The specific impedance of the antenna. C. The resistance in the trap coils to received signals. D. An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna. share/E3/3-77L60000664000175000017500000000036111724335201011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-77L6 C What instrument is commonly used by radio service technicians to monitor frequency, modulation, check receiver sensitivity, distortion, and to generate audio tones? A. Oscilloscope. B. Spectrum analyzer. C. Service monitor. D. DMM. share/E3/3-62I60000664000175000017500000000027411724335177011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-62I6 B The output of a separately-excited AC generator running at a constant speed can be controlled by: A. The armature. B. The amount of field current. C. The brushes. D. The exciter. share/E3/3-36E10000664000175000017500000000015011724335175011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-36E1 B A flip-flop circuit is a binary logic element with how many stable states? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 share/E3/3-80L20000664000175000017500000000054311724335201011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-80L2 C What is most important when routing cables in a mobile unit? A. That cables be cut to the exact length. B. Assuring accessibility of the radio for servicing from outside the vehicle. C. Assuring radio or electronics cables do not interfere with the normal operation of the vehicle. D. Assuring cables are concealed under floor mats or carpeting. share/E3/3-23C60000664000175000017500000000030311724335173011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-23C6 B What circuit might contain a SCR? A. Filament circuit of a tube radio receiver. B. A light-dimming circuit. C. Shunt across a transformer primary. D. Bypass capacitor circuit to ground. share/E3/3-4A30000664000175000017500000000033311724335172011217 0ustar jtnjtn3-4A3 A Which of the 4 groups of metals listed below are the best low-resistance conductors? A. Gold, silver, and copper. B. Stainless steel, bronze, and lead. C. Iron, lead, and nickel. D. Bronze, zinc, and manganese. share/E3/3-24C20000664000175000017500000000036511724335174011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-24C2 D What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? A. Balanced inputs in SSB generation. B. Variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit. C. Constant voltage reference in a power supply. D. VHF and UHF mixers and detectors. share/E3/3-7A60000664000175000017500000000026511724335172011231 0ustar jtnjtn3-7A6 C What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)? A. Cosine wave. B. Square wave. C. Sawtooth wave. D. Sine wave. share/E3/3-77L20000664000175000017500000000017511724335201011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-77L2 D What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude. B. Voltage. C. Resonance. D. Frequency. share/E3/3-92O30000664000175000017500000000045211724335202011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-92O3 A We are looking at a target 25 miles away. When a RADAR is being operated on the 25 mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate? A. 1.0 s PW and 500 pps. B. 0.25 s PW and 1,000 pps. C. 0.01 s PW and 500 pps. D. 0.05 s PW and 2,000 pps. share/E3/3-13B50000664000175000017500000000024011724335173011300 0ustar jtnjtn3-13B5 D What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.866 B. 1.0 C. 0.5 D. 0.707 share/E3/3-43F30000664000175000017500000000032411724335175011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-43F3 D What are three major oscillator circuits found in radio equipment? A. Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback. B. Colpitts, Hartley, and Taft. C. Taft, Hartley, and Pierce. D. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce. share/E3/3-14B40000664000175000017500000000057211724335173011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-14B4 C What is the meaning of the term "time constant of an RL circuit"? The time required for the: A. Current in the circuit to build up to 36.8% of the maximum value. B. Voltage in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value. C. Current in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value. D. Voltage in the circuit to build up to 36.8% of the maximum value. share/E3/3-51G60000664000175000017500000000030011724335176011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-51G6 D Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class AB. share/E3/3-64J20000664000175000017500000000041711724335200011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-64J2 D The voltage produced in a receiving antenna is: A. Out of phase with the current if connected properly. B. Out of phase with the current if cut to 1/3 wavelength. C. Variable depending on the station's SWR. D. Always proportional to the received field strength. share/E3/3-29D50000664000175000017500000000024711724335174011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-29D5 B What is the characteristic of the current flow within the parallel elements in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Minimum. B. Maximum. C. DC. D. Zero. share/E3/3-44F10000664000175000017500000000031411724335176011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-44F1 B What is the image frequency if the normal channel is 151.000 MHz, the IF is operating at 11.000 MHz, and the LO is at 140.000 MHz? A. 131.000 MHz. B. 129.000 MHz. C. 162.000 MHz. D. 150.000 MHz. share/E3/3-10B40000664000175000017500000000015411731202137011267 0ustar jtnjtn3-10B4 C In Figure 3B1, what is the voltage drop across R1? A. 9 volts. B. 7 volts. C. 5 volts. D. 3 volts. share/E3/3-23C50000664000175000017500000000025511724335173011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-23C5 D What are the three terminals of a TRIAC? A. Emitter, base 1, and base 2. B. Base, emitter, and collector. C. Gate, source, and sink. D. Gate, anode 1, and anode 2. share/E3/3-79L50000664000175000017500000000035411724335201011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-79L5 B A "hot gas bonder" is used: A. To apply solder to the iron tip while it is heating the component. B. For non-contact melting of solder. C. To allow soldering both sides of the PC board simultaneously. D. To cure LCA adhesives. share/E3/3-49F60000664000175000017500000000043411724335176011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-49F6 C What radio circuit samples analog signals, records and processes them as numbers, then converts them back to analog signals? A. The pre-emphasis audio stage. B. The squelch gate circuit. C. The digital signal processing circuit. D. The voltage controlled oscillator circuit. share/E3/3-5A60000664000175000017500000000064511724335172011231 0ustar jtnjtn3-5A6 A How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with that of a bipolar transistor? A. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance. B. One cannot compare input impedance without first knowing the supply voltage. C. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance. D. The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same. share/E3/3-74L50000664000175000017500000000022411724335200011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-74L5 B What instrument is used to indicate high and low digital voltage states? A. Ohmmeter. B. Logic probe. C. Megger. D. Signal strength meter. share/E3/3-56G50000664000175000017500000000033011724335177011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-56G5 C How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter amplifier design? A. By using a push-push amplifier. B. By operating class C. C. By using a push-pull amplifier. D. By operating class AB. share/E3/3-94O30000664000175000017500000000036711724335202011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-94O3 A In the term "ARPA RADAR," ARPA is the acronym for which of the following? A. Automatic RADAR Plotting Aid. B. Automatic RADAR Positioning Angle. C. American RADAR Programmers Association. D. Authorized RADAR Programmer and Administrator. share/E3/3-77L50000664000175000017500000000031111724335201011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-77L5 A What test instrument can be used to display spurious signals in the output of a radio transmitter? A. A spectrum analyzer. B. A wattmeter. C. A logic analyzer. D. A time domain reflectometer. share/E3/3-7A30000664000175000017500000000022611724335172011223 0ustar jtnjtn3-7A3 A What type of wave is made up of sine waves of the fundamental frequency and all the odd harmonics? A. Square. B. Sine. C. Cosine. D. Tangent. share/E3/3-74L10000664000175000017500000000034711724335201011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-74L1 B What is a 1/2 digit on a DMM? A. Smaller physical readout on the left side of the display. B. Partial extended accuracy on lower part of the range. C. Smaller physical readout on the right side. D. Does not apply to DMMs. share/E3/3-50F50000664000175000017500000000023011731202616011275 0ustar jtnjtn3-50F5 D In Figure 3F15 at what point in the circuit (labeled 1 through 4) could a DC voltmeter be used to monitor signal strength? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-21C20000664000175000017500000000044111724335173011300 0ustar jtnjtn3-21C2 B A transformer used to step up its input voltage must have: A. More turns of wire on its primary than on its secondary. B. More turns of wire on its secondary than on its primary. C. Equal number of primary and secondary turns of wire. D. None of the above statements are correct. share/E3/3-27C50000664000175000017500000000026111724335174011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-27C5 A An LED facing a photodiode in a light-tight enclosure is commonly known as a/an: A. Optoisolator. B. Seven segment LED. C. Optointerrupter. D. Infra-red (IR) detector. share/E3/3-16B40000664000175000017500000000032411724335173011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-16B4 B In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor, at 30 kHz? A. 200 - j188 B. 200 + j188 C. 188 + j200 D. 188 - j200 share/E3/3-75L20000664000175000017500000000046111724335201011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-75L2 B What is a frequency standard? A. A well-known (standard) frequency used for transmitting certain messages. B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency. C. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz. D. A device used to generate wide-band random frequencies. share/E3/3-18B40000664000175000017500000000026211724335173011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-18B4 A What turns ratio does a transformer need in order to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms? A. 7.1 to 1. B. 14.2 to 1. C. 50 to 1. D. None of these. share/E3/3-75L60000664000175000017500000000042211724335201011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-75L6 A Which of the following contains a multirange AF voltmeter calibrated in dB and a sharp, internal 1000 Hz bandstop filter, both used in conjunction with each other to perform quieting tests? A. SINAD meter. B. Reflectometer. C. Dip meter. D. Vector-impedance meter. share/E3/3-19C10000664000175000017500000000027411724335173011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-19C1 A What happens to the conductivity of photoconductive material when light shines on it? A. It increases. B. It decreases. C. It stays the same. D. It becomes temperature dependent. share/E3/3-1A50000664000175000017500000000030311724335171011212 0ustar jtnjtn3-1A5 B What formula would determine the inductive reactance of a coil if frequency and coil inductance are known? A. XL =  f L B. XL = 2 f L C. XL = 1 / 2 f C D. XL = 1 / R2+X2 share/E3/3-80L10000664000175000017500000000015011724335201011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-80L1 D What color is the binder for pairs 51-75 in a 100-pair cable? A. Red B. Blue C. Black D. Green share/E3/3-10B30000664000175000017500000000041111731202120011252 0ustar jtnjtn3-10B3 B A 500-ohm, 2-watt resistor and a 1500-ohm, 1-watt resistor are connected in parallel. What is the maximum voltage that can be applied across the parallel circuit without exceeding wattage ratings? A. 22.4 volts. B. 31.6 volts. C. 38.7 volts. D. 875 volts. share/E3/3-49F20000664000175000017500000000053311724335176011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-49F2 B What is the purpose of de-emphasis in the receiver audio stage? A. When coupled with the transmitter pre-emphasis, flat audio is achieved. B. When coupled with the transmitter pre-emphasis, flat audio and noise reduction is received. C. No purpose is achieved. D. To conserve bandwidth by squelching no-audio periods in the transmission. share/E3/3-2A50000664000175000017500000000036211724335171011220 0ustar jtnjtn3-2A5 C What is meant by the term "back EMF"? A. A current equal to the applied EMF. B. An opposing EMF equal to R times C (RC) percent of the applied EMF. C. A voltage that opposes the applied EMF. D. A current that opposes the applied EMF. share/E3/3-21C30000664000175000017500000000026411724335173011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-21C3 A A transformer primary of 2250 turns connected to 120 VAC will develop what voltage across a 500-turn secondary? A. 26.7 volts. B. 2300 volts. C. 1500 volts. D. 5.9 volts. share/E3/3-17B50000664000175000017500000000040111724335173011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-17B5 B In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms, /-36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms, /36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms, /53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms, /-53.1 degrees share/E3/3-69K20000664000175000017500000000022111724335200011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-69K2 B The rate that the transmitted VOR variable signal rotates is equivalent to how many revolutions per second? A. 60 B. 30 C. 2400 D. 1800 share/E3/3-68K60000664000175000017500000000036611724335200011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-68K6 B The majority of airborne Distance Measuring Equipment systems automatically tune their transmitter and receiver frequencies to the paired __ / __ channel. A. VOR/marker beacon. B. VOR/LOC. C. Marker beacon/glideslope. D. LOC/glideslope. share/E3/3-39E40000664000175000017500000000015011724335175011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-39E4 A What portion of a microprocessor circuit is the pulse generator? A. Clock B. RAM C. ROM D. PLL share/E3/3-33E60000664000175000017500000000024011724335174011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-33E6 B What do the initials TTL stand for? A. Resistor-transistor logic. B. Transistor-transistor logic. C. Diode-transistor logic. D. Emitter-coupled logic. share/E3/3-23C30000664000175000017500000000027711724335173011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-23C3 D Which of the following devices acts as two SCRs connected back to back, but facing in opposite directions and sharing a common gate? A. JFET. B. Dual-gate MOSFET. C. DIAC. D. TRIAC. share/E3/3-91O60000664000175000017500000000022511724335202011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-91O6 D The component or circuit providing the transmitter output power for a RADAR system is the: A. Thyratron. B. SCR. C. Klystron. D. Magnetron. share/E3/3-27C60000664000175000017500000000026611724335174011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-27C6 C What circuit component must be connected in series to protect an LED? A. Bypass capacitor to ground. B. Electrolytic capacitor. C. Series resistor. D. Shunt coil in series. share/E3/3-91O40000664000175000017500000000051711724335202011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-91O4 C What is the purpose of a synchro transmitter and receiver? A. Synchronizes the transmitted and received pulse trains. B. Prevents the receiver from operating during the period of the transmitted pulse. C. Transmits the angular position of the antenna to the indicator unit. D. Keeps the speed of the motor generator constant. share/E3/3-55G10000664000175000017500000000031411724335177011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-55G1 D What will occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a single-sideband phone transmitter? A. Reduced amplifier efficiency. B. Increased intelligibility. C. Sideband inversion. D. Distortion. share/E3/3-3A20000664000175000017500000000011611724335172011214 0ustar jtnjtn3-3A2 A What is the relative dielectric constant for air? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 0 share/E3/3-20C40000664000175000017500000000017111724335173011301 0ustar jtnjtn3-20C4 C In Figure 3C5, which capacitor (labeled 1 through 4) is being used as a bypass capacitor? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-46F50000664000175000017500000000045111724335176011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-46F5 C What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter? A. It has a maximally flat response over its passband. B. It only requires inductors. C. It allows ripple in the passband. D. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies. share/E3/3-35E10000664000175000017500000000025211731202400011266 0ustar jtnjtn3-35E1 D In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0? A. Low level. B. Positive-transition level. C. Negative-transition level. D. High level. share/E3/3-4A40000664000175000017500000000047011724335172011222 0ustar jtnjtn3-4A4 C What is the purpose of a bypass capacitor? A. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit. B. It removes direct current from the circuit by shunting DC to ground. C. It removes alternating current by providing a low impedance path to ground. D. It forms part of an impedance transforming circuit. share/E3/3-2A40000664000175000017500000000024611724335171011220 0ustar jtnjtn3-2A4 D The opposition to the creation of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is known as: A. Eddy currents. B. Hysteresis. C. Permeability. D. Reluctance. share/E3/3-47F30000664000175000017500000000031111731202544011301 0ustar jtnjtn3-47F3 A What are the three general groupings of filters? A. High-pass, low-pass and band-pass. B. Inductive, capacitive and resistive. C. Audio, radio and capacitive. D. Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce. share/E3/3-92O10000664000175000017500000000041411724335202011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-92O1 D When a RADAR is being operated on the 48 mile range setting, what is the most appropriate pulse width (PW) and pulse repetition rate (pps)? A. 1.0 s PW and 2,000 pps. B. 0.05 s PW and 2,000 pps. C. 2.5 s PW and 2,500 pps. D. 1.0 s PW and 500 pps. share/E3/3-53G20000664000175000017500000000027511724335176011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-53G2 A What is the modulation index of a FM phone transmitter producing a maximum carrier deviation of 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency? A. 3 B. 6,000 C. 2,000 D. 1 share/E3/3-76L60000664000175000017500000000027411724335201011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-76L6 D What instrument is used to check the signal quality of a single-sideband radio transmission? A. Field strength meter. B. Signal level meter. C. Sidetone monitor. D. Oscilloscope. share/E3/3-77L40000664000175000017500000000033211724335201011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-77L4 D What instrument is most accurate when checking antennas and transmission lines at the operating frequency of the antenna? A. Time domain reflectometer. B. Wattmeter. C. DMM. D. Frequency domain reflectometer. share/E3/3-35E50000664000175000017500000000041111731202425011276 0ustar jtnjtn3-35E5 A Given the input levels shown in Figure 3E14 and assuming positive logic devices, what would the output be? A. A is low, B is high and C is high. B. A is high, B is high and C is low. C. A is low, B is low and C is high. D. None of the above are correct. share/E3/3-85N10000664000175000017500000000015611724335202011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-85N1 D What is the channel spacing used for VHF marine radio? A. 10 kHz. B. 12.5 kHz. C. 20 kHz. D. 25 kHz. share/E3/3-58H10000664000175000017500000000032611731202641011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-58H1 C In Figure 3H17, the block labeled 4 would indicate that this schematic is most likely a/an: A. Audio amplifier. B. Shipboard RADAR. C. SSB radio transmitter. D. Wireless LAN (local area network) computer. share/E3/3-95P60000664000175000017500000000062211724335202011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-95P6 A How does the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system determine the position of a ship in distress? A. By measuring the Doppler shift of the 406 MHz signal taken at several different points in its orbit. B. The EPIRB always transmits its position which is relayed by the satellite to the Local User Terminal. C. It takes two different satellites to establish an accurate position. D. None of the above. share/E3/3-7A10000664000175000017500000000051211724335172011217 0ustar jtnjtn3-7A1 B What is a sine wave? A. A constant-voltage, varying-current wave. B. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by the projection of a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed. C. A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function. D. A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner. share/E3/3-91O50000664000175000017500000000041711724335202011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-91O5 B Digital signal processing (DSP) of RADAR signals (compared with analog) causes: A. Improved display graphics. B. Improved weak signal or target enhancement. C. Less interference with SONAR systems. D. Less interference with other radio communications equipment. share/E3/3-63J20000664000175000017500000000075211724335177011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-63J2 A Why is the value of the radiation resistance of an antenna important? A. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match impedances for maximum power transfer. B. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to measure the near-field radiation density from transmitting antenna. C. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-side ratio of the antenna. D. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-back ratio of the antenna. share/E3/3-37E10000664000175000017500000000030611724335175011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-37E1 B The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by what type of digital circuit? A. Free-running multivibrator. B. Bistable multivibrator. C. OR gate. D. Astable multivibrator. share/E3/3-78L30000664000175000017500000000044311724335201011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-78L3 C What is a common method used to program radios without using a "wired" connection? A. Banding. B. Using the ultraviolet from a programmed radio to repeat the programming in another. C. Infra-red communication. D. Having the radio maker send down a programming signal via satellite. share/E3/3-3A30000664000175000017500000000031311724335172011214 0ustar jtnjtn3-3A3 D Which metal object may be least affected by galvanic corrosion when submerged in seawater? A. Aluminum outdrive. B. Bronze through-hull. C. Exposed lead keel. D. Stainless steel propeller shaft. share/E3/3-58H60000664000175000017500000000062011724335177011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-58H6 B What type of signals are used to conduct an SSB two-tone test? A. Two audio signals of the same frequency, but shifted 90 degrees in phase. B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals that are within the modulation band pass of the transmitter. C. Two different audio frequency square wave signals of equal amplitude. D. Any two audio frequencies as long as they are harmonically related. share/E3/3-24C40000664000175000017500000000024611724335174011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-24C4 C What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation? A. Zener diodes. B. Point contact diodes. C. Tunnel diodes. D. Junction diodes. share/E3/3-78L50000664000175000017500000000053311724335201011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-78L5 D A communications technician would perform a modulation-acceptance bandwidth test in order to: A. Ascertain the audio frequency response of the receiver. B. Determine whether the CTCSS in the receiver is operating correctly. C. Verify the results from a 12 dB SINAD test. D. Determine the effective bandwidth of a communications receiver. share/E3/3-93O60000664000175000017500000000024511724335202011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-93O6 B To couple energy into and out of a waveguide use: A. Wide copper sheeting. B. A thin piece of wire as an antenna. C. An LC circuit. D. Capacitive coupling. share/E3/3-76L10000664000175000017500000000024711724335201011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-76L1 B What is used to decrease circuit loading when using an oscilloscope? A. Dual input amplifiers. B. 10:1 divider probe. C. Inductive probe. D. Resistive probe. share/E3/3-30D60000664000175000017500000000050511724335174011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-30D6 A In the op-amp oscillator circuit shown in Figure 3D6, what would be the most noticeable effect if the capacitance of C were suddenly doubled? A. Frequency would be lower. B. Frequency would be higher. C. There would be no change. The inputs are reversed, therefore the circuit cannot function. D. None of the above. share/E3/3-84M50000664000175000017500000000055211724335201011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-84M5 B Which of the following statements is true? A. The Signal Repetition character (1001100) is used as a control signal in SITOR-ARQ. B. The Idle Signal (a) (0000111) is used for FEC Phasing Signal 1. C. The Idle Signal (b) (0011001) is used for FEC Phasing Signal 2. D. The Control Signal 1 (0101100) is used to determine the time displacement in SITOR-B. share/E3/3-75L40000664000175000017500000000105611724335201011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-75L4 A On an analog wattmeter, what part of the scale is most accurate and how much does that accuracy extend to the rest of the reading scale? A. The accuracy is only at full scale, and that absolute number reading is carried through to the rest of the range. The upper 1/3 of the meter is the only truly calibrated part. B. The accuracy is constant throughout the entire range of the meter. C. The accuracy is only there at the upper 5% of the meter, and is not carried through at any other reading. D. The accuracy cannot be determined at any reading. share/E3/3-98P60000664000175000017500000000037211724335203011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-98P6 B What is DGPS? A. Digital Ground Position System. B. A system to provide additional correction factors to improve position accuracy. C. Correction signals transmitted by satellite. D. A system for providing altitude corrections for aircraft. share/E3/3-68K30000664000175000017500000000045311724335200011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-68K3 C The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) ground station has a built-in delay between reception of an interrogation and transmission of the reply to allow: A. Someone to answer the call. B. The VOR to make a mechanical hook-up. C. Operation at close range. D. Clear other traffic for a reply. share/E3/3-32D60000664000175000017500000000025011724335174011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-32D6 B With a pure AC signal input to the circuit shown in Figure 3D11, what output wave form would you expect to see on an oscilloscope display? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-22C60000664000175000017500000000027411724335173011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-22C6 B What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener diodes? A. 1.2 volts to 7 volts. B. 2.4 volts to 200 volts and above. C. 3 volts to 2000 volts. D. 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts. share/E3/3-90O60000664000175000017500000000032111724335202011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-90O6 A If the elapsed time for a RADAR echo is 62 microseconds, what is the distance in nautical miles to the object? A. 5 nautical miles. B. 87 nautical miles. C. 37 nautical miles. D. 11.5 nautical miles. share/E3/3-15B60000664000175000017500000000027611724335173011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-15B6 A What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in series? A. 220 seconds. B. 55 seconds. C. 110 seconds. D. 440 seconds. share/E3/3-12B60000664000175000017500000000033411724335172011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-12B6 B Determine the phase relationship between the two signals shown in Figure 3B3. A. A is lagging B by 90 degrees. B. B is lagging A by 90 degrees. C. A is leading B by 180 degrees. D. B is leading A by 90 degrees. share/E3/3-48F40000664000175000017500000000033411724335176011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-48F4 A What is a frequency discriminator in a radio receiver? A. A circuit for detecting FM signals. B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals. C. An automatic band switching circuit. D. An FM generator. share/E3/3-57H20000664000175000017500000000030711724335177011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-57H2 D What is the deviation ratio for an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz? A. 60 B. 0.16 C. 0.6 D. 1.66 share/E3/3-20C50000664000175000017500000000024311724335173011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-20C5 D In Figure 3C5, the 1 μF capacitor is connected to a potentiometer that is used to: A. Increase gain. B. Neutralize amplifier. C. Couple. D. Adjust tone. share/E3/3-85N50000664000175000017500000000047011724335202011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-85N5 B What is the reason for the USA-INT control or function? A. It changes channels that are normally simplex channels into duplex channels. B. It changes some channels that are normally duplex channels into simplex channels. C. When the control is set to "INT" the range is increased. D. None of the above. share/E3/3-79L40000664000175000017500000000026211724335201011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-79L4 A The ideal method of removing insulation from wire is: A. The thermal stripper. B. The pocket knife. C. A mechanical wire stripper. D. The scissor action stripping tool. share/E3/3-90O30000664000175000017500000000022711724335202011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-90O3 B What is the normal range of pulse widths? A. .05 s to 0.1 s. B. .05 s to 1.0 s. C. 1.0 s to 3.5 s. D. 2.5 s to 5.0 s. share/E3/3-38E30000664000175000017500000000023511724335175011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-38E3 C What does the term "IO" mean within a microprocessor system? A. Integrated oscillator. B. Integer operation. C. Input-output. D Internal operation. share/E3/3-71K20000664000175000017500000000122711724335200011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-71K2 B What is meant by the term "night effect" when using an aircraft's Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment? Night effect refers to the fact that: A. All Non Directional Beacon (NDB) transmitters are turned-off at dusk and turned-on at dawn. B. Non Directional Beacon (NDB) transmissions can bounce-off the Earth's ionosphere at night and be received at almost any direction. C. An aircraft's ADF transmissions will be slowed at night due to the increased density of the Earth's atmosphere after sunset. D. An aircraft's ADF antennas usually collect dew moisture after sunset which decreases their effective reception distance from an NDB transmitter. share/E3/3-15B20000664000175000017500000000030111724335173011275 0ustar jtnjtn3-15B2 B What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series? A. 470 seconds. B. 47 seconds. C. 4.7 seconds. D. 0.47 seconds. share/E3/3-47F20000664000175000017500000000046711724335176011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-47F2 D Which statement is true regarding the filter output characteristics shown in Figure 3F16? A. C is a low pass curve and B is a band pass curve. B. B is a high pass curve and D is a low pass curve. C. A is a high pass curve and B is a low pass curve. D. A is a low pass curve and D is a band stop curve. share/E3/3-34E30000664000175000017500000000047111724335175011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-34E3 A What is a characteristic of an OR gate? A. Produces a logic "1" at its output if any input is logic "1". B. Produces a logic "0" at its output if any input is logic "1". C. Produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1". D. Produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0". share/E3/3-65J20000664000175000017500000000041611724335200011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-65J2 B The resonant frequency of a Hertz antenna can be lowered by: A. Lowering the frequency of the transmitter. B. Placing an inductance in series with the antenna. C. Placing a condenser in series with the antenna. D. Placing a resistor in series with the antenna. share/E3/3-54G50000664000175000017500000000036511724335177011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-54G5 B What is a pi-L network? A. A Phase Inverter Load network. B. A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors. C. A network with only three discrete parts. D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground. share/E3/3-6A30000664000175000017500000000020611724335172011220 0ustar jtnjtn3-6A3 D What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet? A. 331-V AC. B. 82.7-V AC. C. 165.5-V AC. D. 117-V AC. share/E3/3-59H40000664000175000017500000000054111724335177011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-59H4 A Which of the following best describes a pulse modulation system? A. The peak transmitter power is normally much greater than the average power. B. Pulse modulation is sometimes used in SSB voice transmitters. C. The average power is normally only slightly below the peak power. D. The peak power is normally twice as high as the average power. share/E3/3-35E30000664000175000017500000000045611724335175011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-35E3 C For the logic input levels given in Figure 3E13, what are the logic levels of test points A, B and C in this circuit? (Assume positive logic.) A. A is low, B is low and C is high. B. A is low, B is high and C is low. C. A is high, B is high and C is high. D. A is high, B is low and C is low. share/E3/3-66J30000664000175000017500000000033311724335200011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-66J3 D Nitrogen is placed in transmission lines to: A. Improve the "skin-effect" of microwaves. B. Reduce arcing in the line. C. Reduce the standing wave ratio of the line. D. Prevent moisture from entering the line. share/E3/3-69K40000664000175000017500000000020611724335200011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-69K4 A Lines drawn from the VOR station in a particular magnetic direction are: A. Radials. B. Quadrants. C. Bearings. D. Headings. share/E3/3-76L20000664000175000017500000000124111724335201011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-76L2 C How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional oscilloscope? A. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals while the spectrum analyzer is used to measure ionospheric reflection. B. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the time domain. C. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the time domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain. D. The oscilloscope is used for displaying audio frequencies and the spectrum analyzer is used for displaying radio frequencies. share/E3/3-94O60000664000175000017500000000027511724335202011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-94O6 C RADAR collision avoidance systems utilize inputs from each of the following except your ship's: A. Gyrocompass. B. Navigation position receiver. C. Anemometer. D. Speed indicator. share/E3/3-18B10000664000175000017500000000033111724335173011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-18B1 C What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series AC circuit having a resistance of 6 ohms, an inductive reactance of 17 ohms, and zero capacitive reactance? A. 6.6 ohms. B. 11 ohms. C. 18 ohms. D. 23 ohms. share/E3/3-93O40000664000175000017500000000016511724335202011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-93O4 A A common shipboard RADAR antenna is the: A. Slotted array. B. Dipole. C. Stacked Yagi. D. Vertical Marconi. share/E3/3-15B50000664000175000017500000000030311724335173011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-15B5 B What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in parallel? A. 470 seconds. B. 47 seconds. C. 4.7 seconds. D. 0.47 seconds. share/E3/3-12B40000664000175000017500000000064311724335172011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-12B4 D What is the equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage? A. AC voltage is the square root of the average AC value. B. The DC voltage causing the same heating in a given resistor at the peak AC voltage. C. The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage. D. The DC voltage causing the same heating in a given resistor as the RMS AC voltage of the same value. share/E3/3-50F40000664000175000017500000000047611724335176011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-50F4 C What is cross-modulation interference? A. Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type. B. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp. C. Modulation from an unwanted signal heard in addition to the desired signal. D. Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal. share/E3/3-21C40000664000175000017500000000023311724335173011301 0ustar jtnjtn3-21C4 C What is the ratio of the output frequency to the input frequency of a single-phase full-wave rectifier? A. 1:1. B. 1:2. C. 2:1. D. None of these. share/E3/3-82M50000664000175000017500000000060111724335201011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-82M5 C Which of the following statements about SSB voice transmissions is correct? A. They use A3E emission which are produced by modulating the final amplifier. B. They use F3E emission which is produced by phase shifting the carrier. C. They normally use J3E emissions, which consists of one sideband and a suppressed carrier. D. They may use A1A emission to suppress the carrier. share/E3/3-42F60000664000175000017500000000024011724335175011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-42F6 B In what stage of a VHF receiver would a low noise amplifier be most advantageous? A. IF stage. B. Front end RF stage. C. Audio stage. D. Power supply. share/E3/3-75L50000664000175000017500000000030311724335201011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-75L5 B Which of the following frequency standards is used as a time base standard by field technicians? A. Quartz Crystal. B. Rubidium Standard. C. Cesium Beam Standard. D. LC Tank Oscillator. share/E3/3-46F10000664000175000017500000000025411724335176011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-46F1 B What is the primary purpose of the final IF amplifier stage in a receiver? A. Dynamic response. B. Gain. C. Noise figure performance. D. Bypass undesired signals. share/E3/3-87N30000664000175000017500000000016611724335202011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-87N3 A In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 9 GHz B. 3 GHz C. S-band D. 406 MHz share/E3/3-4A10000664000175000017500000000023211724335172011213 0ustar jtnjtn3-4A1 B What formula would calculate the total inductance of inductors in series? A. LT = L1 / L2 B. LT = L1 + L2 C. LT = 1 / L1 + L2 D. LT = 1 / L1 x L2 share/E3/3-1A60000664000175000017500000000025411724335171011220 0ustar jtnjtn3-1A6 D What is the term for the out-of-phase power associated with inductors and capacitors? A. Effective power. B. True power. C. Peak envelope power. D. Reactive power. share/E3/3-67J50000664000175000017500000000035611724335200011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-67J5 A What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 126 watts. B. 800 watts. C. 12.5 watts. D. 1260 watts. share/E3/3-41F40000664000175000017500000000063311724335175011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-41F4 C What is meant by the term noise figure of a communications receiver? A. The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna. B. The relative strength of a received signal 3 kHz removed from the carrier frequency. C. The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding stages of a receiver. D. The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at frequencies close to the desired one. share/E3/3-12B20000664000175000017500000000023211731202307011263 0ustar jtnjtn3-12B2 C At 150 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts? A. -4.3 volts. B. -2.5 volts. C. +2.5 volts. D. +4.3 volts. share/E3/3-21C10000664000175000017500000000032511724335173011300 0ustar jtnjtn3-21C1 A A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer to: A. Improve the power factor. B. Improve output voltage regulation. C. Rectify the primary windings. D. None of these. share/E3/3-92O60000664000175000017500000000040311724335202011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-92O6 B When a RADAR is being operated on the 1.5 mile range setting, what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate? A. 0.25 s PW and 1,000 pps. B. 0.05 s PW and 2,000 pps. C. 1.0 s PW and 500 pps. D. 2.5 s PW and 2,500 pps. share/E3/3-11B10000664000175000017500000000033311724335172011274 0ustar jtnjtn3-11B1 A What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 462,100,000 Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of ± 0.1 ppm? A. 46.21 Hz. B. 0.1 MHz. C. 462.1 Hz. D. 0.2 MHz. share/E3/3-37E30000664000175000017500000000070711724335175011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-37E3 A What is a monostable multivibrator? A. A circuit that can be switched momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns after a set time to its original state. B. A "clock" circuit that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0. C. A circuit designed to store one bit of data in either the 0 or the 1 configuration. D. A circuit that maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage. share/E3/3-33E40000664000175000017500000000026711724335174011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-33E4 A TTL inputs left open develop what logic state? A. A high-logic state. B. A low-logic state. C. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored. D. Random high- and low-logic states. share/E3/3-31D30000664000175000017500000000035311724335174011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-31D3 A RF input to a mixer is 200 MHz and the local oscillator frequency is 150 MHz. What output would you expect to see at the IF output prior to any filtering? A. 50, 150, 200 and 350 MHz. B. 50 MHz. C. 350 MHz. D. 50 and 350 MHz. share/E3/3-40E50000664000175000017500000000016011724335175011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-40E5 D What integrated circuit device converts digital signals to analog signals? A. ADC B. DCC C. CDC D. DAC share/E3/3-89N20000664000175000017500000000043011724335202011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-89N2 B How should shielding be grounded on an NMEA 0183 data line? A. Unterminated at both ends. B. Terminated to ground at the talker and unterminated at the listener. C. Unterminated at the talker and terminated at the listener. D. Terminated at both the talker and listener. share/E3/3-52G10000664000175000017500000000030711724335176011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-52G1 D The class B amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. 360 degrees. B. Greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees. C. Less than 180 degrees. D. 180 degrees. share/E3/3-16B60000664000175000017500000000033011724335173011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-16B6 D In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.001-microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz? A. 318 - j400 B. 400 + j318 C. 318 + j400 D. 400 - j318 share/E3/3-99Q50000664000175000017500000000043511724335203011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-99Q5 B Why must you never look directly into a fiber optic cable? A. High power light waves can burn the skin surrounding the eye. B. An active fiber signal may burn the retina and infra-red light cannot be seen. C. The end is easy to break. D. The signal is red and you can see it. share/E3/3-84M60000664000175000017500000000032511724335201011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-84M6 C What principle allows multiple conversations to be able to share one radio channel on a GSM channel? A. Frequency Division Multiplex. B. Double sideband. C. Time Division Multiplex. D. None of the above. share/E3/3-51G10000664000175000017500000000032011724335176011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-51G1 A What class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence of output throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never goes into the cutoff region? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. share/E3/3-13B30000664000175000017500000000036111724335173011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-13B3 D 746 watts, corresponding to the lifting of 550 pounds at the rate of one-foot-per-second, is the equivalent of how much horsepower? A. One-quarter horsepower. B. One-half horsepower. C. Three-quarters horsepower. D. One horsepower. share/E3/3-74L60000664000175000017500000000026011724335200011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-74L6 C What instrument may be used to verify proper radio antenna functioning? A. Digital ohm meter. B. Hewlett-Packard frequency meter. C. An SWR meter. D. Different radio. share/E3/3-39E30000664000175000017500000000015211724335175011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-39E3 D Which of the following is not part of a MCU processor? A. RAM B. ROM C. I/O D. Voltage Regulator share/E3/3-39E20000664000175000017500000000027111724335175011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-39E2 B What does the term "DAC" refer to in a microprocessor circuit? A. Dynamic access controller. B. Digital to analog converter. C. Digital access counter. D. Dial analog control. share/E3/3-54G10000664000175000017500000000031611724335177011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-54G1 B What is an L-network? A. A low power Wi-Fi RF network connection. B. A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor. C. A "lossy" network. D. A network formed by joining two low pass filters. share/E3/3-99Q10000664000175000017500000000045011724335203011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-99Q1 A Compliance with MPE, or Maximum Permissible Exposure to RF levels (as defined in FCC Part 1, OET Bulletin 65) for "controlled" environments, are averaged over _______ minutes, while "uncontrolled" RF environments are averaged over ______ minutes. A. 6, 30. B. 30, 6. C. 1, 15. D. 15, 1. share/E3/3-72K60000664000175000017500000000065111724335200011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-72K6 B What type of antenna is attached to an aircraft's Mode C transponder installation and used to receive 1030 MHz interrogation signals from the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. An electronically steerable phased-array directional antenna. B. An L-band monopole blade-type omnidirectional antenna. C. A folded dipole reception antenna. D. An internally mounted, mechanically rotatable loop antenna. share/E3/3-40E20000664000175000017500000000020711724335175011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-40E2 C What does the term "BCD" mean? A. Binaural coded digit. B. Bit count decimal. C. Binary coded decimal. D. Broad course digit. share/E3/3-97P60000664000175000017500000000043211724335203011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-97P6 C What services are provided by the INMARSAT-M service? A. Data and Fax at 4.8 kbps plus e-mail. B. Voice at 3 kHz, Fax at 9.6 kbps and Data at 4.8 kbps. C. Voice at 6.2 kbps, Data at 2.4 kbps, Fax at 2.4 kbps and e-mail. D. Data at 4.8 kbps and Fax at 9.6 kbps plus e-mail. share/E3/3-100Q20000664000175000017500000000053611724335203011373 0ustar jtnjtn3-100Q2 C What is the purpose of not putting sharp corners on the ground leads within a building? A. No reason. B. It is easier to install. C. Lightning will jump off of the ground lead because it is not able to make sharp bends. D. Ground leads should always be made to look good in an installation, including the use of sharp bends in the corners. share/E3/3-82M10000664000175000017500000000042211724335201011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-82M1 D What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence? A. Amplitude compandored single sideband. B. SITOR. C. Time-domain frequency modulation. D. Spread spectrum communication. share/E3/3-85N20000664000175000017500000000013111724335202011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-85N2 B What VHF channel is assigned for distress and calling? A. 70 B. 16 C. 21A D. 68 share/E3/3-94O40000664000175000017500000000041511724335202011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-94O4 C Which of the following is NOT a precaution that should be taken to ensure the magnetron is not weakened: A. Keep metal tools away from the magnet. B. Do not subject it to excessive heat. C. Keep the TR properly tuned. D. Do not subject it to shocks and blows. share/E3/3-6A50000664000175000017500000000030511724335172011222 0ustar jtnjtn3-6A5 C By what factor must the voltage measured in an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the average voltage value? A. 0.707 B. 1.414 C. 0.9 D. 3.14 share/E3/3-26C10000664000175000017500000000044011724335174011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-26C1 B A common base amplifier has: A. More current gain than common emitter or common collector. B. More voltage gain than common emitter or common collector. C. More power gain than common emitter or common collector. D. Highest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations. share/E3/3-70K20000664000175000017500000000164411724335200011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-70K2 C What is the frequency range of the marker beacon system used to indicate an aircraft's position during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport's runway? A. The outer, middle, and inner marker beacons' UHF frequencies are unique for each ILS equipped airport to provide unambiguous frequency-protected reception areas in the 329.15 to 335.00 MHz range. B. The outer marker beacon's carrier frequency is 400 MHz, the middle marker beacon's carrier frequency is 1300 MHz, and the inner marker beacon's carrier frequency is 3000 MHz. C. The outer, the middle, and the inner marker beacon's carrier frequencies are all 75 MHz but the marker beacons are 95% tone-modulated at 400 Hz (outer), 1300 Hz (middle), and 3000 Hz (inner). D. The outer, marker beacon's carrier frequency is 3000 kHz, the middle marker beacon's carrier frequency is 1300 kHz, and the inner marker beacon's carrier frequency is 400 kHz. share/E3/3-31D10000664000175000017500000000042711724335174011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-31D1 A What frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase comparator, look-up table, digital-to-analog converter, and a low-pass antialias filter? A. A direct digital synthesizer. B. Phase-locked-loop synthesizer. C. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer. D. A hybrid synthesizer. share/E3/3-28C40000664000175000017500000000051311724335174011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-28C4 A What is the piezoelectric effect? A. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage. B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field. C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light. D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light. share/E3/3-34E40000664000175000017500000000054211724335175011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-34E4 C What is a characteristic of a NOR gate? A. Produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0". B. Produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1". C. Produces a logic "0" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1". D. Produces a logic "1" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1". share/E3/3-21C60000664000175000017500000000044211724335173011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-21C6 D A power transformer has a primary winding of 200 turns of #24 wire and a secondary winding consisting of 500 turns of the same size wire. When 20 volts are applied to the primary winding, the expected secondary voltage will be: A. 500 volts. B. 25 volts. C. 10 volts. D. 50 volts. share/E3/3-58H30000664000175000017500000000046211724335177011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-58H3 C What kind of input signal could be used to test the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output on an oscilloscope? A. Whistling in the microphone. B. An audio frequency sine wave. C. A two-tone audio-frequency sine wave. D. An audio frequency square wave. share/E3/3-38E60000664000175000017500000000050611724335175011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-38E6 B What is the name of the random-accessed semiconductor memory IC that must be refreshed periodically to maintain reliable data storage in its memory matrix? A. ROM " Read-Only Memory. B. DRAM " Dynamic Random-Access Memory. C. PROM " Programmable Read-Only Memory. D. PRAM " Programmable Random-Access Memory. share/E3/3-46F20000664000175000017500000000035511724335176011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-46F2 C What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency? A. Cross-modulation distortion and interference. B. Interference to other services. C. Image rejection and selectivity. D. Noise figure and distortion. share/E3/3-32D20000664000175000017500000000022711724335174011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-32D2 C Which lamps would be lit in the circuit shown in Figure 3D8? A. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. B. 5, 6, 8 and 9. C. 2, 3, 4, 7 and 8. D. 1, 3, 5, 7 and 8. share/E3/3-12B30000664000175000017500000000023211731202325011264 0ustar jtnjtn3-12B3 A At 240 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts? A. -4.3 volts. B. -2.5 volts. C. +2.5 volts. D. +4.3 volts. share/E3/3-30D50000664000175000017500000000022011731202361011265 0ustar jtnjtn3-30D5 D Which of the following op-amp circuits is operated open-loop? A. Non-inverting amp. B. Inverting amp. C. Active filter. D. Comparator. share/E3/3-42F40000664000175000017500000000041211724335175011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-42F4 D Too much gain in a VHF receiver front end could result in this: A. Local signals become weaker. B. Difficult to match receiver impedances. C. Dramatic increase in receiver current. D. Susceptibility of intermodulation interference from nearby transmitters. share/E3/3-16B10000664000175000017500000000033311724335173011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-16B1 C What is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 20-ohm resistor, at 30 MHz? Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates. A. 20 -j19 B. 19 +j20 C. 20 +j19 D. 19 -j20 share/E3/3-14B50000664000175000017500000000023511724335173011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-14B5 C After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage? A. 36.8 % B. 63.2 % C. 86.5 % D. 95 % share/E3/3-63J60000664000175000017500000000050711724335177011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-63J6 B What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth? A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements. B. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well. C. The angle between the half-power radiation points. D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements. share/E3/3-43F20000664000175000017500000000020711731201655011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-43F2 A What is the oscillator stage called in a frequency synthesizer? A. VCO. B. Divider. C. Phase detector. D. Reference standard. share/E3/3-14B60000664000175000017500000000024411724335173011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-14B6 B After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage? A. 86.5 % B. 13.5 % C. 63.2 % D. 36.8 % share/E3/3-95P20000664000175000017500000000024411724335203011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-95P2 B What frequency band is used by the Iridium system for telephone and messaging? A. 965 - 985 MHz. B. 1616 -1626 MHz. C. 1855 -1895 MHz. D. 2415 - 2435 MHz. share/E3/3-78L20000664000175000017500000000050411724335201011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-78L2 B Which of the following answers is true? A. The RF Power reading on a CDMA (code division multiple access) radio will be very accurate on an analog power meter. B. The RF Power reading on a CDMA radio is not accurate on an analog power meter. C. Power cannot be measured using CDMA modulation. D. None of the above. share/E3/3-100Q30000664000175000017500000000026311724335203011371 0ustar jtnjtn3-100Q3 B Should you use a power drill without eye protection? A. Yes. B. No. C. It's okay as long as you keep your face away from the drill bit. D. Only in an extreme emergency. share/E3/3-8A50000664000175000017500000000050211724335172011223 0ustar jtnjtn3-8A5 D How do you compute true power (power dissipated in the circuit) in a circuit where AC voltage and current are out of phase? A. Multiply RMS voltage times RMS current. B. Subtract apparent power from the power factor. C. Divide apparent power by the power factor. D. Multiply apparent power times the power factor. share/E3/3-9B40000664000175000017500000000024511724335172011230 0ustar jtnjtn3-9B4 A If a 100-ohm resistor is connected across 200 volts, what is the current through the resistor? A. 2 amperes. B. 1 ampere. C. 300 amperes. D. 20,000 amperes. share/E3/3-16B20000664000175000017500000000030211724335173011277 0ustar jtnjtn3-16B2 D In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz? A. 30 -j3 B. 3 +j30 C. 3 -j30 D. 30 +j3 share/E3/3-88N50000664000175000017500000000026611724335202011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-88N5 D Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 2187.5 kHz. B. 4209.5 kHz. C. VHF channel 16. D. 518 kHz. share/E3/3-23C20000664000175000017500000000024711724335173011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-23C2 A What are the three terminals of an SCR? A. Anode, cathode, and gate. B. Gate, source, and sink. C. Base, collector, and emitter. D. Gate, base 1, and base 2. share/E3/3-9B60000664000175000017500000000032311724335172011227 0ustar jtnjtn3-9B6 C A relay coil has 500 ohms resistance, and operates on 125 mA. What value of resistance should be connected in series with it to operate from 110 V DC? A. 150 ohms. B. 220 ohms. C. 380 ohms. D. 470 ohms. share/E3/3-89N40000664000175000017500000000023011724335202011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-89N4 A In an NMEA 2000 device, a load equivalence number (LEN) of 1 is equivalent to how much current consumption? A. 50 mA B. 10 mA C. 25 mA D. 5 mA share/E3/3-60I20000664000175000017500000000037511724335177011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-60I2 C A battery with a terminal voltage of 12.5 volts is to be trickle-charged at a 0.5 A rate. What resistance should be connected in series with the battery to charge it from a 110-V DC line? A. 95 ohms. B. 300 ohms. C. 195 ohms. D. None of these. share/E3/3-57H60000664000175000017500000000035511724335177011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-57H6 C In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency? A. Deviation index. B. Modulation index. C. Deviation ratio. D. Modulation ratio. share/E3/3-1A30000664000175000017500000000022711724335171011215 0ustar jtnjtn3-1A3 A What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? A. Joules. B. Coulombs. C. Watts. D. Volts. share/E3/3-35E40000664000175000017500000000025011724335175011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-35E4 A In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1? A. High level B. Low level C. Positive-transition level D. Negative-transition level share/E3/3-3A10000664000175000017500000000023411724335172011214 0ustar jtnjtn3-3A1 C What metal is usually employed as a sacrificial anode for corrosion control purposes? A. Platinum bushing. B. Lead bar. C. Zinc bar. D. Brass rod. share/E3/3-64J10000664000175000017500000000021511724335200011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-64J1 B What is the current flowing through a 52 ohm line with an input of 1,872 watts? A. 0.06 amps. B. 6 amps. C. 28.7 amps. D. 144 amps. share/E3/3-32D10000664000175000017500000000023311724335174011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-32D1 D Given the combined DC input voltages, what would the output voltage be in the circuit shown in Figure 3D7? A. 150 mV B. 5.5 V C. -15 mv D. -5.5 V share/E3/3-92O20000664000175000017500000000037611724335202011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-92O2 C When a RADAR is being operated on the 6 mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate? A. 1.0 s PW and 500 pps. B. 2.0 s PW and 3,000 pps. C. 0.25 s PW and 1,000 pps. D. 0.01 s PW and 500 pps. share/E3/3-40E40000664000175000017500000000016311724335175011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-40E4 C What integrated circuit device converts an analog signal to a digital signal? A. DAC B. DCC C. ADC D. CDC share/E3/3-86N20000664000175000017500000000026011724335202011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-86N2 C What might contribute to apparent low voltage on marine SSB transmitting? A. Blown red fuse. B. Too much grounding. C. Blown black negative fuse. D. Antenna mismatch. share/E3/3-47F60000664000175000017500000000044611724335176011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-47F6 C What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter? A. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies. B. It only requires capacitors. C. It has a maximally flat response over its passband. D. It requires only inductors. share/E3/3-51G30000664000175000017500000000020311724335176011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-51G3 A Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class AB. share/E3/3-92O50000664000175000017500000000041411724335202011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-92O5 C What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at short ranges? A. Wide pulse width and fast repetition rate. B. Narrow pulse width and slow repetition rate. C. Narrow pulse width and fast repetition rates. D. Wide pulse width and slow repetition rates. share/E3/3-24C30000664000175000017500000000031611724335174011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-24C3 A Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes? A. Junction and point contact. B. Electrolytic and junction. C. Electrolytic and point contact. D. Vacuum and point contact. share/E3/3-55G40000664000175000017500000000030711724335177011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-55G4 A What is the approximate ratio of peak envelope power to average power during normal voice modulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal? A. 2.5 to 1. B. 1 to 1. C. 25 to 1. D. 100 to 1. share/E3/3-45F10000664000175000017500000000022311724335176011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-45F1 D What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a wideband FM phone receiver? A. 1 kHz. B. 2.4 kHz. C. 4.2 kHz. D. 15 kHz. share/E3/3-37E60000664000175000017500000000030711724335175011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-37E6 C What wave form would appear on the voltage outputs at the collectors of an astable, multivibrator, common-emitter stage? A. Sine wave. B. Sawtooth wave. C. Square wave. D. Half-wave pulses. share/E3/3-37E40000664000175000017500000000016311724335175011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-37E4 D What is a bistable multivibrator circuit commonly named? A. AND gate. B. OR gate. C. Clock. D. Flip-flop. share/E3/3-23C10000664000175000017500000000035111724335174011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-23C1 C How might two similar SCRs be connected to safely distribute the power load of a circuit? A. In series. B. In parallel, same polarity. C. In parallel, reverse polarity. D. In a combination series and parallel configuration. share/E3/3-29D10000664000175000017500000000040311724335174011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-29D1 A What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance. B. Approximately equal to XL. C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance. D. Approximately equal to XC. share/E3/3-50F60000664000175000017500000000056711724335176011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-50F6 A Pulse type interference to automobile radio receivers that appears related to the speed of the engine can often be reduced by: A. Installing resistances in series with spark plug wires. B. Using heavy conductors between the starting battery and the starting motor. C. Connecting resistances in series with the battery. D. Grounding the negative side of the battery. share/E3/3-95P40000664000175000017500000000050411724335203011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-95P4 A Which of the following statements about the Iridium system is true? A. There are 48 spot beams per satellite with a footprint of 30 miles in diameter. B. There are 48 satellites in orbit in 4 orbital planes. C. The inclination of the orbital planes is 55 degrees. D. The orbital period is approximately 85 minutes. share/E3/3-40E60000664000175000017500000000014111724335175011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-40E6 A In binary numbers, how would you note the quantity TWO? A. 0010 B. 0002 C. 2000 D. 0020 share/E3/3-96P30000664000175000017500000000046011724335203011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-96P3 D What are the directional characteristics of the INMARSAT-C SES antenna? A. Highly directional parabolic antenna requiring stabilization. B. Wide beam width in a cardioid pattern off the front of the antenna. C. Very narrow beam width straight-up from the top of the antenna. D. Omnidirectional. share/E3/3-84M30000664000175000017500000000065311724335201011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-84M3 A Which statement best describes the code used for GMDSS-DSC transmissions? A. A 10 bit error correcting code starting with bits of data followed by a 3 bit error correcting code. B. A 10 bit error correcting code starting with a 3 bit error correcting code followed by 7 bits of data. C. An 8 bit code with 7 bits of data followed by a single parity bit. D. A 7 bit code that is transmitted twice for error correction. share/E3/3-37E20000664000175000017500000000046411724335175011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-37E2 D What is an astable multivibrator? A. A circuit that alternates between two stable states. B. A circuit that alternates between a stable state and an unstable state. C. A circuit set to block either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse and pass the other. D. A circuit that alternates between two unstable states. share/E3/3-25C20000664000175000017500000000026211724335174011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-25C2 B What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor? A. Cathode, plate and grid. B. Base, collector and emitter. C. Gate, source and sink. D. Input, output and ground. share/E3/3-72K30000664000175000017500000000036311724335200011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-72K3 A What is the frequency range of an aircraft's Very High Frequency (VHF) communications? A. 118.000 MHz to 136.975 MHz (worldwide up to 151.975 MHz). B. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. D. 2.000 MHz to 29.999 MHz. share/E3/3-54G60000664000175000017500000000020711724335176011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-54G6 C Which network provides the greatest harmonic suppression? A. L network. B. Pi network. C. Pi-L network. D. Inverse L network. share/E3/3-88N60000664000175000017500000000060611724335202011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-88N6 B What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver does not print a particular type of message content? A. The message does not concern your vessel. B. The subject indicator matches that programmed for rejection by the operator. C. The transmitting station ID covering your area has not been programmed for rejection by the operator. D. All messages sent during each broadcast are printed. share/E3/3-82M30000664000175000017500000000052711724335201011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-82M3 A What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications system where the center frequency of a conventional carrier is altered many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels? A. Frequency hopping. B. Direct sequence. C. Time-domain frequency modulation. D. Frequency compandored spread spectrum. share/E3/3-2A10000664000175000017500000000034411724335172011215 0ustar jtnjtn3-2A1 D What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor? A. The resistance divided by the current. B. The ratio of the current to the resistance. C. The diameter of the conductor. D. The amount of current. share/E3/3-9B50000664000175000017500000000023211724335172011225 0ustar jtnjtn3-9B5 B If a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts, what is the resistance? A. 3 ohms. B. 30 ohms. C. 93 ohms. D. 270 ohms. share/E3/3-58H50000664000175000017500000000045111724335177011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-58H5 D How can a double-sideband phone signal be produced? A. By using a reactance modulator. B. By varying the voltage to the varactor in an oscillator circuit. C. By using a phase detector, oscillator, and filter in a feedback loop. D. By modulating the supply voltage to a class C amplifier. share/E3/3-47F10000664000175000017500000000017311731202523011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-47F1 B A good crystal band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone would be? A. 5 KHz. B. 2.1 KHz. C. 500 Hz. D. 15 KHz. share/E3/3-33E20000664000175000017500000000031211724335175011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-33E2 A What is the voltage range considered to be a valid logic high input in a TTL device operating at 5.0 volts? A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts. B. 1.5 to 3.0 volts. C. 1.0 to 1.5 volts. D. 5.2 to 34.8 volts. share/E3/3-37E50000664000175000017500000000014411724335175011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-37E5 A What is a bistable multivibrator circuit? A. Flip-flop. B. AND gate. C. OR gate. D. Clock. share/E3/3-96P10000664000175000017500000000020411724335203011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-96P1 B What is the orbital altitude of INMARSAT Satellites? A. 16, 436 miles. B. 22,177 miles. C. 10, 450 miles. D. 26,435 miles. share/E3/3-68K10000664000175000017500000000044111724335200011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-68K1 C What is the frequency range of the Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) used to indicate an aircraft's slant range distance to a selected ground-based navigation station? A. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. B. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. C. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz. D. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. share/E3/3-32D50000664000175000017500000000013711724335174011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-32D5 C In Figure 3D10 with a square wave input what would be the output? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-85N60000664000175000017500000000042211724335201011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-85N6 A How might an installer verify correct GPS sentence to marine DSC VHF radio? A. Look for latitude and longitude, plus speed, on VHF display. B. Press and hold the red distress button. C. Look for GPS confirmation readout. D. Ask for VHF radio check position report. share/E3/3-27C10000664000175000017500000000023111724335174011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-27C1 B What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence? A. Reverse bias. B. Forward bias. C. Logic 0 (Lo) bias. D. Logic 1 (Hi) bias. share/E3/3-86N30000664000175000017500000000024111724335202011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-86N3 D What type of wire connects an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay? A. RG8U. B. RG213. C. 16-gauge two-conductor. D. GTO-15 high-voltage cable. share/E3/3-94O20000664000175000017500000000040011724335202011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-94O2 D Prior to testing any RADAR system, the operator should first: A. Check the system grounds. B. Assure the display unit is operating normally. C. Inform the airport control tower or ship's master. D. Assure no personnel are in front of the antenna. share/E3/3-40E30000664000175000017500000000041511724335175011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-40E3 B What is the function of a decade counter digital IC? A. Decode a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display. B. Produce one output pulse for every ten input pulses. C. Produce ten output pulses for every input pulse. D. Add two decimal numbers. share/E3/3-74L30000664000175000017500000000056411724335200011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-74L3 A What is the purpose of a series multiplier resistor used with a voltmeter? A. It is used to increase the voltage-indicating range of the voltmeter. B. A multiplier resistor is not used with a voltmeter. C. It is used to decrease the voltage-indicating range of the voltmeter. D. It is used to increase the current-indicating range of an ammeter, not a voltmeter. share/E3/3-98P50000664000175000017500000000015111724335203011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-98P5 D How many satellites must be received to provide complete position and time? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-94O50000664000175000017500000000027011724335202011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-94O5 B Exposure to microwave energy from RADAR or other electronics devices is limited by U.S. Health Department regulations to _______ mW/centimeter. A. 0.005 B. 5.0 C. 0.05 D. 0.5 share/E3/3-28C10000664000175000017500000000026411724335174011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-28C1 C What describes a diode junction that is forward biased? A. It is a high impedance. B. It conducts very little current. C. It is a low impedance. D. It is an open circuit. share/E3/3-13B40000664000175000017500000000053011724335173011301 0ustar jtnjtn3-13B4 A In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be determined? A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor. B. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor. C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor. D. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current. share/E3/3-65J50000664000175000017500000000027311724335200011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-65J5 B What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils? A. It is increased. B. It is decreased. C. No change occurs. D. It becomes flat. share/E3/3-97P20000664000175000017500000000032111724335203011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-97P2 D The INMARSAT mini-M system is a: A. Marine SONAR system. B. Marine global satellite system. C. Marine depth finder. D. Satellite system utilizing spot beams to provide for small craft communications. share/E3/3-83M20000664000175000017500000000041111724335201011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-83M2 A The GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) uses what type of CODEC for digital mobile radio system communications? A. Regular-Pulse Excited (RPE). B. Code-Excited Linear Predictive (CLEP). C. Multi-Pulse Excited (MPE). D. Linear Excited Code (LEC). share/E3/3-10B60000664000175000017500000000024011731202174011266 0ustar jtnjtn3-10B6 A What is the maximum rated current-carrying capacity of a resistor marked "2000 ohms, 200 watts"? A. 0.316 amps. B. 3.16 amps. C. 10 amps. D. 100 amps. share/E3/3-36E40000664000175000017500000000014711724335175011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-36E4 A How many bits of information can be stored in a single flip-flop circuit? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-44F50000664000175000017500000000050411724335176011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-44F5 B If a receiver mixes a 13.8 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz receive signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver? A. Local oscillator interference. B. An image response. C. Mixer interference. D. Intermediate frequency interference. share/E3/3-66J20000664000175000017500000000027011724335200011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-66J2 C What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line? A. The termination impedance. B. The line length. C. Dielectrics in the line. D. The center conductor resistivity. share/E3/3-84M20000664000175000017500000000021411724335201011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-84M2 D What does the DSP not do in a modern DSP radio? A. Control frequency. B. Control modulation. C. Control detection. D. Control SWR. share/E3/3-38E40000664000175000017500000000022411724335175011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-38E4 A What is the name for a microprocessor's sequence of commands and instructions? A. Program. B. Sequence. C. Data string. D. Data execution. share/E3/3-45F30000664000175000017500000000024311724335176011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-45F3 C A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals? A. CW. B. Double-sideband AM voice. C. SSB voice. D. FSK RTTY. share/E3/3-14B20000664000175000017500000000041111724335173011276 0ustar jtnjtn3-14B2 D) What is the meaning of the term "time constant of an RC circuit"? The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to: A. 23.7% of the supply voltage. B. 36.8% of the supply voltage. C. 57.3% of the supply voltage. D. 63.2% of the supply voltage. share/E3/3-53G40000664000175000017500000000052311724335176011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-53G4 A How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency? A. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency. B. Modulation index increases as the RF carrier frequency increases. C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency. D. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases. share/E3/3-90O20000664000175000017500000000032211724335202011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-90O2 C The RADAR range in nautical miles to an object can be found by measuring the elapsed time during a RADAR pulse and dividing this quantity by: A. 0.87 seconds. B. 1.15 µs. C. 12.346 µs. D. 1.073 µs. share/E3/3-62I10000664000175000017500000000031211724335177011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-62I1 D What occurs if the load is removed from an operating series DC motor? A. It will stop running. B. Speed will increase slightly. C. No change occurs. D. It will accelerate until it falls apart. share/E3/3-20C20000664000175000017500000000033511724335173011301 0ustar jtnjtn3-20C2 C In Figure 3C4, if a small variable capacitor were installed in place of the dashed line, it would? A. Increase gain. B. Increase parasitic oscillations. C. Decrease parasitic oscillations. D. Decrease crosstalk. share/E3/3-68K40000664000175000017500000000113311724335200011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-68K4 A What is the main underlying operating principle of an aircraft's Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)? A. A measurable amount of time is required to send and receive a radio signal through the Earth's atmosphere. B. The difference between the peak values of two DC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's distance to another aircraft. C. A measurable frequency compression of an AC signal may be used to determine an aircraft's altitude above the earth. D. A phase inversion between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's distance to the exit ramp of an airport's runway. share/E3/3-39E60000664000175000017500000000025511724335175011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-39E6 C What circuit interconnects the microprocessor with the memory and input/output system? A. Control logic bus. B. PLL line. C. Data bus line. D. Directional coupler. share/E3/3-10B50000664000175000017500000000016211731202156011270 0ustar jtnjtn3-10B5 D In Figure 3B2, what is the voltage drop across R1? A. 1.2 volts. B. 2.4 volts. C. 3.7 volts. D. 9 volts. share/E3/3-81L50000664000175000017500000000040511724335201011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-81L5 B How might an installer verify correct GPS sentence to marine DSC VHF radio? A. Press and hold the red distress button. B. Look for latitude and longitude on the display. C. Look for GPS confirmation readout. D. Ask for VHF radio check position report. share/E3/3-59H50000664000175000017500000000037611724335177011336 0ustar jtnjtn3-59H5 B In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary? A. The number of pulses per second. B. The time at which each pulse occurs. C. Both the frequency and amplitude of the pulses. D. The duration of the pulses. share/E3/3-8A20000664000175000017500000000050711724335172011225 0ustar jtnjtn3-8A2 B What happens to reactive power in a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors? A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit. B. It alternates between magnetic and electric fields and is not dissipated. C. It is dissipated as inductive and capacitive fields. D. It is dissipated as kinetic energy within the circuit. share/E3/3-28C20000664000175000017500000000045011724335174011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-28C2 B Why are special precautions necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices? A. They have fragile leads that may break off. B. They are susceptible to damage from static charges. C. They have micro-welded semiconductor junctions that are susceptible to breakage. D. They are light sensitive. share/E3/3-14B30000664000175000017500000000034611724335173011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-14B3 A) What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value? A. One time constant. B. An exponential period of one. C. A time factor of one. D. One exponential rate. share/E3/3-86N50000664000175000017500000000102711724335202011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-86N5 C The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences? A. One-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. B. One-way communications to all stations, two-way communications, one-way communications to a single station. C. Two way communications, one-way communications to all stations, one-way communications to a single station. D. Two way communications, one-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations. share/E3/3-43F40000664000175000017500000000023711731201676011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-43F4 A Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)? A. Colpitts. B. Pierce. C. Hartley. D. Negative feedback. share/E3/3-9B30000664000175000017500000000024211724335172011224 0ustar jtnjtn3-9B3 D If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the resistor? A. 25 volts. B. 52 volts. C. 200 volts. D. 100 volts. share/E3/3-82M60000664000175000017500000000031611724335201011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-82M6 B What are the two most-used PCS (Personal Communications Systems) coding techniques used to separate different calls? A. QPSK and QAM. B. CDMA and GSM. C. ABCD and SYZ. D. AM and Frequency Hopping. share/E3/3-99Q40000664000175000017500000000025011724335203011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-99Q4 A At what aggregate power level is an MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) study required? A. 1000 Watts ERP. B. 500 Watts ERP. C. 100 Watts ERP. D. Not required. share/E3/3-22C20000664000175000017500000000052711724335173011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-22C2 C A switching electronic voltage regulator: A. Varies the conduction of a control element in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current. B. Provides more than one output voltage. C. Switches the control device on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions. D. Gives a ramp voltage at its output. share/E3/3-63J40000664000175000017500000000032311724335177011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-63J4 A What is an advantage of using a trap antenna? A. It may be used for multiband operation. B. It has high directivity in the high-frequency bands. C. It has high gain. D. It minimizes harmonic radiation. share/E3/3-7A40000664000175000017500000000051311724335172011223 0ustar jtnjtn3-7A4 D What is the description of a square wave? A. A wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle. B. A wave whose periodic function is always negative. C. A wave whose periodic function is always positive. D. A wave that abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and stays at these levels for equal amounts of time. share/E3/3-22C40000664000175000017500000000027111724335173011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-22C4 D In a regulated power supply, what type of component will most likely be used to establish a reference voltage? A. Tunnel Diode. B. Battery. C. Pass Transistor. D. Zener Diode. share/E3/3-15B10000664000175000017500000000027711724335173011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-15B1 D What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel? A. 22 seconds. B. 44 seconds. C. 440 seconds. D. 220 seconds. share/E3/3-99Q20000664000175000017500000000032611724335203011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-99Q2 B Sites having multiple transmitting antennas must include antennas with more than _______% of the maximum permissible power density exposure limit when evaluating RF site exposure. A. Any B. 5 C. 1 D. 12.5 share/E3/3-96P50000664000175000017500000000074011724335203011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-96P5 C Which of the following statements concerning INMARSAT geostationary satellites is true? A. They are in a polar orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. B. They are in an equatorial orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. C. They provide coverage to vessels in nearly all of the world's navigable waters. D. Vessels sailing in equatorial waters are able to use only one satellite, whereas other vessels are able to choose between at least two satellites. share/E3/3-51G50000664000175000017500000000021511724335176011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-51G5 B What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well beyond cutoff? A. Class A. B. Class C. C. Class B. D. Class AB. share/E3/3-54G40000664000175000017500000000042011724335177011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-54G4 C Which three network types are commonly used to match an amplifying device to a transmission line? A. Pi-C network, pi network and T network. B. T network, M network and Z network. C. L network, pi network and pi-L network. D. L network, pi network and C network. share/E3/3-63J30000664000175000017500000000033611724335177011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-63J3 D A radio frequency device that allows RF energy to pass through in one direction with very little loss but absorbs RF power in the opposite direction is a: A. Circulator. B. Wave trap. C. Multiplexer. D. Isolator. share/E3/3-6A60000664000175000017500000000020411724335172011221 0ustar jtnjtn3-6A6 D What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? A. 234 volts. B. 117 volts. C. 331 volts. D. 165.5 volts. share/E3/3-56G40000664000175000017500000000035111724335177011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-56G4 A What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier varies according to some pre-determined sequence? A. Spread-spectrum communication. B. AMTOR. C. SITOR. D. Time-domain frequency modulation. share/E3/3-52G30000664000175000017500000000030411724335176011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-52G3 A The class C amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. Less than 180 degrees. B. Exactly 180 degrees. C. 360 degrees. D. More than 180 but less than 360 degrees. share/E3/3-16B50000664000175000017500000000033011724335173011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-16B5 C In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.01-microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz? A. 150 - j159 B. 150 + j159 C. 159 - j150 D. 159 + j150 share/E3/3-25C60000664000175000017500000000041411724335174011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-25C6 A What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated? A. The collector current is at its maximum value. B. The collector current is at its minimum value. C. The transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value. D. The transistor's Beta is at its maximum value. share/E3/3-26C40000664000175000017500000000066611724335174011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-26C4 A What conditions exists when a transistor is operating in saturation? A. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both forward biased. B. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both reverse biased. C. The base-emitter junction is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased. D. The base-emitter junction is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased. share/E3/3-73K30000664000175000017500000000033711724335200011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-73K3 D Typical airborne HF transmitters usually provide a nominal RF power output to the antenna of ____ watts, compared with ____ watts RF output from a typical VHF transmitter. A. 10, 50 B. 50, 10 C. 20, 100 D. 100, 20 share/E3/3-65J30000664000175000017500000000030411724335200011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-65J3 C An excited 1/2 wavelength antenna produces: A. Residual fields. B. An electro-magnetic field only. C. Both electro-magnetic and electro-static fields. D. An electro-flux field sometimes. share/E3/3-77L30000664000175000017500000000016711724335201011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-77L3 A What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude. B. Duration. C. Frequency. D. Time. share/E3/3-39E10000664000175000017500000000045711724335175011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-39E1 A In a microprocessor-controlled two-way radio, a "watchdog" timer: A. Verifies that the microprocessor is executing the program. B. Assures that the transmission is exactly on frequency. C. Prevents the transmitter from exceeding allowed power out. D. Connects to the system RADAR presentation. share/E3/3-71K40000664000175000017500000000044711724335200011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-71K4 C In addition to duplicating the functions of a mode C transponder, an aircraft's mode S transponder can also provide: A. Primary RADAR surveillance capabilities. B. Long range lightning detection. C. Mid-Air collision avoidance capabilities. D. Backup VHF voice communication abilities. share/E3/3-9B10000664000175000017500000000032711724335172011226 0ustar jtnjtn3-9B1 A What value of series resistor would be needed to obtain a full scale deflection on a 50 microamp DC meter with an applied voltage of 200 volts DC? A. 4 megohms. B. 2 megohms. C. 400 kilohms. D. 200 kilohms. share/E3/3-50F30000664000175000017500000000040211724335176011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-50F3 B What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received? A. Intermodulation distortion. B. Cross-modulation interference. C. Receiver quieting. D. Capture effect. share/E3/3-55G20000664000175000017500000000033111724335177011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-55G2 B To produce a single-sideband suppressed carrier transmission it is necessary to ____ the carrier and to ____ the unwanted sideband. A. Filter, filter. B. Cancel, filter. C. Filter, cancel. D. Cancel, cancel. share/E3/3-56G30000664000175000017500000000060211724335177011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-56G3 D What is the name of the condition that occurs when the signals of two transmitters in close proximity mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original transmissions are generated? A. Amplifier desensitization. B. Neutralization. C. Adjacent channel interference. D. Intermodulation interference. share/E3/3-24C60000664000175000017500000000030411724335174011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-24C6 C What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode? A. High forward resistance. B. Very high PIV(peak inverse voltage). C. Negative resistance region. D. High forward current rating. share/E3/3-11B40000664000175000017500000000034511724335172011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-11B4 C What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of ± 1.0 ppm? A. 165.2 Hz. B. 15.652 kHz. C. 156.52 Hz. D. 1.4652 MHz. share/E3/3-93O30000664000175000017500000000045111724335202011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-93O3 D What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain is increased? The beamwidth: A. Increases geometrically as the gain is increased. B. Increases arithmetically as the gain is increased. C. Is essentially unaffected by the gain of the antenna. D. Decreases as the gain is increased. share/E3/3-5A10000664000175000017500000000043711724335172011223 0ustar jtnjtn3-5A1 D What are the two most commonly-used specifications for a junction diode? A. Maximum forward current and capacitance. B. Maximum reverse current and PIV (peak inverse voltage). C. Maximum reverse current and capacitance. D. Maximum forward current and PIV (peak inverse voltage). share/E3/3-41F10000664000175000017500000000036111724335175011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-41F1 A What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver? A. The noise floor of the receiver. B. The power supply output ripple. C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion. D. The input impedance to the detector. share/E3/3-69K10000664000175000017500000000021111724335200011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-69K1 A All directions associated with a VOR station are related to: A. Magnetic north. B. North pole. C. North star. D. None of these. share/E3/3-55G50000664000175000017500000000033211724335177011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-55G5 B What is the output peak envelope power from a transmitter as measured on an oscilloscope showing 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load resistor? A. 1,000 watts. B. 100 watts. C. 200 watts. D. 400 watts. share/E3/3-43F10000664000175000017500000000035311724335176011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-43F1 C Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)? A. It can be phase locked. B. It can be remotely tuned. C. It is stable. D. It has little or no effect on the crystal's stability. share/E3/3-95P10000664000175000017500000000023011724335203011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-95P1 D What is the orbiting altitude of the Iridium satellite communications system? A. 22,184 miles. B. 11,492 miles. C. 4,686 miles. D. 485 miles. share/E3/3-86N60000664000175000017500000000100411724335202011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-86N6 D Which of the following statements concerning SITOR communications is true? A. Communication is established on the working channel and answerbacks are exchanged before FEC broadcasts can be received. B. In the ARQ mode each character is transmitted twice. C. Weather broadcasts cannot be made in FEC because sending each character twice would cause the broadcast to be prohibitively long. D. Two-way communication with the coast radio station using FEC is not necessary to be able to receive the broadcasts. share/E3/3-19C20000664000175000017500000000046511724335173011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-19C2 B What is the photoconductive effect? A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy. B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction. C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy. D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction. share/E3/3-30D30000664000175000017500000000041411724335174011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-30D3 B Gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit is determined by? A. The maximum operating frequency divided by the square root of the load impedance. B. The op-amp's external feedback network. C. Supply voltage and slew rate. D. The op-amp's internal feedback network. share/E3/3-17B30000664000175000017500000000037711724335173011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-17B3 C In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms, /36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms, /-36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms, /-53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms, /53.1 degrees share/E3/3-26C30000664000175000017500000000042611724335174011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-26C3 D An emitter-follower amplifier has: A. More voltage gain than common emitter or common base. B. More power gain than common emitter or common base. C. Lowest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations. D. More current gain than common emitter or common base. share/E3/3-79L10000664000175000017500000000050511724335201011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-79L1 A When soldering or working with CMOS electronics products or equipment, a wrist strap: A. Must have less than 100,000 ohms of resistance to prevent static electricity. B. Cannot be used when repairing TTL devices. C. Must be grounded to a water pipe. D. Does not work well in conjunction with anti-static floor mats. share/E3/3-52G40000664000175000017500000000033611724335176011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-52G4 D What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts? A. 250 watts. B. 600 watts. C. 800 watts. D. 1000 watts. share/E3/3-22C10000664000175000017500000000056611724335173011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-22C1 D In a linear electronic voltage regulator: A. The output is a ramp voltage. B. The pass transistor switches from the "off" state to the "on"" state. C. The control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions. D. The conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current. share/E3/3-8A60000664000175000017500000000061211724335172011226 0ustar jtnjtn3-8A6 B Assuming a power source to have a fixed value of internal resistance, maximum power will be transferred to the load when: A. The load impedance is greater than the source impedance. B. The load impedance equals the internal impedance of the source. C. The load impedance is less than the source impedance. D. The fixed values of internal impedance are not relative to the power source. share/E3/3-20C60000664000175000017500000000043411724335173011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-20C6 A What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor? A. It blocks direct current and passes alternating current. B. It blocks alternating current and passes direct current. C. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit. D. It decreases the resonant frequency of the circuit. share/E3/3-39E50000664000175000017500000000024511724335175011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-39E5 B In a microprocessor, what is the meaning of the term "ALU"? A. Automatic lock/unlock. B. Arithmetical logic unit. C. Auto latch undo. D. Answer local unit. share/E3/3-96P40000664000175000017500000000052411724335203011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-96P4 A When engaging in voice communications via an INMARSAT-B terminal, what techniques are used? A. CODECs are used to digitize the voice signal. B. Noise-blanking must be selected by the operator. C. The voice signal must be compressed to fit into the allowed bandwidth. D. The voice signal will be expanded at the receiving terminal. share/E3/3-68K20000664000175000017500000000035411724335200011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-68K2 B The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) measures the distance from the aircraft to the DME ground station. This is referred to as: A. DME bearing. B. The slant range. C. Glide Slope angle of approach. D. Localizer course width. share/E3/3-91O30000664000175000017500000000023611724335202011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-91O3 A What device can be used to determine the performance of a RADAR system at sea? A. Echo box. B. Klystron. C. Circulator. D. Digital signal processor. share/E3/3-100Q40000664000175000017500000000030011724335203011362 0ustar jtnjtn3-100Q4 C What class of fire is one that is caused by an electrical short circuit and what is the preferred substance used to extinguish that type of fire? A. FE28. B. FE29. C. FE30. D. FE31. share/E3/3-47F40000664000175000017500000000057011724335176011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-47F4 D What is an m-derived filter? A. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth. B. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies. C. A filter whose schematic shape is the letter "M". D. A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired frequencies too near cutoff for a constant-k filter. share/E3/3-14B10000664000175000017500000000035311724335173011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-14B1 B) What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage? A. An exponential rate of one. B. One time constant. C. One exponential period. D. A time factor of one. share/E3/3-61I10000664000175000017500000000034011724335177011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-61I1 A When an emergency transmitter uses 325 watts and a receiver uses 50 watts, how many hours can a 12.6 volt, 55 ampere-hour battery supply full power to both units? A. 1.8 hours. B. 6 hours. C. 3 hours. D. 1.2 hours. share/E3/3-34E50000664000175000017500000000051211724335175011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-34E5 B What is a characteristic of a NOT gate? A. Does not allow data transmission when its input is high. B. Produces a logic "0" at its output when the input is logic "1" and vice versa. C. Allows data transmission only when its input is high. D. Produces a logic "1" at its output when the input is logic "1" and vice versa. share/E3/3-49F10000664000175000017500000000030711724335176011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-49F1 A What is the digital signal processing term for noise subtraction circuitry? A. Adaptive filtering and autocorrelation. B. Noise blanking. C. Noise limiting. D. Auto squelch noise reduction. share/E3/3-1A40000664000175000017500000000021111724335171011207 0ustar jtnjtn3-1A4 C What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field? A. Battery. B. Transformer. C. Capacitor. D. Inductor. share/E3/3-3A50000664000175000017500000000030011724335172011212 0ustar jtnjtn3-3A5 D Corrosion resulting from electric current flow between dissimilar metals is called: A. Electrolysis. B. Stray current corrosion. C. Oxygen starvation corrosion. D. Galvanic corrosion. share/E3/3-67J40000664000175000017500000000035311724335200011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-67J4 D What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 631 watts. B. 400 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 100 watts. share/E3/3-16B30000664000175000017500000000032311724335173011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-16B3 A In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 500 MHz? A. 40 +j31400 B. 40 -j31400 C. 31400 +j40 D. 31400 -j40 share/E3/3-66J60000664000175000017500000000036711724335200011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-66J6 D If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line fed by a 100 watt transmitter? A. 70 watts. B. 50 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 6 watts. share/E3/3-36E50000664000175000017500000000016011724335175011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-36E5 C How many R-S flip-flops would be required to construct an 8 bit storage register? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 share/E3/3-5A40000664000175000017500000000027511724335172011226 0ustar jtnjtn3-5A4 A What are the two basic types of junction field-effect transistors? A. N-channel and P-channel. B. High power and low power. C. MOSFET and GaAsFET. D. Silicon FET and germanium FET. share/E3/3-64J40000664000175000017500000000042611724335177011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-64J4 C At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? A. Equal voltage and current. B. Minimum voltage and maximum current. C. Maximum voltage and minimum current. D. Minimum voltage and minimum current. share/E3/3-46F60000664000175000017500000000057111724335176011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-46F6 D When would it be more desirable to use an m-derived filter over a constant-k filter? A. When the response must be maximally flat at one frequency. B. When the number of components must be minimized. C. When high power levels must be filtered. D. When you need more attenuation at a certain frequency that is too close to the cut-off frequency for a constant-k filter. share/E3/3-51G20000664000175000017500000000050711724335176011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-51G2 B What is the distinguishing feature of a Class A amplifier? A. Output for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle. B. Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle. C. Output for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the signal cycle. D. Output for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle. share/E3/3-7A20000664000175000017500000000020311724335172011215 0ustar jtnjtn3-7A2 D How many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle? A. 90 degrees. B. 270 degrees. C. 180 degrees. D. 360 degrees. share/E3/3-96P20000664000175000017500000000057711724335203011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-96P2 C Which of the following describes the INMARSAT Satellite system? A. AOR at 35 W, POR-E at 165 W, POR-W at 155 E and IOR at 56.5 E. B. AOR-E at 25 W, AOR-W at 85 W, POR at 175 W and IOR at 56.5 E. C. AOR-E at 15.5 W, AOR-W at 54 W, POR at 178 E and IOR at 64.5 E. D. AOR at 40 W, POR at 178 W, IOR-E at 109 E and IOR-W at 46 E. share/E3/3-30D40000664000175000017500000000043011724335174011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-30D4 C Where is the external feedback network connected to control the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit? A. Between the differential inputs. B. From output to the non-inverting input. C. From output to the inverting input. D. Between the output and the differential inputs. share/E3/3-10B20000664000175000017500000000024411731202100011253 0ustar jtnjtn3-10B2 C What is the maximum DC or RMS voltage that may be connected across a 20 watt, 2000 ohm resistor? A. 10 volts. B. 100 volts. C. 200 volts. D. 10,000 volts. share/E3/3-88N20000664000175000017500000000033611724335202011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-88N2 B What is the standard scan rate for high-frequency 3 MHz - 23 MHz weather facsimile reception from shore stations? A. 240 lines per minute. B. 120 lines per minute. C. 150 lines per second. D. 60 lines per second. share/E3/3-62I50000664000175000017500000000025711724335177011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-62I5 C A 3 horsepower, 100 V DC motor is 85% efficient when developing its rated output. What is the current? A. 8.545 amps. B. 20.345 amps. C. 26.300 amps. D. 25.000 amps. share/E3/3-81L60000664000175000017500000000034711724335201011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-81L6 D What steps must be taken to activate the DSC emergency signaling function on a marine VHF? A. Separate 12 volts to the switch. B. Secondary DSC transmit antenna. C. GPS position input. D. Input of registered 9-digit MMSI. share/E3/3-28C60000664000175000017500000000017611724335174011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-28C6 B In which oscillator circuit would you find a quartz crystal? A. Hartley. B. Pierce C. Colpitts. D. All of the above. share/E3/3-80L30000664000175000017500000000043011724335201011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-80L3 B Why should you not use white or translucent plastic tie wraps on a radio tower? A. White tie wraps are not FAA approved. B. UV radiation from the Sun deteriorates the plastic very quickly. C. The white color attracts wasps D. The black tie wraps may cause electrolysis. share/E3/3-48F50000664000175000017500000000034711724335176011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-48F5 D In a CTCSS controlled FM receiver, the CTCSS tone is filtered out after the: A. IF stage but before the mixer. B. Mixer but before the IF. C. IF but before the discriminator. D. Discriminator but before the audio section. share/E3/3-88N10000664000175000017500000000044411724335202011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-88N1 C What is facsimile? A. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television. B. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when printed. C. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper. D. The transmission of video by television. share/E3/3-11B50000664000175000017500000000034211724335172011300 0ustar jtnjtn3-11B5 B What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm? A. 146.52 Hz. B. 1565.20 Hz. C. 10 Hz. D. 156.52 kHz. share/E3/3-97P10000664000175000017500000000042211724335203011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-97P1 B What is the best description for the INMARSAT-C system? A. It provides slow speed telex and voice service. B. It is a store-and-forward system that provides routine and distress communications. C. It is a real-time telex system. D. It provides world-wide coverage. share/E3/3-17B20000664000175000017500000000036411724335173011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-17B2 B In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 121 ohms, /35 degrees B. 141 ohms, /45 degrees C. 161 ohms, /55 degrees D. 181 ohms, /65 degrees share/E3/3-8A40000664000175000017500000000045111724335172011225 0ustar jtnjtn3-8A4 A Which of the following groups is correct for listing common materials in order of descending conductivity? A. Silver, copper, aluminum, iron, and lead. B. Lead, iron, silver, aluminum, and copper. C. Iron, silver, aluminum, copper, and silver. D. Silver, aluminum, iron, lead, and copper. share/E3/3-29D60000664000175000017500000000046311724335174011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-29D6 C What is the relationship between current through a resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit? A. The current and voltage are 180 degrees out of phase. B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees. C. The voltage and current are in phase. D. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees. share/E3/3-59H20000664000175000017500000000025411724335177011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-59H2 B In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary? A. Pulse frequency. B. Pulse duration. C. Pulse amplitude. D. Pulse intensity. share/E3/3-5A30000664000175000017500000000035011724335172011217 0ustar jtnjtn3-5A3 C MOSFETs are manufactured with THIS protective device built into their gate to protect the device from static charges and excessive voltages: A. Schottky diode. B. Metal oxide varistor (MOV). C. Zener diode. D. Tunnel diode. share/E3/3-52G20000664000175000017500000000030711724335176011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-52G2 C What input-amplitude parameter is most valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier? A. Average voltage. B. RMS voltage. C. Peak voltage. D. Resting voltage. share/E3/3-69K60000664000175000017500000000115611724335200011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-69K6 C What is the main underlying operating principle of the Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) aircraft navigational system? A. A definite amount of time is required to send and receive a radio signal. B. The difference between the peak values of two DC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's altitude above a selected VOR station. C. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's azimuth position in relation to a selected VOR station. D. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's distance from a selected VOR station. share/E3/3-66J40000664000175000017500000000030311724335200011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-66J4 A A perfect (no loss) coaxial cable has 7 dB of reflected power when the input is 5 watts. What is the output of the transmission line? A. 1 watt. B. 1.25 watts. C. 2.5 watts. D. 5 watts. share/E3/3-27C20000664000175000017500000000036711724335174011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-27C2 D What determines the visible color radiated by an LED junction? A. The color of a lens in an eyepiece. B. The amount of voltage across the device. C. The amount of current through the device. D. The materials used to construct the device. share/E3/3-72K40000664000175000017500000000023711724335200011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-72K4 D Aircraft Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT) operate on what frequencies? A. 121.5 MHz. B. 243 MHz. C. 121.5 and 243 MHz. D. 121.5, 243 and 406 MHz. share/E3/3-78L40000664000175000017500000000047011724335201011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-78L4 A What is the common method for determining the exact sensitivity specification of a receiver? A. Measure the recovered audio for 12 dB of SINAD. B. Measure the recovered audio for 10 dB of quieting. C. Measure the recovered audio for 10 dB of SINAD. D. Measure the recovered audio for 25 dB of quieting. share/E3/3-48F10000664000175000017500000000040711724335176011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-48F1 C What is a product detector? A. It provides local oscillations for input to the mixer. B. It amplifies and narrows the band-pass frequencies. C. It uses a mixing process with a locally generated carrier. D. It is used to detect cross-modulation products. share/E3/3-80L50000664000175000017500000000033411724335201011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-80L5 D What tolerance off of plumb should a single base station radio rack be installed? A. No tolerance allowed. B. Just outside the bubble on a level. C. All the way to one end. D. Just inside the bubble on a level. share/E3/3-79L60000664000175000017500000000033411724335201011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-79L6 C When repairing circuit board assemblies it is most important to: A. Use a dental pick to clear plated-through holes. B. Bridge broken copper traces with solder. C. Wear safety glasses. D. Use a holding fixture. share/E3/3-36E60000664000175000017500000000056011724335175011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-36E6 D An R-S flip-flop is capable of doing all of the following except: A. Accept data input into R-S inputs with CLK initiated. B. Accept data input into PRE and CLR inputs without CLK being initiated. C. Refuse to accept synchronous data if asynchronous data is being input at same time. D. Operate in toggle mode with R-S inputs held constant and CLK initiated. share/E3/3-95P30000664000175000017500000000032511724335203011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-95P3 C What services are provided by the Iridium system? A. Analog voice and Data at 4.8 kbps. B. Digital voice and Data at 9.6 kbps. C. Digital voice and Data at 2.4 kbps. D. Analog voice and Data at 9.6 kbps. share/E3/3-2A30000664000175000017500000000034111724335171011213 0ustar jtnjtn3-2A3 A When induced currents produce expanding magnetic fields around conductors in a direction that opposes the original magnetic field, this is known as: A. Lenz's law. B. Gilbert's law. C. Maxwell's law. D. Norton's law. share/E3/3-56G60000664000175000017500000000024311724335177011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-56G6 D What is the modulation type that can be a frequency hopping of one carrier or multiple simultaneous carriers? A. SSB. B. FM. C. OFSK. D. Spread spectrum. share/E3/3-48F30000664000175000017500000000042511724335176011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-48F3 C What is the process of detection in a radio diode detector circuit? A. Breakdown of the Zener voltage. B. Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode. C. Rectification and filtering of RF. D. The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency. share/E3/3-27C40000664000175000017500000000017411724335174011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-27C4 D What would be the maximum current to safely illuminate a LED? A. 1 amp. B. 1 microamp. C. 500 milliamps. D. 20 mA. share/E3/3-68K50000664000175000017500000000043211724335200011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-68K5 D What radio navigation aid determines the distance from an aircraft to a selected VORTAC station by measuring the length of time the radio signal takes to travel to and from the station? A. RADAR. B. Loran C. C. Distance Marking (DM). D. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME). share/E3/3-28C30000664000175000017500000000031211724335174011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-28C3 C What do the initials CMOS stand for? A. Common mode oscillating system. B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon. C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor. D. Complementary metal-oxide substrate. share/E3/3-75L30000664000175000017500000000024711724335201011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-75L3 C What equipment may be useful to track down EMI aboard a ship or aircraft? A. Fluke multimeter. B. An oscilloscope. C. Portable AM receiver. D. A logic probe. share/E3/3-58H20000664000175000017500000000021711731202660011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-58H2 B In Figure 3H17, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) represents where audio intelligence is inserted? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-34E60000664000175000017500000000021711724335175011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-34E6 C Which of the following logic gates will provide an active high out when both inputs are active high? A. NAND. B. NOR. C. AND. D. XOR. share/E3/3-5A50000664000175000017500000000033211724335172011221 0ustar jtnjtn3-5A5 B A common emitter amplifier has: A. Lower input impedance than a common base. B. More voltage gain than a common collector. C. Less current gain than a common base. D. Less voltage gain than a common collector. share/E3/3-70K50000664000175000017500000000150111724335200011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-70K5 D Choose the only correct statement about the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport. The localizer beam system: A. Operates within the assigned frequency range of 108.10 to 111.95 GHz. B. Produces two amplitude modulated antenna patterns; one pattern above and one pattern below the normal 2.5 degree approach glide path of the aircraft. C. Frequencies are automatically tuned-in when the proper glide slope frequency is selected on the aircraft's Navigation and Communication (NAV/COMM) transceiver. D. Produces two amplitude modulated antenna patterns; one pattern with an audio frequency of 90 Hz and one pattern with an audio frequency of 150 Hz, one left of the runway centerline and one right of the runway centerline. share/E3/3-27C30000664000175000017500000000016611724335174011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-27C3 A What is the approximate operating current of a light-emitting diode? A. 20 mA. B. 5 mA. C. 10 mA. D. 400 mA. share/E3/3-21C50000664000175000017500000000055611724335173011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-21C5 B A power transformer has a single primary winding and three secondary windings producing 5.0 volts, 12.6 volts, and 150 volts. Assuming similar wire sizes, which of the three secondary windings will have the highest measured DC resistance? A. The 12.6 volt winding. B. The 150 volt winding. C. The 5.0 volt winding. D. All will have equal resistance values. share/E3/3-51G40000664000175000017500000000016411724335176011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-51G4 C Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class AB. share/E3/3-62I20000664000175000017500000000032711724335177011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-62I2 C If a shunt motor running with a load has its shunt field opened, how would this affect the speed of the motor? A. It will slow down. B. It will stop suddenly. C. It will speed up. D. It will be unaffected. share/E3/3-64J60000664000175000017500000000031611724335177011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-64J6 C There is an improper impedance match between a 30 watt transmitter and the antenna, with 5 watts reflected. How much power is actually radiated? A. 35 watts. B. 30 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 20 watts. share/E3/3-18B20000664000175000017500000000055311724335173011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-18B2 B A 1-watt, 10-volt Zener diode with the following characteristics: Imin. = 5 mA; Imax. = 95 mA; and Z = 8 ohms, is to be used as part of a voltage regulator in a 20-V power supply. Approximately what size current-limiting resistor would be used to set its bias to the midpoint of its operating range? A. 100 ohms. B. 200 ohms. C. 1 kilohms. D. 2 kilohms. share/E3/3-79L20000664000175000017500000000040411724335201011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-79L2 B Which of the following is the preferred method of cleaning solder from plated-through circuit-board holes? A. Use a dental pick. B. Use a vacuum device. C. Use a soldering iron tip that has a temperature above 900 degrees F. D. Use an air jet device. share/E3/3-34E20000664000175000017500000000054711724335175011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-34E2 D What is a characteristic of a NAND gate? A. Produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0". B. Produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1". C. Produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1". D. Produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1". share/E3/3-55G60000664000175000017500000000021711724335177011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-55G6 A What would be the voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1,200 watts? A. 245 volts. B. 692 volts. C. 346 volts. D. 173 volts. share/E3/3-26C60000664000175000017500000000054011724335174011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-26C6 D When an NPN transistor is operating as a Class A amplifier, the base-emitter junction: A. And collector-base junction are both forward biased. B. And collector-base junction are both reverse biased. C. Is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased. D. Is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased. share/E3/3-74L40000664000175000017500000000053611724335200011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-74L4 C What is the purpose of a shunt resistor used with an ammeter? A. A shunt resistor is not used with an ammeter. B. It is used to decrease the ampere indicating range of the ammeter. C. It is used to increase the ampere indicating range of the ammeter. D. It is used to increase the voltage indicating range of the voltmeter, not the ammeter. share/E3/3-44F60000664000175000017500000000037711724335176011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-44F6 C What might occur in a receiver if excessive amounts of signal energy overdrive the mixer circuit? A. Automatic limiting occurs. B. Mixer blanking occurs. C. Spurious mixer products are generated. D. The mixer circuit becomes unstable and drifts. share/E3/3-36E30000664000175000017500000000014111724335175011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-36E3 D How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4? A. 1 B. 4 C. 8 D. 2 share/E3/3-49F50000664000175000017500000000014511724335176011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-49F5 B What makes a CTCSS squelch work? A. Noise. B. Tones. C. Absence of noise. D. Digital codes. share/E3/3-42F10000664000175000017500000000036611724335175011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-42F1 D How can selectivity be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a communications receiver? A. By using an audio filter. B. By using an additional RF amplifier stage. C. By using an additional IF amplifier stage. D. By using a preselector. share/E3/3-32D40000664000175000017500000000056711724335174011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-32D4 D In Figure 3D9, determine if there is a problem with this regulated power supply and identify the problem. A. R1 value is too low which would cause excessive base current and instantly destroy TR 1. B. D1 and D2 are reversed. The power supply simply would not function. C. TR1 is shown as an NPN and must be changed to a PNP. D. There is no problem with the circuit. share/E3/3-53G30000664000175000017500000000024411724335176011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-53G3 D What is the total bandwidth of a FM phone transmission having a 5 kHz deviation and a 3 kHz modulating frequency? A. 3 kHz. B. 8 kHz. C. 5 kHz. D. 16 kHz. share/E3/3-89N50000664000175000017500000000035711724335202011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-89N5 B An NMEA 2000 system with devices in a single location may be powered using this method: A. Dual mid-powered network. B. End-powered network. C. Individual devices individually powered. D. No 12 volts needed for NMEA 2000 devices. share/E3/3-1A10000664000175000017500000000022611724335171011212 0ustar jtnjtn3-1A1 A The product of the readings of an AC voltmeter and AC ammeter is called: A. Apparent power. B. True power. C. Power factor. D. Current power. share/E3/3-78L10000664000175000017500000000031411724335201011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-78L1 C Can a P25 radio system be monitored with a scanner? A. Yes , regardless if it has P25 decoding or not. B. No. C. Yes, if the scanner has P25 decoding. D. Yes, but it must also have P26 decoding. share/E3/3-73K10000664000175000017500000000122511724335200011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-73K1 C Some aircraft and avionics equipment operates with a prime power line frequency of 400 Hz. What is the principle advantage of a higher line frequency? A. 400 Hz power supplies draw less current than 60 Hz supplies allowing more current available for other systems on the aircraft. B. A 400 Hz power supply generates less heat and operates much more efficiently than a 60 Hz power supply. C. The magnetic devices in a 400 Hz power supply such as transformers, chokes and filters are smaller and lighter than those used in 60 Hz power supplies. D. 400 Hz power supplies are much less expensive to produce than power supplies with lower line frequencies. share/E3/3-4A20000664000175000017500000000024511724335172011220 0ustar jtnjtn3-4A2 D Good conductors with minimum resistance have what type of electrons? A. Few free electrons. B. No electrons. C. Some free electrons. D. Many free electrons. share/E3/3-13B10000664000175000017500000000024111724335173011275 0ustar jtnjtn3-13B1 C What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.414 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 1.73 share/E3/3-81L30000664000175000017500000000023211724335201011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-81L3 A A common method of programming portable or mobile radios is to use a: A. A laptop computer. B Dummy load. C. A wattmeter. D. A signal generator. share/E3/3-90O50000664000175000017500000000031211724335202011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-90O5 D The pulse repetition rate (prr) of a RADAR refers to the: A. Reciprocal of the duty cycle. B. Pulse rate of the local oscillator. C. Pulse rate of the klystron. D. Pulse rate of the magnetron. share/E3/3-56G20000664000175000017500000000030011724335177011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-56G2 C How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated in a power amplifier? A. By tuning for maximum SWR. B. By tuning for maximum power output. C. By neutralization. D. By tuning the output. share/E3/3-79L30000664000175000017500000000026211724335201011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-79L3 D What is the proper way to cut plastic wire ties? A. With scissors. B. With a knife. C. With semi-flush diagonal pliers. D. With flush-cut diagonal pliers and cut flush. share/E3/3-71K10000664000175000017500000000031511724335200011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-71K1 A What is the frequency range of an aircraft's Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment? A. 190 kHz to 1750 kHz. B. 190 MHz to 1750 MHz. C. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. share/E3/3-33E50000664000175000017500000000022211724335174011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-33E5 D Which of the following instruments would be best for checking a TTL logic circuit? A. VOM. B. DMM. C. Continuity tester. D. Logic probe. share/E3/3-42F20000664000175000017500000000037011724335175011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-42F2 C What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver? A. To provide most of the receiver gain. B. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC. C. To improve the receiver's noise figure. D. To develop the AGC voltage. share/E3/3-61I60000664000175000017500000000035611724335177011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-61I6 D A 12.6 volt, 8 ampere-hour battery is supplying power to a receiver that uses 50 watts and a RADAR system that uses 300 watts. How long will the battery last? A. 100.8 hours. B. 27.7 hours. C. 1 hour. D. 17 minutes or 0.3 hours. share/E3/3-32D30000664000175000017500000000047311724335174011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-32D3 A What will occur if an amplifier input signal coupling capacitor fails open? A. No amplification will occur, with DC within the circuit measuring normal. B. Improper biasing will occur within the amplifier stage. C. Oscillation and thermal runaway may occur. D. An AC hum will appear on the circuit output. share/E3/3-60I40000664000175000017500000000022311724335177011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-60I4 C What is the total voltage when 12 Nickel-Cadmium batteries are connected in series? A. 12 volts. B. 12.6 volts. C. 15 volts. D. 72 volts. share/E3/3-73K60000664000175000017500000000121411724335200011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-73K6 B What is the function of a commercial aircraft's SELCAL installation? SELCAL is a type of aircraft communications __________. A. Device that allows an aircraft's receiver to be continuously calibrated for signal selectivity. B. System where a ground-based transmitter can call a selected aircraft or group of aircraft without the flight crew monitoring the ground-station frequency. C. Transmission that uses sequential logic algorithm encryption to prevent public "eavesdropping" of crucial aircraft flight data. D. System where an airborne transmitter can selectively calculate the line-of-sight distance to several ground-station receivers. share/E3/3-31D60000664000175000017500000000064011724335174011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-31D6 D What is the definition of a phase-locked loop (PLL) circuit? A. A servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator. B. A circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator. C. A circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input. D. A servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator. share/E3/3-28C50000664000175000017500000000033111724335174011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-28C5 D An electrical relay is a: A. Current limiting device. B. Device used for supplying 3 or more voltages to a circuit. C. Component used mainly with HF audio amplifiers. D. Remotely controlled switching device. share/E3/3-60I60000664000175000017500000000017311724335177011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-60I6 A A nickel-cadmium cell has an operating voltage of about: A. 1.25 volts. B. 1.4 volts. C. 1.5 volts. D. 2.1 volts. share/E3/3-73K50000664000175000017500000000054211724335200011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-73K5 B What type of antenna is used in an aircraft's Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) and Localizer (LOC) installations? A. Vertically polarized antenna that radiates an omnidirectional antenna pattern. B. Horizontally polarized omnidirection reception antenna. C. Balanced loop transmission antenna. D. Folded dipole reception antenna. share/E3/3-59H10000664000175000017500000000041111724335177011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-59H1 A What is an important factor in pulse-code modulation using time-division multiplex? A. Synchronization of transmit and receive clock pulse rates. B. Frequency separation. C. Overmodulation and undermodulation. D. Slight variations in power supply voltage. share/E3/3-24C10000664000175000017500000000020711724335174011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-24C1 B What is one common use for PIN diodes? A. Constant current source. B. RF switch. C. Constant voltage source. D. RF rectifier. share/E3/3-35E20000664000175000017500000000045611724335175011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-35E2 B For the logic input levels shown in Figure 3E12, what are the logic levels of test points A, B and C in this circuit? (Assume positive logic.) A. A is high, B is low and C is low. B. A is low, B is high and C is high. C. A is high, B is high and C is low. D. A is low, B is high and C is low. share/E3/3-23C40000664000175000017500000000032011724335173011300 0ustar jtnjtn3-23C4 A What is the transistor called that is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal? A. TRIAC. B. Bilateral SCR. C. Unijunction transistor. D. Field effect transistor. share/E3/3-70K40000664000175000017500000000056111724335200011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-70K4 C What type of antenna is used in an aircraft's Instrument Landing System (ILS) glideslope installation? A. A vertically polarized antenna that radiates an omnidirectional antenna pattern. B. A balanced loop reception antenna. C. A folded dipole reception antenna. D. An electronically steerable phased-array antenna that radiates a directional antenna pattern. share/E3/3-25C40000664000175000017500000000026111724335174011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-25C4 A What are the elements of a unijunction transistor? A. Base 1, base 2, and emitter. B. Gate, cathode, and anode. C. Gate, base 1, and base 2. D. Gate, source, and sink. share/E3/3-29D40000664000175000017500000000021011724335174011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-29D4 A What is the characteristic of the current flow in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Maximum. B. Minimum. C. DC. D. Zero. share/E3/3-89N30000664000175000017500000000046411724335202011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-89N3 D What might occur in NMEA 2000 network topology if one device in line should fail? A. The system shuts down until the device is removed. B. Other electronics after the failed device will be inoperable. C. The main fuse on the backbone may open. D. There will be no interruption to all other devices. share/E3/3-65J10000664000175000017500000000027211724335200011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-65J1 D A vertical 1/4 wave antenna receives signals: A. In the microwave band. B. In one vertical direction. C. In one horizontal direction. D. Equally from all horizontal directions. share/E3/3-73K40000664000175000017500000000056311724335200011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-73K4 A Before ground testing an aircraft RADAR, the operator should: A. Ensure that the area in front of the antenna is clear of other maintenance personnel to avoid radiation hazards. B. Be sure the receiver has been properly shielded and grounded. C. First test the transmitter connected to a matched load. D. Measure power supply voltages to prevent circuit damage. share/E3/3-31D50000664000175000017500000000031411724335174011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-31D5 B In a direct digital synthesizer, what are the unwanted components on its output? A. Broadband noise. B. Spurs at discrete frequencies. C. Digital conversion noise. D. Nyquist limit noise pulses. share/E3/3-93O50000664000175000017500000000037011724335202011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-93O5 D Conductance takes place in a waveguide: A. By interelectron delay. B. Through electrostatic field reluctance. C. In the same manner as a transmission line. D. Through electromagnetic and electrostatic fields in the walls of the waveguide. share/E3/3-41F60000664000175000017500000000032211724335175011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-41F6 D What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum discernible signal? A. Intermodulation distortion. B. Noise floor. C. Noise figure. D. Dynamic range. share/E3/3-50F20000664000175000017500000000042311724335176011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-50F2 C How can ferrite beads be used to suppress ignition noise? Install them: A. In the resistive high voltage cable every 2 years. B. Between the starter solenoid and the starter motor. C. Install them in the primary and secondary ignition leads. D. In the antenna lead. share/E3/3-19C50000664000175000017500000000043311724335173011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-19C5 B What happens to the conductivity of a photosensitive semiconductor junction when it is illuminated? A. The junction resistance is unchanged. B. The junction resistance decreases. C. The junction resistance becomes temperature dependent. D. The junction resistance increases share/E3/3-41F30000664000175000017500000000032511724335175011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-41F3 A What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel signals? A. Desensitizing. B. Intermodulation distortion. C. Quieting. D. Overloading. share/E3/3-40E10000664000175000017500000000055611724335175011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-40E1 D What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit? A. Converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS flip-flop. B. Multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency. C. Prevents oscillation in a low frequency counter circuit. D. Divides an HF signal so that a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency. share/E3/3-13B20000664000175000017500000000024711724335173011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-13B2 A If a resistance to which a constant voltage is applied is halved, what power dissipation will result? A. Double. B. Halved. C. Quadruple. D. Remain the same. share/E3/3-91O10000664000175000017500000000032411724335202011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-91O1 A The ATR box: A. Prevents the received signal from entering the transmitter. B. Protects the receiver from strong RADAR signals. C. Turns off the receiver when the transmitter is on. D. All of the above. share/E3/3-10B10000664000175000017500000000022411731202062011257 0ustar jtnjtn3-10B1 D What is the peak-to-peak RF voltage on the 50 ohm output of a 100 watt transmitter? A. 70 volts. B. 100 volts. C. 140 volts. D. 200 volts. share/E3/3-33E30000664000175000017500000000021011724335174011301 0ustar jtnjtn3-33E3 D What is the common power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits? A. 12 volts. B. 13.6 volts. C. 1 volt. D. 5 volts. share/E3/3-52G60000664000175000017500000000022311724335176011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-52G6 B What class of amplifier is characterized by conduction for 180 degrees of the input wave? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. share/E3/3-18B60000664000175000017500000000031511724335173011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-18B6 B What is the conductance (G) of a circuit if 6 amperes of current flows when 12 volts DC is applied? A. 0.25 Siemens (mhos). B. 0.50 Siemens (mhos). C. 1.00 Siemens (mhos). D. 1.25 Siemens (mhos). share/E3/3-72K50000664000175000017500000000026211724335200011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-72K5 C What is the frequency range of an aircraft's radio altimeter? A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. C. 4250 MHz to 4350 MHz. D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. share/E3/3-2A60000664000175000017500000000054211724335171011221 0ustar jtnjtn3-2A6 B Permeability is defined as: A. The magnetic field created by a conductor wound on a laminated core and carrying current. B. The ratio of magnetic flux density in a substance to the magnetizing force that produces it. C. Polarized molecular alignment in a ferromagnetic material while under the influence of a magnetizing force. D. None of these. share/E3/3-2A20000664000175000017500000000034711724335171011220 0ustar jtnjtn3-2A2 C What will produce a magnetic field? A. A DC source not connected to a circuit. B. The presence of a voltage across a capacitor. C. A current flowing through a conductor. D. The force that drives current through a resistor. share/E3/3-3A60000664000175000017500000000020511724335172011217 0ustar jtnjtn3-3A6 B Which of these will be most useful for insulation at UHF frequencies? A. Rubber. B. Mica. C. Wax impregnated paper. D. Lead. share/E3/3-66J50000664000175000017500000000035011724335200011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-66J5 C Referred to the fundamental frequency, a shorted stub line attached to the transmission line to absorb even harmonics could have a wavelength of: A. 1.41 wavelength. B. 1/2 wavelength. C. 1/4 wavelength. D. 1/6 wavelength. share/E3/3-97P50000664000175000017500000000104711724335203011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-97P5 A When INMARSAT-B and INMARSAT-C terminals are compared: A. INMARSAT-C antennas are small and omni-directional, while INMARSAT-B antennas are larger and directional. B. INMARSAT-B antennas are bulkier but omni-directional, while INMARSAT-C antennas are smaller and parabolic, for aiming at the satellite. C. INMARSAT-B antennas are parabolic and smaller for higher gain, while INMARSAT-C antennas are larger but omni-directional. D. INMARSAT-C antennas are smaller but omni-directional, while INMARSAT-B antennas are parabolic for lower gain. share/E3/3-31D40000664000175000017500000000035411724335174011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-31D4 C What spectral impurity components might be generated by a phase-locked-loop synthesizer? A. Spurs at discrete frequencies. B. Random spurs which gradually drift up in frequency. C. Broadband noise. D. Digital conversion noise. share/E3/3-61I50000664000175000017500000000033611724335177011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-61I5 B A 6 volt battery with 1.2 ohms internal resistance is connected across two light bulbs in parallel whose resistance is 12 ohms each. What is the current flow? A. 0.57 amps. B. 0.83 amps. C. 1.0 amps. D. 6.0 amps. share/E3/3-15B30000664000175000017500000000027011724335173011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-15B3 C What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-microfarad capacitor and a 470-kilohm resistor in series? A. 4700 seconds. B. 470 seconds. C. 47 seconds. D. 0.47 seconds. share/E3/3-57H10000664000175000017500000000050611724335177011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-57H1 B The deviation ratio is the: A. Audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency. B. Maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency. C. Carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency. D. Highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency. share/E3/3-38E10000664000175000017500000000047611724335175011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-38E1 C What is the name of the semiconductor memory IC whose digital data can be written or read, and whose memory word address can be accessed randomly? A. ROM " Read-Only Memory. B. PROM " Programmable Read-Only Memory. C. RAM " Random-Access Memory. D. EPROM " Electrically Programmable Read-Only Memory. share/E3/3-11B20000664000175000017500000000015011724335172011272 0ustar jtnjtn3-11B2 B The second harmonic of a 380 kHz frequency is: A. 2 MHz. B. 760 kHz. C. 190 kHz. D. 144.4 GHz. share/E3/3-99Q30000664000175000017500000000040111724335203011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-99Q3 D RF exposure from portable radio transceivers may be harmful to the eyes because: A. Magnetic fields blur vision. B. RF heating polarizes the eye lens. C. The magnetic field may attract metal particles to the eye. D. RF heating may cause cataracts. share/E3/3-72K10000664000175000017500000000061211724335200011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-72K1 D What type of antenna pattern is radiated from a ground station phased-array directional antenna when transmitting the PPM pulses in a Mode S interrogation signal of an aircraft's Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) installation? A. 1090 MHz directional pattern. B. 1030 MHz omnidirectional pattern. C. 1090 MHz omnidirectional pattern. D. 1030 MHz directional pattern. share/E3/3-19C30000664000175000017500000000035311724335173011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-19C3 D What does the photoconductive effect in crystalline solids produce a noticeable change in? A. The capacitance of the solid. B. The inductance of the solid. C. The specific gravity of the solid. D. The resistance of the solid. share/E3/3-20C30000664000175000017500000000016611724335173011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-20C3 B In Figure 3C4, which component (labeled 1 through 4) is used to provide a signal ground? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-87N60000664000175000017500000000053711724335202011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-87N6 C What statement is true regarding 406 MHz EPIRB transmissions? A. Allows immediate voice communications with the RCC. B. Coding permits the SAR authorities to know if manually or automatically activated. C. Transmits a unique hexadecimal identification number. D. Radio Operator programs an I.D. into the SART immediately prior to activation. share/E3/3-24C50000664000175000017500000000031711724335174011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-24C5 B What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies? A. Tunnel diode. B. Varactor diode. C. Silicon-controlled rectifier. D. Zener diode. share/E3/3-86N40000664000175000017500000000065511724335202011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-86N4 A Which of the following statements concerning SITOR communications is true? A. ARQ message transmissions are made in data groups consisting of three-character blocks. B. ARQ transmissions are acknowledged by the Information Receiving Station only at the end of the message. C. ARQ communications rely upon error correction by time diversity transmission and reception. D. Forward error correction is an interactive mode. share/E3/3-98P10000664000175000017500000000021211724335203011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-98P1 C Global Positioning Service (GPS) satellite orbiting altitude is: A. 4,686 miles. B. 24,184 miles. C. 12,554 miles. D. 247 miles. share/E3/3-6A20000664000175000017500000000027111724335172011221 0ustar jtnjtn3-6A2 C By what factor must the voltage of an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the peak voltage value? A. 0.707 B. 0.9 C. 1.414 D. 3.14 share/E3/3-90O10000664000175000017500000000022511724335202011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-90O1 D What is the normal range of pulse repetition rates? A. 2,000 to 4,000 pps. B. 1,000 to 3,000 pps. C. 500 to 1,000 pps. D. 500 to 2,000 pps. share/E3/3-83M10000664000175000017500000000042411724335201011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-83M1 C What is a CODEC? A. A device to read Morse code. B. A computer operated digital encoding compandor. C. A coder/decoder IC or circuitry that converts a voice signal into a predetermined digital format for encrypted transmission. D. A voice amplitude compression chip. share/E3/3-49F30000664000175000017500000000015511724335176011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-49F3 D What makes a Digital Coded Squelch work? A. Noise. B. Tones. C. Absence of noise. D. Digital codes. share/E3/3-18B30000664000175000017500000000026411724335173011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-18B3 C Given a power supply with a no load voltage of 12 volts and a full load voltage of 10 volts, what is the percentage of voltage regulation? A. 17 % B. 80 % C. 20 % D. 83 % share/E3/3-61I30000664000175000017500000000040211724335177011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-61I3 A A ship RADAR unit uses 315 watts and a radio uses 50 watts. If the equipment is connected to a 50 ampere-hour battery rated at 12.6 volts, how long will the battery last? A. 1 hour 43 minutes. B. 28.97 hours. C. 29 minutes. D. 10 hours, 50 minutes. share/E3/3-69K30000664000175000017500000000040411724335200011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-69K3 D What is the frequency range of the ground-based Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) stations used for aircraft navigation? A. 108.00 kHz to 117.95 kHz. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. C. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz. D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. share/E3/3-38E50000664000175000017500000000027711724335175011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-38E5 D How many individual memory cells would be contained in a memory IC that has 4 data bus input/output pins and 4 address pins for connection to the address bus? A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64 share/E3/3-67J20000664000175000017500000000035411724335200011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-67J2 D What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 600 watts. B. 75 watts. C. 18.75 watts. D. 150 watts. share/E3/3-80L40000664000175000017500000000035711724335201011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-80L4 C What is the 6th pair color code in a 25 pair switchboard cable as is found in building telecommunications interconnections? A. Blue/Green, Green/Blue. B. Red/Blue, White/Violet. C. Red/Blue, Blue/Red. D. White/Slate, Slate/White. share/E3/3-6A40000664000175000017500000000023411724335172011222 0ustar jtnjtn3-6A4 A What is the easiest voltage amplitude to measure by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope? A. Peak-to-peak. B. RMS. C. Average. D. DC. share/E3/3-96P60000664000175000017500000000061011724335203011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-96P6 D Which of the following conditions can render INMARSAT -B communications impossible? A. An obstruction, such as a mast, causing disruption of the signal between the satellite and the SES antenna when the vessel is steering a certain course. B. A satellite whose signal is on a low elevation, below the horizon. C. Travel beyond the effective radius of the satellite. D. All of these. share/E3/3-57H40000664000175000017500000000042011724335177011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-57H4 D How can an FM-phone signal be produced in a transmitter? A. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier. B. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier. C. By using a balanced modulator. D. By feeding the audio directly to the oscillator. share/E3/3-98P20000664000175000017500000000024111724335203011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-98P2 B The GPS transmitted frequencies are: A. 1626.5 MHz and 1644.5 MHz. B. 1227.6 MHz and 1575.4 MHz. C. 2245.4 and 2635.4 MHz. D. 946.2 MHz and 1226.6 MHz. share/E3/3-83M30000664000175000017500000000024211724335201011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-83M3 D Which of the following codes has gained the widest acceptance for exchange of data from one computer to another? A. Gray. B. Baudot. C. Morse. D. ASCII. share/E3/3-25C10000664000175000017500000000046311724335174011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-25C1 D What is the meaning of the term "alpha" with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of: A. Collector current with respect to base current. B. Base current with respect to collector current. C. Collector current with respect to gate current. D. Collector current with respect to emitter current. share/E3/3-4A50000664000175000017500000000031511724335172011221 0ustar jtnjtn3-4A5 B How would you calculate the total capacitance of three capacitors in parallel? A. CT = C1 + C2 / C1 - C2 + C3. B. CT = C1 + C2 + C3. C. CT = C1 + C2 / C1 x C2 + C3. D. CT = 1 / C1+1 / C2 + 1 / C3. share/E3/3-8A30000664000175000017500000000025211724335172011223 0ustar jtnjtn3-8A3 C Halving the cross-sectional area of a conductor will: A. Not affect the resistance. B. Quarter the resistance. C. Double the resistance. D. Halve the resistance. share/E3/3-19C40000664000175000017500000000035611724335173011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-19C4 A What is the description of an optoisolator? A. An LED and a photosensitive device. B. A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when exposed to light. C. An LED and a capacitor. D. An LED and a lithium battery cell. share/E3/3-31D20000664000175000017500000000057311724335174011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-31D2 B A circuit that compares the output of a voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) to a frequency standard and produces an error voltage that is then used to adjust the capacitance of a varactor diode used to control frequency in that same VCO is called what? A. Doubly balanced mixer. B. Phase-locked loop. C. Differential voltage amplifier. D. Variable frequency oscillator. share/E3/3-60I30000664000175000017500000000050011724335177011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-60I3 B What capacity in amperes does a storage battery need to be in order to operate a 50 watt transmitter for 6 hours? Assume a continuous transmitter load of 70% of the key-locked demand of 40 A, and an emergency light load of 1.5 A. A. 100 ampere-hours. B. 177 ampere-hours. C. 249 ampere-hours. D. None of these. share/E3/3-1A20000664000175000017500000000013111724335171011206 0ustar jtnjtn3-1A2 B What is the basic unit of electrical power? A. Ohm. B. Watt. C. Volt. D. Ampere. share/E3/3-84M10000664000175000017500000000016511724335201011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-84M1 B What is a SDR? A. Software Deviation Ratio. B. Software Defined Radio. C. SWR Meter. D. Static Dynamic Ram. share/E3/3-45F50000664000175000017500000000035211724335176011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-45F5 B What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver? A. Output-offset overshoot. B. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage. C. Thermal-noise distortion. D. Filter ringing. share/E3/3-70K10000664000175000017500000000045411724335200011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-70K1 D What is the frequency range of the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport? A. 108.10 kHz to 111.95 kHz. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. C. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz. D. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. share/E3/3-55G30000664000175000017500000000034411724335177011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-55G3 C In a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power ratio? A. The frequency of the modulating signal. B. The degree of carrier suppression. C. The speech characteristics. D. The amplifier power. share/E3/3-69K50000664000175000017500000000074511724335200011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-69K5 B The amplitude modulated variable phase signal and the frequency modulated reference phase signal of a Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station used for aircraft navigation are synchronized so that both signals are in phase with each other at ____________ of the VOR station. A. 180 degrees South, true bearing position. B. 360 degrees North, magnetic bearing position. C. 180 degrees South, magnetic bearing position. D. 0 degrees North, true bearing position. share/E3/3-17B10000664000175000017500000000044211724335173011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-17B1 D What is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4000-ohm resistor, at 500 KHz? Specify your answer in polar coordinates. A. 2490 ohms, /51.5 degrees B. 4000 ohms, /38.5 degrees C. 5112 ohms, /-38.5 degrees D. 2490 ohms, /-51.5 degrees share/E3/3-15B40000664000175000017500000000027011724335173011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-15B4 A What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor and a 1-megohm resistor in parallel? A. 220 seconds. B. 22 seconds. C. 2.2 seconds. D. 0.22 seconds. share/E3/3-70K30000664000175000017500000000054611724335200011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-70K3 B Which of the following is a required component of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)? A. Altimeter: shows aircraft height above sea-level. B. Localizer: shows aircraft deviation horizontally from center of runway. C. VHF Communications: provide communications to aircraft. D. Distance Measuring Equipment: shows aircraft distance to VORTAC station. share/E3/3-50F10000664000175000017500000000026011731202575011300 0ustar jtnjtn3-50F1 D Where would you normally find a low-pass filter in a radio receiver? A. In the AVC circuit. B. In the Oscillator stage. C. In the Power Supply. D. A and C, but not B. share/E3/3-67J60000664000175000017500000000035411724335200011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-67J6 C What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 300 watts. B. 315 watts. C. 31.5 watts. D. 69.9 watts. share/E3/3-42F50000664000175000017500000000035111724335175011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-42F5 C What is the advantage of a GaAsFET preamplifier in a modern VHF radio receiver? A. Increased selectivity and flat gain. B. Low gain but high selectivity. C. High gain and low noise floor. D. High gain with high noise floor. share/E3/3-22C30000664000175000017500000000023611724335173011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-22C3 A What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator? A. Zener diode. B. Tunnel diode. C. SCR. D. Varactor diode. share/E3/3-87N50000664000175000017500000000077611724335202011336 0ustar jtnjtn3-87N5 A Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true? A. Once activated, these EPIRBs transmit a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. B. The coded signal identifies the nature of the distress situation. C. The coded signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry. D. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode. share/E3/3-63J10000664000175000017500000000033111724335177011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-63J1 C Which of the following could cause a high standing wave ratio on a transmission line? A. Excessive modulation. B. An increase in output power. C. A detuned antenna coupler. D. Low power from the transmitter. share/E3/3-45F20000664000175000017500000000033211724335176011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-45F2 B Which one of these filters can be used in micro-miniature electronic circuits? A. High power transmitter cavity. B. Receiver SAW IF filter. C. Floppy disk controller. D. Internet DSL to telephone line filter. share/E3/3-65J40000664000175000017500000000024511724335200011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-65J4 A To increase the resonant frequency of a 1/4 wavelength antenna: A. Add a capacitor in series. B. Lower capacitor value. C. Cut antenna. D. Add an inductor. share/E3/3-17B40000664000175000017500000000044211724335173011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-17B4 A In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series? A. 500 ohms, /37 degrees B. 400 ohms, /27 degrees C. 300 ohms, /17 degrees D. 200 ohms, /10 degrees share/E3/3-85N40000664000175000017500000000020511724335202011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-85N4 A Maximum allowable frequency deviation for VHF marine radios is: A. +/- 5 kHz. B. +/- 15 kHz. C. +/- 2.5 kHz. D. +/- 25 kHz. share/E3/3-47F50000664000175000017500000000046111724335176011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-47F5 A What is an advantage of a constant-k filter? A. It has high attenuation of signals at frequencies far removed from the pass band. B. It can match impedances over a wide range of frequencies. C. It uses elliptic functions. D. The ratio of the cutoff frequency to the trap frequency can be varied. share/E3/3-59H30000664000175000017500000000035211724335177011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-59H3 D What is the name of the type of modulation in which the modulating signal varies the duration of the transmitted pulse? A. Amplitude modulation. B. Frequency modulation. C. Pulse-height modulation. D. Pulse-width modulation. share/E3/3-97P40000664000175000017500000000016611724335203011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-97P4 D Which INMARSAT systems offer High Speed Data at 64/54 kbps? A. C. B. B and C. C. Mini-M. D. B, M4 and Fleet. share/E3/3-7A50000664000175000017500000000024711724335172011230 0ustar jtnjtn3-7A5 A What type of wave is made up of sine waves at the fundamental frequency and all the harmonics? A. Sawtooth wave. B. Square wave. C. Sine wave. D. Cosine wave. share/E1/0000775000175000017500000000000011731202724010576 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E1/1-14C20000664000175000017500000000025711724276257011312 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C2 D What is the aircraft frequency and emission used for distress communications? A. 243.000 MHz - F3E. B. 121.500 MHz - F3E. C. 156.525 MHz - F1B. D. 121.500 MHz - A3E. share/E1/1-1A50000664000175000017500000000072011724276256011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A5 B What is the minimum transmitter power level required by the FCC for a medium-frequency transmitter aboard a compulsorily fitted vessel? A. At least 100 watts, single-sideband, suppressed-carrier power. B. At least 60 watts PEP. C. The power predictably needed to communicate with the nearest public coast station operating on 2182 kHz. D. At least 25 watts delivered into 50 ohms effective resistance when operated with a primary voltage of 13.6 volts DC. share/E1/1-4A30000664000175000017500000000052611724276256011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A3 A Where must ship station logs be kept during a voyage? A. At the principal radiotelephone operating position. B. They must be secured in the vessel's strongbox for safekeeping. C. In the personal custody of the licensed commercial radio operator. D. All logs are turned over to the ship's master when the radio operator goes off duty. share/E1/1-7B30000664000175000017500000000046611724276257011236 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B3 A When may a bridge-to-bridge transmission be more than 1 watt? A. When broadcasting a distress message and rounding a bend in a river or traveling in a blind spot. B. When broadcasting a distress message. C. When rounding a bend in a river or traveling in a blind spot. D. When calling the Coast Guard. share/E1/1-14C60000664000175000017500000000016211724276257011311 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C6 C What channel would you use to place a call to a shore telephone? A. Ch-16. B. Ch-70. C. Ch-28. D. Ch-06. share/E1/1-9B60000664000175000017500000000031311724276257011232 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B6 C In the International Phonetic Alphabet, the letters E, M, and S are represented by the words: A. Echo, Michigan, Sonar. B. Equator, Mike, Sonar. C. Echo, Mike, Sierra D. Element, Mister, Scooter share/E1/1-6A40000664000175000017500000000055411724276257011233 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A4 A Who has ultimate control of service at a ship's radio station? A. The master of the ship. B. A holder of a First Class Radiotelegraph Certificate with a six months' service endorsement. C. The Radio Officer-in-Charge authorized by the captain of the vessel. D. An appointed licensed radio operator who agrees to comply with all Radio Regulations in force. share/E1/1-3A50000664000175000017500000000066411724276256011232 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A5 D Which is true concerning a required watch on VHF Ch-16? A. It is compulsory at all times while at sea until further notice, unless the vessel is in a VTS system. B. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is not required on Ch-16, provided the vessel monitors both Ch-13 and VTS channel. C. It is always compulsory in sea areas A2, A3 and A4. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-1A40000664000175000017500000000026511724276256011224 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A4 C What equipment is programmed to initiate transmission of distress alerts and calls to individual stations? A. NAVTEX. B. GPS. C. DSC controller. D. Scanning Watch Receiver. share/E1/1-2A10000664000175000017500000000061411724276256011220 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A1 D Which commercial radio operator license is required to operate a fixed-tuned ship RADAR station with external controls? A. A radio operator certificate containing a Ship RADAR Endorsement. B. A Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher. C. Either a First or Second Class Radiotelegraph certificate or a General Radiotelephone Operator License. D No radio operator authorization is required. share/E1/1-4A10000664000175000017500000000057611724276256011231 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A1 B Who is required to make entries in a required service or maintenance log? A. The licensed operator or a person whom he or she designates. B. The operator responsible for the station operation or maintenance. C. Any commercial radio operator holding at least a Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit. D. The technician who actually makes the adjustments to the equipment. share/E1/1-4A60000664000175000017500000000064611724276256011234 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A6 C How long should station logs be retained when there are no entries relating to distress or disaster situations? A. For a period of three years from the last date of entry, unless notified by the FCC. B. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them. C. For a period of two years from the last date of entry. D. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard. share/E1/1-21D50000664000175000017500000000051011724276260011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D5 B What is the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. A global satellite communications system for users in the maritime, land and aeronautical mobile services. B. An international satellite-based search and rescue system. C. A broadband military satellite communications network. D. A Wide Area Geostationary Satellite program (WAGS). share/E1/1-5A30000664000175000017500000000025011724276257011222 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A3 C Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship? A. Captain's office. B. Sea cabin. C. At the GMDSS operating position. D. Anywhere on board the vessel. share/E1/1-1A10000664000175000017500000000070311724276256011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A1 A What is a requirement of all marine transmitting apparatus used aboard United States vessels? A. Only equipment that has been certified by the FCC for Part 80 operations is authorized. B. Equipment must be type-accepted by the U.S. Coast Guard for maritime mobile use. C. Certification is required by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). D. Programming of all maritime channels must be performed by a licensed Marine Radio Operator. share/E1/1-12B60000664000175000017500000000043111724276257011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B6 B GMDSS is required for which of the following? A. All vessels capable of international voyages. B. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. C. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coastal radio stations. D. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons. share/E1/1-22D40000664000175000017500000000070311724276260011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D4 D Which statement is true regarding the SART? A. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one S-band navigational RADAR system. B. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by another vessel's S-band navigational RADAR system. C. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one X-band navigational RADAR system. D. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by vessel's X-band navigational RADAR system. share/E1/1-7B10000664000175000017500000000052711724276257011232 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B1 B What traffic management service is operated by the U.S. Coast Guard in certain designated water areas to prevent ship collisions, groundings and environmental harm? A. Water Safety Management Bureau (WSMB). B. Vessel Traffic Service (VTS). C. Ship Movement and Safety Agency (SMSA). D. Interdepartmental Harbor and Port Patrol (IHPP). share/E1/1-23D20000664000175000017500000000042411724276260011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D2 A Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Operation on Ch-13. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. C. Simplex voice communications only. D. Operation on Ch-16. share/E1/1-2A30000664000175000017500000000101211724276256011213 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A3 A Which of the following persons are ineligible to be issued a commercial radio operator license? A. Individuals who are unable to send and receive correctly by telephone spoken messages in English. B. Handicapped persons with uncorrected disabilities which affect their ability to perform all duties required of commercial radio operators. C. Foreign maritime radio operators unless they are certified by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). D. U.S. Military radio operators who are still on active duty. share/E1/1-8B60000664000175000017500000000037511724276257011241 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B6 B What is the priority of communications? A. Safety, Distress, Urgency and radio direction-finding. B. Distress, Urgency and Safety. C. Distress, Safety, radio direction-finding, search and rescue. D. Radio direction-finding, Distress and Safety. share/E1/1-1A60000664000175000017500000000022711724276256011224 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A6 D Shipboard transmitters using F3E emission (FM voice) may not exceed what carrier power? A. 500 watts. B. 250 watts. C. 100 watts. D. 25 watts. share/E1/1-13C50000664000175000017500000000036411724276257011313 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C5 D The "Scan" function is used to: A. Monitor Ch-16 continuously and switching to either Ch-70 or Ch-13 every 5 seconds. B. Scan Ch-16 for Distress calls. C. Scan Ch-70 for Distress alerts. D. Sequentially scan all or selected channels. share/E1/1-18C60000664000175000017500000000106311724276260011310 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C6 B Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system that must be reported to the Master, then logged appropriately. A. Much higher noise level observed during daytime operation. B. No indication of power output when speaking into the microphone. C. When testing a radiotelephone alarm on 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna, the Distress frequency watch receiver becomes unmuted, an improper testing procedure. D. Failure to contact a shore station 600 nautical miles distant during daytime operation. share/E1/1-1A20000664000175000017500000000073711724276256011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A2 B What transmitting equipment is authorized for use by a station in the maritime services? A. Transmitters that have been certified by the manufacturer for maritime use. B. Unless specifically excepted, only transmitters certified by the Federal Communications Commission for Part 80 operations. C. Equipment that has been inspected and approved by the U.S. Coast Guard. D. Transceivers and transmitters that meet all ITU specifications for use in maritime mobile service. share/E1/1-8B30000664000175000017500000000107611724276257011235 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B3 C Who determines when a ship station may transmit routine traffic destined for a coast or government station in the maritime mobile service? A. Shipboard radio officers may transmit traffic when it will not interfere with ongoing radiocommunications. B. The order and time of transmission and permissible type of message traffic is decided by the licensed on-duty operator. C. Ship stations must comply with instructions given by the coast or government station. D. The precedence of conventional radiocommunications is determined by FCC and international regulation. share/E1/1-24D20000664000175000017500000000017211724276260011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D2 D MSI can be obtained by one (or more) of the following: A. NAVTEX. B. SafetyNET. C. HF NBDP. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-11B60000664000175000017500000000036611724276257011313 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B6 D What safety signal call word is spoken three times, followed by the station call letters spoken three times, to announce a storm warning, danger to navigation, or special aid to navigation? A. PAN PAN. B. MAYDAY. C. SAFETY. D. SECURITE. share/E1/1-2A40000664000175000017500000000102111724276256011214 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A4 D What are the radio operator requirements of a passenger ship equipped with a GMDSS installation? A. The operator must hold a General Radiotelephone Operator License or higher-class license. B. The operator must hold a Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit or higher-class license. C. The operator must hold a Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher-class license. D. Two operators on board must hold a GMDSS Radio Operator License or a Restricted GMDSS Radio Operator License, depending on the ship's operating areas. share/E1/1-10B30000664000175000017500000000075611724276257011312 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B3 B What is a Distress communication? A. Communications indicating that the calling station has a very urgent message concerning safety. B. An internationally recognized communication indicating that the sender is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate assistance. C. Radio communications which, if delayed, will adversely affect the safety of life or property. D. An official radio communication notification of approaching navigational or meteorological hazards. share/E1/1-16C60000664000175000017500000000037611724276260011314 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C6 D For general communications purposes, simplex frequencies are: A. Normally used between ship stations and private coast stations. B. Normally used with public coast stations. C. Normally used between ship stations. D. Both a) and c) are correct. share/E1/1-8B20000664000175000017500000000062411724276257011232 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B2 B Under what circumstances may a coast station using telephony transmit a general call to a group of vessels? A. Under no circumstances. B. When announcing or preceding the transmission of Distress, Urgency, Safety or other important messages. C. When the vessels are located in international waters beyond 12 miles. D. When identical traffic is destined for multiple mobile stations within range. share/E1/1-7B50000664000175000017500000000046211724276257011234 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B5 A A ship station using VHF bridge-to-bridge Channel 13: A. May be identified by the name of the ship in lieu of call sign. B. May be identified by call sign and country of origin. C. Must be identified by call sign and name of vessel. D. Does not need to identify itself within 100 miles from shore. share/E1/1-21D40000664000175000017500000000050611724276260011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D4 C How do you cancel a false EPIRB distress alert? A. Transmit a DSC distress alert cancellation. B. Transmit a broadcast message to "all stations" canceling the distress message. C. Notify the Coast Guard or rescue coordination center at once. D. Make a radiotelephony "distress cancellation" transmission on 2182 kHz. share/E1/1-24D10000664000175000017500000000037011724276260011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D1 B NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. Immediately following traffic lists. B. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. C. On request of maritime mobile stations. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. share/E1/1-2A60000664000175000017500000000106511724276256011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A6 B What is a requirement of every commercial operator on duty and in charge of a transmitting system? A. A copy of the Proof-of-Passing Certificate (PPC) must be in the station's records. B. The original license or a photocopy must be posted or in the operator's personal possession and available for inspection. C. The FCC Form 605 certifying the operator's qualifications must be readily available at the transmitting system site. D. A copy of the operator's license must be supplied to the radio station's supervisor as evidence of technical qualification. share/E1/1-4A50000664000175000017500000000064211724276256011227 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A5 B How long should station logs be retained when there are entries relating to distress or disaster situations? A. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them. B. For a period of three years from the last date of entry, unless notified by the FCC. C. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard. D. For a period of one year from the last date of entry. share/E1/1-18C30000664000175000017500000000024711724276260011310 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C3 C If a ship radio transmitter signal becomes distorted: A. Reduce transmitter power. B. Use minimum modulation. C. Cease operations. D. Reduce audio amplitude. share/E1/1-9B20000664000175000017500000000044111724276257011230 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B2 B Ordinarily, how often would a station using a telephony emission identify? A. At least every 10 minutes. B. At the beginning and end of each transmission and at 15-minute intervals. C. At 15-minute intervals, unless public correspondence is in progress. D. At 20-minute intervals. share/E1/1-5A60000664000175000017500000000044311724276256011230 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A6 A Which of the following statements concerning log entries is false? A. All Safety communications received on VHF must be logged. B. All required equipment tests must be logged. C. The radio operator must log on and off watch. D. The vessels daily position must be entered in the log. share/E1/1-18C10000664000175000017500000000041311724276260011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C1 C Under normal circumstances, what do you do if the transmitter aboard your ship is operating off-frequency, overmodulating or distorting? A. Reduce to low power. B. Reduce audio volume level. C. Stop transmitting. D. Make a notation in station operating log. share/E1/1-9B10000664000175000017500000000056211724276257011233 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B1 A Under what circumstances may a ship or aircraft station interfere with a public coast station? A. In cases of distress. B. Under no circumstances during on-going radiocommunications. C. During periods of government priority traffic handling. D. When it is necessary to transmit a message concerning the safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. share/E1/1-9B50000664000175000017500000000063011724276257011233 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B5 B On what frequency should a ship station normally call a coast station when using a radiotelephony emission? A. On a vacant radio channel determined by the licensed radio officer. B. Calls should be initiated on the appropriate ship-to-shore working frequency of the coast station. C. On any calling frequency internationally approved for use within ITU Region 2. D. On 2182 kHz or Ch-16 at any time. share/E1/1-16C40000664000175000017500000000046311724276260011307 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C4 A What emission must be used when operating on the MF distress and calling voice frequency? A. J3E " Single sideband telephony. B. A1A " On-off keying without modulation by an audio frequency. C. F3E " Frequency modulation telephony. D. A3E " Amplitude modulation telephony, double sideband. share/E1/1-14C30000664000175000017500000000020311724276257011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C3 A Which VHF channel is used only for digital selective calling? A. Channel 70. B. Channel 16. C. Channel 22A. D. Channel 6. share/E1/1-8B50000664000175000017500000000066211724276257011237 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B5 D How does a coast station notify a ship that it has a message for the ship? A. By making a directed transmission on 2182 kHz or 156.800 MHz. B. The coast station changes to the vessel's known working frequency. C. By establishing communications using the eight-digit maritime mobile service identification. D. The coast station may transmit, at intervals, lists of call signs in alphabetical order for which they have traffic. share/E1/1-5A10000664000175000017500000000033711724276257011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A1 D Radiotelephone stations required to keep logs of their transmissions must include: A. Station, date and time. B. Name of operator on duty. C. Station call signs with which communication took place. D. All of these. share/E1/1-1A30000664000175000017500000000036011724276256011217 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A3 D Small passenger vessels that sail 20 to 150 nautical miles from the nearest land must have what additional equipment? A. Inmarsat-B terminal. B. Inmarsat-C terminal. C. Aircraft Transceiver with 121.5 MHz. D. MF-HF SSB Transceiver. share/E1/1-15C10000664000175000017500000000025311724276260011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C1 D Which modes could be selected to receive vessel traffic lists from high seas shore stations? A. AM and VHF-FM. B. ARQ and FEC. C. VHF-FM and SSB. D. SSB and FEC. share/E1/1-20D60000664000175000017500000000101511724276260011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D6 A What is the meaning of "Reserve Source of Energy"? A. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship's main and emergency sources of electrical power. B. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. C. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements. D. None of these. share/E1/1-4A20000664000175000017500000000043611724276256011225 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A2 D Who is responsible for the proper maintenance of station logs? A. The station licensee. B. The commercially-licensed radio operator in charge of the station. C. The ship's master and the station licensee. D. The station licensee and the radio operator in charge of the station. share/E1/1-20D10000664000175000017500000000042111724276260011272 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D1 D For a small passenger vessel inspection, reserve power batteries must be tested: A. At intervals not exceeding every 3 months. B. At intervals not exceeding every 6 months C. Before any new voyage D. At intervals not exceeding 12 months, or during the inspection. share/E1/1-6A20000664000175000017500000000062611724276257011231 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A2 C When may the operator of a ship radio station allow an unlicensed person to speak over the transmitter? A. At no time. Only commercially-licensed radio operators may modulate the transmitting apparatus. B. When the station power does not exceed 200 watts peak envelope power. C. When under the supervision of the licensed operator. D. During the hours that the radio officer is normally off duty. share/E1/1-19D60000664000175000017500000000021211724276260011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D6 C A vertical whip antenna has a radiation pattern best described by? A. A figure eight. B. A cardioid. C. A circle. D. An ellipse. share/E1/1-13C10000664000175000017500000000066411724276257011312 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C1 C What is the purpose of the INT-USA control settings on a VHF? A. To change all VTS frequencies to Duplex so all vessels can receive maneuvering orders. B. To change all VHF channels from Duplex to Simplex while in U.S. waters. C. To change certain International Duplex channel assignments to simplex in the U.S. for VTS and other purposes. D. To change to NOAA weather channels and receive weather broadcasts while in the U.S. share/E1/1-16C20000664000175000017500000000017511724276260011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C2 C What is the MF radiotelephony calling and Distress frequency? A. 2670 kHz. B. Ch-06 VHF. C. 2182 kHz. D. Ch-22 VHF. share/E1/1-3A10000664000175000017500000000033311724276256011217 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A1 C Radio watches for compulsory radiotelephone stations will include the following: A. VHF channel 22a continuous watch at sea. B. 121.5 MHz continuous watch at sea. C. VHF channel 16 continuous watch. D. 500 kHz. share/E1/1-9B30000664000175000017500000000044611724276257011236 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B3 D When using a SSB station on 2182 kHz or VHF-FM on channel 16: A. Preliminary call must not exceed 30 seconds. B. If contact is not made, you must wait at least 2 minutes before repeating the call. C. Once contact is established, you must switch to a working frequency. D. All of these. share/E1/1-11B10000664000175000017500000000065311724276257011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B1 A What is a typical Urgency transmission? A. A request for medical assistance that does not rise to the level of a Distress or a critical weather transmission higher than Safety. B. A radio Distress transmission affecting the security of humans or property. C. Health and welfare traffic which impacts the protection of on-board personnel. D. A communications alert that important personal messages must be transmitted. share/E1/1-12B40000664000175000017500000000065311724276257011311 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B4 D GMDSS is primarily a system based on? A. Ship-to-ship Distress communications using MF or HF radiotelephony. B. VHF digital selective calling from ship to shore. C. Distress, Urgency and Safety communications carried out by the use of narrow-band direct printing telegraphy. D. The linking of search and rescue authorities ashore with shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress or in need of assistance. share/E1/1-20D40000664000175000017500000000052311726003171011267 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D4 C In the event of failure of the main and emergency sources of electrical power, what is the term for the source required to supply the GMDSS console with power for conducting distress and other radio communications? A. Emergency power. B. Ship's emergency diesel generator. C. Reserve source of energy. D. Ship's standby generator share/E1/1-14C50000664000175000017500000000020211724276257011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C5 B Which channel would most likely be used for routine ship-to-ship voice traffic? A. Ch-16. B. Ch-08. C. Ch-70. D. Ch-22A. share/E1/1-20D30000664000175000017500000000055611731202724011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D3 B Which of the following terms is defined as a back-up power source that provides power to radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications when the vessel's main and emergency generators cannot? A. Emergency Diesel Generator. B. Reserve Source of Energy. C. Reserve Source of Diesel Power. D. Emergency Back-up Generator. share/E1/1-19D10000664000175000017500000000070311724276260011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D1 A What are the antenna requirements of a VHF telephony coast, maritime utility or ship station? A. The shore or on-board antenna must be vertically polarized. B. The antenna array must be type-accepted for 30-200 MHz operation by the FCC. C. The horizontally-polarized antenna must be positioned so as not to cause excessive interference to other stations. D. The antenna must be capable of being energized by an output in excess of 100 watts. share/E1/1-11B50000664000175000017500000000017111724276257011304 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B5 B The Urgency signal has lower priority than: A. Ship-to-ship routine calls. B. Distress. C. Safety. D. Security. share/E1/1-17C20000664000175000017500000000027311724276260011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C2 D When testing is conducted on 2182 kHz or Ch-16, testing should not continue for more than ______ in any 5-minute period. A. 2 minutes. B. 1 minute. C. 30 seconds. D. 10 seconds. share/E1/1-23D30000664000175000017500000000045011724276260011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D3 D With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate? A. Communication is permitted between survival craft. B. Communication is permitted between survival craft and ship. C. Communication is permitted between survival craft and rescue unit. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-15C30000664000175000017500000000053511724276260011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C3 C To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a voice call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR operations. B. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. C. Select J3E mode for proper voice operations. D. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether FEC or ARQ is preferred. share/E1/1-6A50000664000175000017500000000061211724276257011227 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A5 C Where must the principal radiotelephone operating position be installed in a ship station? A. At the principal radio operating position of the vessel. B. In the chart room, master's quarters or wheel house. C. In the room or an adjoining room from which the ship is normally steered while at sea. D. At the level of the main wheel house or at least one deck above the ship's main deck. share/E1/1-11B30000664000175000017500000000055011724276257011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B3 A What is a Safety transmission? A. A communications transmission which indicates that a station is preparing to transmit an important navigation or weather warning. B. A radiotelephony warning preceded by the words "PAN PAN." C. Health and welfare traffic concerning the protection of human life. D. A voice call proceeded by the words "Safety Alert." share/E1/1-13C20000664000175000017500000000022011724276257011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C2 A VHF ship station transmitters must have the capability of reducing carrier power to: A. 1 watt. B. 10 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 50 watts. share/E1/1-15C50000664000175000017500000000050311724276260011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C5 B To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a TELEX call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR operations. B. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. C. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether ARQ or FEC is preferred. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-17C50000664000175000017500000000046111724276260011307 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C5 A The best way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal is? A. Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal. B. Send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation. C. Send a message to another ship terminal. D. If the "Send" light flashes, proper operation has been confirmed. share/E1/1-18C40000664000175000017500000000067111724276260011312 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C4 A What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system? A. A constant 30 volt reading on the GMDSS console voltmeter. B. After testing the station on battery power, the ammeter reading indicates a high rate of charge that then declines. C. After testing the station on battery power, a voltmeter reading of 30 volts for brief period followed by a steady 26 volt reading. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-13C60000664000175000017500000000112411724276257011307 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C6 B Why must all VHF Distress, Urgency and Safety communications (as well as VTS traffic calls) be performed in Simplex operating mode? A. To minimize interference from vessels engaged in routine communications. B. To ensure that vessels not directly participating in the communications can hear both sides of the radio exchange. C. To enable an RCC or Coast station to only hear communications from the vessel actually in distress. D. To allow an RCC or Coast station to determine which transmissions are from other vessels and which transmissions are from the vessel actually in distress. share/E1/1-11B40000664000175000017500000000042511724276257011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B4 C The Urgency signal concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or person shall be sent only on the authority of: A. Master of ship. B. Person responsible for mobile station. C. Either Master of ship or person responsible for mobile station. D. An FCC-licensed operator. share/E1/1-19D20000664000175000017500000000104011724276260011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D2 B What is the antenna requirement of a radiotelephone installation aboard a passenger vessel? A. The antenna must be located a minimum of 15 meters from the radiotelegraph antenna. B. The antenna must be vertically polarized and as non-directional and efficient as is practicable for the transmission and reception of ground waves over seawater. C. An emergency reserve antenna system must be provided for communications on 156.800 MHz. D. All antennas must be tested and the operational results logged at least once during each voyage. share/E1/1-17C30000664000175000017500000000030611724276260011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C3 A Under GMDSS, a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at sea? A. Daily. B. Annually, by a representative of the FCC. C. Weekly. D. Monthly. share/E1/1-23D10000664000175000017500000000053311724276260011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D1 C Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 watts. C. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. share/E1/1-23D40000664000175000017500000000032011724276260011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D4 A Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on Ch-16. B. Operation on 457.525 MHz. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Any one of these. share/E1/1-22D10000664000175000017500000000017211724276260011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D1 D In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 3 GHz. B. S-band. C. 406 MHz. D. 9 GHz. share/E1/1-21D20000664000175000017500000000045411724276260011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D2 B When are EPIRB batteries changed? A. After emergency use; after battery life expires. B. After emergency use or within the month and year replacement date printed on the EPIRB. C. After emergency use; every 12 months when not used. D. Whenever voltage drops to less than 20% of full charge. share/E1/1-15C60000664000175000017500000000051111724276257011310 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C6 A What is the purpose of the Receiver Incremental Tuning (RIT) or "Clarifier" control? A. It acts as a "fine-tune" control on the receive frequency. B. It acts as a "fine-tune" control on the transmitted frequency. C. It acts as a "fine-tune" control on both the receive and transmitted frequencies. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-7B40000664000175000017500000000032211724276257011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B4 D When is it legal to transmit high power on Channel 13? A. Failure of vessel being called to respond. B. In a blind situation such as rounding a bend in a river. C. During an emergency. D. All of these. share/E1/1-13C40000664000175000017500000000070211724276257011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C4 A Which of the following statements best describes the correct setting for manual adjustment of the squelch control? A. Adjust squelch control to the minimum level necessary to barely suppress any background noise. B. Always adjust squelch control to its maximum level. C. Always adjust squelch control to its minimum level. D. Adjust squelch control to approximately twice the minimum level necessary to barely suppress any background noise. share/E1/1-10B40000664000175000017500000000073611724276257011311 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B4 C What is the order of priority of radiotelephone communications in the maritime services? A. Alarm and health and welfare communications. B. Navigation hazards, meteorological warnings, priority traffic. C. Distress calls and signals, followed by communications preceded by Urgency and Safety signals and all other communications. D. Government precedence, messages concerning safety of life and protection of property, and traffic concerning grave and imminent danger. share/E1/1-10B50000664000175000017500000000067211724276257011311 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B5 D The radiotelephone Distress call and message consists of: A. MAYDAY spoken three times, followed by the name of the vessel and the call sign in phonetics spoken three times. B. Particulars of its position, latitude and longitude, and other information which might facilitate rescue, such as length, color and type of vessel, and number of persons on board. C. Nature of distress and kind of assistance required. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-18C20000664000175000017500000000113211724276260011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C2 B Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output? A. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, power output is indicated. B. In SITOR communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. C. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes power meter to fluctuate slightly around the 60 watt reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF Power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. share/E1/1-17C60000664000175000017500000000044111724276260011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C6 C When may you test a radiotelephone transmitter on the air? A. Between midnight and 6:00 AM local time. B. Only when authorized by the Commission. C. At any time (except during silent periods) as necessary to assure proper operation. D. After reducing transmitter power to 1 watt. share/E1/1-13C30000664000175000017500000000042011724276257011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C3 D The Dual Watch (DW) function is used to: A. Listen to Ch-70 at the same time while monitoring Ch-16. B. Sequentially monitor 4 different channels. C. Sequentially monitoring all VHF channels. D. Listen on any selected channel while periodically monitoring Ch-16. share/E1/1-2A50000664000175000017500000000043611724276256011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A5 C What is the minimum radio operator requirement for ships subject to the Great Lakes Radio Agreement? A. Third Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate. B. General Radiotelephone Operator License. C. Marine Radio Operator Permit. D. Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit. share/E1/1-11B20000664000175000017500000000046411724276257011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B2 B What is the internationally recognized Urgency signal? A. The letters "TTT" transmitted three times by radiotelegraphy. B. The words "PAN PAN" spoken three times before the Urgency call. C. Three oral repetitions of the word "Safety" sent before the call. D. The pronouncement of the word "Mayday." share/E1/1-10B10000664000175000017500000000025411724276257011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B1 D What information must be included in a Distress message? A. Name of vessel. B. Location. C. Type of distress and specifics of help requested. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-2A20000664000175000017500000000075411724276256011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A2 C When is a Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher license required for aircraft communications? A. When operating on frequencies below 30 MHz allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. B. When operating on frequencies above 30 MHz allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. C. When operating on frequencies below 30 MHz not allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. D. When operating on frequencies above 30 MHz not assigned for international use. share/E1/1-7B60000664000175000017500000000036011724276257011232 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B6 C The primary purpose of bridge-to-bridge communications is: A. Search and rescue emergency calls only. B. All short-range transmission aboard ship. C. Navigational communications. D. Transmission of Captain's orders from the bridge. share/E1/1-6A30000664000175000017500000000062311724276257011227 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A3 C Where do you make an application for inspection of a ship GMDSS radio station? A. To a Commercial Operator Licensing Examination Manager (COLE Manager). B. To the Federal Communications Commission, Washington, DC 20554. C. To the Engineer-in-Charge of the FCC District Office nearest the proposed place of inspection. D. To an FCC-licensed technician holding a GMDSS Radio Maintainer's License. share/E1/1-16C30000664000175000017500000000040311724276260011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C3 D For general communications purposes, paired frequencies are: A. Normally used with private coast stations. B. Normally used between ship stations. C. Normally used between private coast and ship stations. D. Normally used with public coast stations. share/E1/1-21D60000664000175000017500000000060711724276260011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D6 D What is an advantage of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. It is compatible with the COSPAS-SARSAT Satellites and Global Maritime Distress Safety System (GMDSS) regulations. B. Provides a fast, accurate method for the Coast Guard to locating and rescuing persons in distress. C. Includes a digitally encoded message containing the ship's identity and nationality. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-18C50000664000175000017500000000071311724276260011310 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C5 D Your antenna tuner becomes totally inoperative. What would you do to obtain operation on both the 8 MHz and 22 MHz frequency bands? A. Without an operating antenna tuner, transmission is impossible. B. It is impossible to obtain operation on 2 different HF bands, without an operating antenna tuner. C. Bypass the antenna tuner and shorten the whip to 15 ft. D. Bypass the antenna tuner. Use a straight whip or wire antenna approximately 30 ft long. share/E1/1-21D10000664000175000017500000000044611724276260011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D1 A What is an EPIRB? A. A battery-operated emergency position-indicating radio beacon that floats free of a sinking ship. B. An alerting device notifying mariners of imminent danger. C. A satellite-based maritime distress and safety alerting system. D. A high-efficiency audio amplifier. share/E1/1-16C50000664000175000017500000000034611724276260011310 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C5 C Which of the following defines high frequency "ITU Channel 1212"? A. Ch-12 in the 16 MHz band. B. Ch-1216 in the MF band. C. The 12th channel in the 12 MHz band. D. This would indicate the 1st channel in the 12 MHz band. share/E1/1-23D50000664000175000017500000000031211724276260011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D5 D Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristic(s)? A. Operation on Ch-16. B. Watertight. C. Permanently-affixed antenna. D. All of these. share/E1/1-22D50000664000175000017500000000061611724276260011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D5 C At what point does a SART begin transmitting? A. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the "on" position. B. It must be manually activated. C. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz RADAR signal. D. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in water. share/E1/1-7B20000664000175000017500000000106411724276257011230 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B2 D What is a bridge-to-bridge station? A. An internal communications system linking the wheel house with the ship's primary radio operating position and other integral ship control points. B. An inland waterways and coastal radio station serving ship stations operating within the United States. C. A portable ship station necessary to eliminate frequent application to operate a ship station on board different vessels. D. A VHF radio station located on a ship's navigational bridge or main control station that is used only for navigational communications. share/E1/1-8B10000664000175000017500000000067311724276257011235 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B1 C What is the best way for a radio operator to minimize or prevent interference to other stations? A. By using an omni-directional antenna pointed away from other stations. B. Reducing power to a level that will not affect other on-frequency communications. C. Determine that a frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting. D. By changing frequency when notified that a radiocommunication causes interference. share/E1/1-17C10000664000175000017500000000074111724276260011304 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C1 B What is the proper procedure for testing a radiotelephone installation? A. A dummy antenna must be used to insure the test will not interfere with ongoing communications. B. Transmit the station's call sign, followed by the word "test" on the frequency being used for the test. C. Permission for the voice test must be requested and received from the nearest public coast station. D. Short tests must be confined to a single frequency and must never be conducted in port. share/E1/1-3A60000664000175000017500000000040711724276256011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A6 B What are the mandatory DSC watchkeeping bands/channels? A. VHF Ch-70, 2 MHz MF DSC, 6 MHz DSC and 1 other HF DSC. B. 8 MHz HF DSC, 1 other HF DSC, 2 MHz MF DSC and VHF Ch-70. C. 2 MHz MF DSC, 8 MHz DSC, VHF Ch-16 and 1 other HF DSC. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-6A60000664000175000017500000000061611724276257011234 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A6 D By international agreement, which ships must carry radio equipment for the safety of life at sea? A. All ships traveling more than 100 miles out to sea. B. Cargo ships of more than 100 gross tons and passenger vessels on international deep-sea voyages. C. All cargo ships of more than 100 gross tons. D. Cargo ships of more than 300 gross tons and vessels carrying more than 12 passengers. share/E1/1-24D60000664000175000017500000000047611724276260011315 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D6 C What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations? A. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore. B. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime. C. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km). D. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km). share/E1/1-5A40000664000175000017500000000052211724276257011225 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A4 A Which of the following statements is true? A. Key letters or abbreviations may be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks if their meaning is noted in the log. B. Key letters or abbreviations may not be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks under any circumstances. C. All Urgency communications must be entered in the logbook. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-14C10000664000175000017500000000023611724276257011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C1 B What channel must VHF-FM-equipped vessels monitor at all times when the vessel is at sea? A. Channel 8. B. Channel 16. C. Channel 5A. D. Channel 1A. share/E1/1-19D40000664000175000017500000000050311724276260011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D4 A What is the purpose of the antenna tuner? A. It alters the electrical characteristics of the antenna to match the frequency in use. B. It physically alters the length of the antenna to match the frequency in use. C. It makes the antenna look like a half-wave antenna at the frequency in use. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-20D20000664000175000017500000000060411724276260011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D2 C What are the characteristics of the Reserve Source of Energy under GMDSS? A. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time. B. Cannot be independent of the propelling power of the ship. C. Must be independent of the ship's electrical system when the RSE is needed to supply power to the GMDSS equipment. D. Must be incorporated into the ship's electrical system. share/E1/1-17C40000664000175000017500000000056311724276260011311 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C4 D The best way to test the MF-HF NBDP system is? A. Make a radiotelephone call to a coast station. B. Initiate an ARQ call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. C. Initiate an FEC call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. D. Initiate an ARQ call to a Coast Station and wait for the automatic exchange of answerbacks. share/E1/1-20D50000664000175000017500000000102711724276260011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D5 D What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? A. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries). B. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications. C. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a distress alert. D. All newly constructed ships under GMDSS must have both emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications. share/E1/1-10B60000664000175000017500000000070511724276257011307 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B6 A What is Distress traffic? A. All messages relative to the immediate assistance required by a ship, aircraft or other vehicle threatened by grave or imminent danger, such as life and safety of persons on board, or man overboard. B. In radiotelephony, the speaking of the word, "Mayday." C. Health and welfare messages concerning property and the safety of a vessel. D. Internationally recognized communications relating to important situations. share/E1/1-22D20000664000175000017500000000042011724276260011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D2 C How should the signal from a Search And Rescue Radar Transponder appear on a RADAR display? A. A series of dashes. B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART. C. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. D. A series of twenty dashes. share/E1/1-9B40000664000175000017500000000062611724276257011237 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B4 A What should a station operator do before making a transmission? A. Except for the transmission of distress calls, determine that the frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting. B. Transmit a general notification that the operator wishes to utilize the channel. C. Check transmitting equipment to be certain it is properly calibrated. D. Ask if the frequency is in use. share/E1/1-24D30000664000175000017500000000040411724276260011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D3 A Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 518 kHz. B. 2187.5 kHz. C. 4209.5 kHz. D. VHF channel 16 when the vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2. share/E1/1-12B30000664000175000017500000000050611724276257011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B3 D What is the basic concept of GMDSS? A. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation with minimum delay. B. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a Distress situation. C. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress will be rapidly alerted. D. All of these. share/E1/1-15C20000664000175000017500000000107411724276260011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C2 B Why must all MF-HF Distress, Urgency and Safety communications take place solely on the 6 assigned frequencies and in the simplex operating mode? A. For non-GMDSS ships, to maximize the chances for other vessels to receive those communications. B. Answers a) and c) are both correct. C. For GMDSS or DSC-equipped ships, to maximize the chances for other vessels to receive those communications following the transmission of a DSC call of the correct priority. D. To enable an RCC or Coast station to only hear communications from the vessel actually in distress. share/E1/1-3A40000664000175000017500000000024711724276256011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A4 A When a watch is required on 2182 kHz, at how many minutes past the hour must a 3 minute silent period be observed? A. 00, 30. B. 15, 45. C. 10, 40. D. 05, 35. share/E1/1-24D40000664000175000017500000000053611724276260011310 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D4 C What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system? A. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours. B. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. C. Programming the receiver to reject unwanted broadcasts. D. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours. share/E1/1-8B40000664000175000017500000000106011724276257011227 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B4 A What is required of a ship station which has established initial contact with another station on 2182 kHz or Ch-16? A. The stations must change to an authorized working frequency for the transmission of messages. B. The stations must check the radio channel for Distress, Urgency and Safety calls at least once every ten minutes. C. Radiated power must be minimized so as not to interfere with other stations needing to use the channel. D. To expedite safety communications, the vessels must observe radio silence for two out of every fifteen minutes. share/E1/1-12B10000664000175000017500000000077011724276257011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B1 D What is the fundamental concept of the GMDSS? A. It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques. B. It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost commercial communications. C. It is intended to provide compulsory vessels with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels. D. It is intended to automate and improve emergency communications in the maritime industry. share/E1/1-15C40000664000175000017500000000050011724276260011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C4 A MF/HF transceiver power levels should be set: A. To the lowest level necessary for effective communications. B. To the level necessary to maximize the propagation radius. C. To the highest level possible so as to ensure other stations cannot "break-in" on the channel during use. D. Both a) and c) are correct. share/E1/1-16C10000664000175000017500000000074211724276260011304 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C1 B On what frequency would a vessel normally call another ship station when using a radiotelephony emission? A. Only on 2182 kHz in ITU Region 2. B. On 2182 kHz or Ch-16, unless the station knows that the called vessel maintains a simultaneous watch on another intership working frequency. C. On the appropriate calling channel of the ship station at 15 minutes past the hour. D. On the vessel's unique working radio channel assigned by the Federal Communications Commission. share/E1/1-24D50000664000175000017500000000023011724276260011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D5 B When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range? A. Local noontime. B. Middle of the night. C. Sunset. D. Post sunrise. share/E1/1-3A20000664000175000017500000000046311724276256011224 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A2 A All compulsory equipped cargo ships (except those operating under GMDSS regulations or in a VTS) while being navigated outside of a harbor or port, shall keep a continuous radiotelephone watch on: A. 2182 kHz and Ch-16. B. 2182 kHz. C. Ch-16. D. Cargo ships are exempt from radio watch regulations. share/E1/1-4A40000664000175000017500000000102111724276256011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A4 C What is the proper procedure for making a correction in the station log? A. The ship's master must be notified, approve and initial all changes to the station log. B. The mistake may be erased and the correction made and initialized only by the radio operator making the original error. C. The original person making the entry must strike out the error, initial the correction and indicate the date of the correction. D. Rewrite the new entry in its entirety directly below the incorrect notation and initial the change. share/E1/1-22D60000664000175000017500000000052511724276260011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D6 B How can a SART's effective range be maximized? A. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation. B. The SART should be held as high as possible. C. Switch the SART into the "high" power position. D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching RADAR signal. share/E1/1-3A30000664000175000017500000000023411724276256011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A3 D What channel must all compulsory, non-GMDSS vessels monitor at all times in the open sea? A. Channel 8. B. Channel 70. C. Channel 6. D. Channel 16. share/E1/1-12B50000664000175000017500000000117011724276257011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B5 C What is the responsibility of vessels under GMDSS? A. Vessels over 300 gross tons may be required to render assistance if such assistance does not adversely affect their port schedule. B. Only that vessel, regardless of size, closest to a vessel in Distress, is required to render assistance. C. Every ship is able to perform those communications functions that are essential for the Safety of the ship itself and of other ships. D. Vessels operating under GMDSS, outside of areas effectively serviced by shoreside authorities, operating in sea areas A2, and A4 may be required to render assistance in Distress situations. share/E1/1-21D30000664000175000017500000000047311724276260011304 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D3 A If a ship sinks, what device is designed to float free of the mother ship, is turned on automatically and transmits a distress signal? A. An emergency position indicating radio beacon. B. EPIRB on 2182 kHz and 405.025 kHz. C. Bridge-to-bridge transmitter on 2182 kHz. D. Auto alarm keyer on any frequency. share/E1/1-14C40000664000175000017500000000033311724276257011307 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C4 C Which channel is utilized for the required bridge-to-bridge watch? A. DSC on Ch-70. B. VHF-FM on Ch-16. C. VHF-FM on Ch-13 in most areas of the continental United States. D. The vessel's VHF working frequency. share/E1/1-10B20000664000175000017500000000055311724276257011304 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B2 C What are the highest priority communications from ships at sea? A. All critical message traffic authorized by the ship's master. B. Navigation and meteorological warnings. C. Distress calls are highest and then communications preceded by Urgency and then Safety signals. D. Authorized government communications for which priority right has been claimed. share/E1/1-19D30000664000175000017500000000025611724276260011312 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D3 D What is the most common type of antenna for GMDSS VHF? A. Horizontally polarized circular antenna. B. Long wire antenna. C. Both of the above. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-5A20000664000175000017500000000030411724276257011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A2 B Which of the following is true? A. Battery test must be logged daily. B. EPIRB tests are normally logged monthly. C. Radiotelephone tests are normally logged weekly. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-22D30000664000175000017500000000051011724276260011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D3 A What is the purpose of the SART's audible tone alarm? A. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby. B. It informs survivors when the battery's charge condition has weakened. C. It informs survivors when the SART switches to the "standby" mode. D. It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signaling on DSC. share/E1/1-6A10000664000175000017500000000077711724276257011237 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A1 B What regulations govern the use and operation of FCC-licensed ship stations in international waters? A. The regulations of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and Radio Officers Union. B. Part 80 of the FCC Rules plus the international Radio Regulations and agreements to which the United States is a party. C. The Maritime Mobile Directives of the International Telecommunication Union. D. Those of the FCC's Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, Maritime Mobile Service, Washington, DC 20554. share/E1/1-23D60000664000175000017500000000015411724276260011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D6 B What is the minimum power of the SCT A. Five watts. B. One watt. C. ¼ watt. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-19D50000664000175000017500000000033511724276260011312 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D5 B What advantage does a vertical whip have over a long wire? A. It radiates more signal fore and aft. B. It radiates equally well in all directions. C. It radiates a strong signal vertically. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-5A50000664000175000017500000000071011724276257011225 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A5 B Which of the following logkeeping statements is true? A. Entries relating to pre-voyage, pre-departure and daily tests are required. B. Both a) and c) C. A summary of all required Distress communications heard and Urgency communications affecting the station's own ship. Also, all Safety communications (other than VHF) affecting the station's own ship must be logged. D. Routine daily MF-HF and Inmarsat-C transmissions do not have to be logged. share/E1/1-12B20000664000175000017500000000051311724276257011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B2 C The primary purpose of the GMDSS is to: A. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels. B. Provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications. C. Automate and improve emergency communications for the world's shipping industry. D. Provide effective and inexpensive communications. share/fccexam0000755000175000017500000001707412223354526011701 0ustar jtnjtn#!/bin/sh # study FCC commercial exam question pools # Copyright (C) 2012-2013 John Nogatch # dir where question pools reside? INSTALLDIR="$(dirname "$(readlink -f $0)")" # user specified png viewer? if [ -n "${PNG_VIEWER+xxx}" ]; then if type "${PNG_VIEWER}" > /dev/null 2>&1; then echo "user specified \$PNG_VIEWER: ${PNG_VIEWER}" else echo "user specified \$PNG_VIEWER: ${PNG_VIEWER} is not executable" PNG_VIEWER="" fi # try eog elif type "eog" > /dev/null 2>&1; then PNG_VIEWER="eog" # try gwenview elif type "gwenview" > /dev/null 2>&1; then PNG_VIEWER="gwenview" # try gpicview elif type "gpicview" > /dev/null 2>&1; then PNG_VIEWER="gpicview" # try ristretto elif type "ristretto" > /dev/null 2>&1; then PNG_VIEWER="ristretto" else echo "\$PNG_VIEWER was not specifed nor found" PNG_VIEWER="" fi # dir to keep user's unanswered questions USERDIR=~/.fccexam # create user dir, if needed if [ ! -d "${USERDIR}" ]; then echo "creating ${USERDIR}" mkdir "${USERDIR}" if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then echo "unable to create ${USERDIR} directory" sleep 3 exit 1 fi fi # go to user dir so that question names are accessible cd ${USERDIR} if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then echo "unable to access ${USERDIR} directory" sleep 3 exit 1 fi # if no questions remain... ls ${USERDIR}/* >> /dev/null 2>&1 if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then # check argument for various license names, default to showing usage, version, brief help POOL=`echo $1 | tr [:lower:] [:upper:]` case "${POOL}" in "1" | "3" | "5" | "6" | "7" | "7R" | "8" | "9" ) ;; "T1" | "T2" | "T3" | "GROL" | "GROL+" | "MROP" | "GMDSS" | "GMDSS+" | "RGMDSS" ) ;; "Q" | *) echo "usage: fccexam {1|3|5|6|7|7R|8|9|T1|T2|T3|GROL|GROL+|MROP|GMDSS|GMDSS+|RGMDSS}"; echo "fccexam version 1.0.5"; echo "fccexam is an interactive study guide for USA FCC commercial radio examinations."; echo "question pool choices:"; echo " 1 Basic radio law and operating practice" echo " 3 Electronics fundamentals and techniques of radio transmitters and receivers" echo " 5 Radiotelegraph Operating Procedure" echo " 6 Advanced Radiotelegraph" echo " 7 GMDSS Radio Operating Practices" echo " 7R Restricted GMDSS Radio Operating Practices" echo " 8 Ship Radar Techniques" echo " 9 GMDSS Radio Maintenance Practices and Procedures" echo " T1 First Class Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 5, 6."; echo " T2 Second Class Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 5, 6."; echo " T3 Third Class Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 5."; echo " GROL General Radiotelephone Operator License: elements 1, 3."; echo " GROL+ General Radiotelephone Operator License + Radar: elements 1, 3, 8."; echo " MROP Marine Radio Operator Permit: element 1."; echo " GMDSS Global Maritime Distress Safety System Radio Operator: elements 1, 7."; echo " GMDSS+ GMDSS Radio Maintainer + Radar: elements 1, 7, 8, 9."; echo " RGMDSS Restricted GMDSS Radio Operator: elements 1, 7R."; echo "Questions are chosen randomly from the selected pool."; echo "Incorrect answers cause the question to be asked again later."; echo "Licenses are issued by the FCC, but exams are conducted by COLEM Examiners." echo "For more information about FCC commercial radio licensing:" echo " http://wireless.fcc.gov/commoperators/index.htm?job=home"; if [ "${POOL}" != "Q" ]; then sleep 3 exit 1; fi; POOL="Q" while [ $POOL = "Q" ]:; do # read -p "Which pool? ..." POOL; (Debian: read with option other than -r) echo -n "Which pool? {1,3,5,6,7,7R,8,9,T1,T2,T3,GROL,GROL+,MROP,GMDSS,GMDSS+,RGMDSS} " ; read POOL; POOL=`echo ${POOL} | tr [:lower:] [:upper:]` case "$POOL" in "1" | "3" | "5" | "6" | "7" | "7R" | "8" | "9" ) ;; "T1" | "T2" | "T3" | "GROL" | "GROL+" | "MROP" | "GMDSS" | "GMDSS+" | "RGMDSS" ) ;; * ) POOL="Q";; esac; done esac # load the questions case ${POOL} in "1" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .;; "3" ) echo "reloading element 3"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E3/* .;; "5" ) echo "reloading element 5"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E5/* .;; "6" ) echo "reloading element 6"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E6/* .;; "7" ) echo "reloading element 7"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7/* .;; "7R" ) echo "reloading element 7R"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7R/* .;; "8" ) echo "reloading element 8"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E8/* .;; "9" ) echo "reloading element 9"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E9/* .;; "T1" | "T2" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 5"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E5/* .; echo "reloading element 6"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E6/* .;; "T3" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 5"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E5/* .;; "GROL" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 3"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E3/* .;; "GROL+" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 3"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E3/* .; echo "reloading element 8"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E8/* .;; "MROP" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .;; "GMDSS" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 7"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7/* .;; "GMDSS+" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 7"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7/* .; echo "reloading element 8"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E8/* .; echo "reloading element 9"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E9/* .;; "RGMDSS" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 7R"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7R/* .;; "" | * ) echo "POOL variable was not set correctly"; sleep 3; exit 1;; esac else echo "resuming remaining questions ( to discard previous session, rm ~/.fccexam/* )" fi # if element 3, 8, 9 questions are present, display figures for i in 3 8 9; do ls ${USERDIR}/${i}* >> /dev/null 2>&1 if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then # no PNG_VIEWER available? if [ "${PNG_VIEWER}" = "" ]; then echo "no PNG_VIEWER to display element ${i} figures" else # bring up diagrams for this element ${PNG_VIEWER} ${INSTALLDIR}/E${i}png/*.png 2>/dev/null & if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then echo "${PNG_VIEWER} failed to display element ${i} figures" fi fi fi done # report how many questions remain ls * | wc | awk '{print $1 " questions remain in this pool\n"}' while :; do # random choice from remaining questions Q=`shuf -n 1 -e *` # exit if no more questions if [ "${Q}" = "*" ]; then echo "question pool completed" sleep 3 break fi # if question still exists (might be stale name from old pool)... if [ -e "${Q}" ]; then # no png viewer? if [ -z "${PNG_VIEWER}" ]; then # question references figure? egrep '[Ff]igure ' "${Q}" >> /dev/null if [ $? = 0 ]; then echo "question ${Q} refers to a figure\n" rm "${Q}" continue fi fi # ...ask the question awk -f "${INSTALLDIR}"/ask.awk "${Q}" else echo "question ${Q} is not found" fi case $? in # if correct, remove the question 0) rm "${Q}";; # check for quit or EOF 2) break;; esac done exit 0 # end of fccexam share/element3.txt0000664000175000017500000047454111724335162012632 0ustar jtnjtnFCC Commercial Element 3 Question Pool (approved 25 June 2009) Subelement A – Principles: 8 Key Topics, 8 Exam Questions Key Topic 1: Electrical Elements 3-1A1 The product of the readings of an AC voltmeter and AC ammeter is called: A. Apparent power. B. True power. C. Power factor. D. Current power. 3-1A2 What is the basic unit of electrical power? A. Ohm. B. Watt. C. Volt. D. Ampere. 3-1A3 What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? A. Joules. B. Coulombs. C. Watts. D. Volts. 3-1A4 What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field? A. Battery. B. Transformer. C. Capacitor. D. Inductor. 3-1A5 What formula would determine the inductive reactance of a coil if frequency and coil inductance are known? A. XL = f L B. XL = 2f L C. XL = 1 / 2f C D. XL = 1 / R2+X2 3-1A6 What is the term for the out-of-phase power associated with inductors and capacitors? A. Effective power. B. True power. C. Peak envelope power. D. Reactive power. Answer Key: 3-1A1: A 3-1A2: B 3-1A3: A 3-1A4: C 3-1A5: B 3-1A6: D Key Topic 2: Magnetism 3-2A1 What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor? A. The resistance divided by the current. B. The ratio of the current to the resistance. C. The diameter of the conductor. D. The amount of current. 3-2A2 What will produce a magnetic field? A. A DC source not connected to a circuit. B. The presence of a voltage across a capacitor. C. A current flowing through a conductor. D. The force that drives current through a resistor. 3-2A3 When induced currents produce expanding magnetic fields around conductors in a direction that opposes the original magnetic field, this is known as: A. Lenz’s law. B. Gilbert's law. C. Maxwell’s law. D. Norton’s law. 3-2A4 The opposition to the creation of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is known as: A. Eddy currents. B. Hysteresis. C. Permeability. D. Reluctance. 3-2A5 What is meant by the term “back EMF”? A. A current equal to the applied EMF. B. An opposing EMF equal to R times C (RC) percent of the applied EMF. C. A voltage that opposes the applied EMF. D. A current that opposes the applied EMF. 3-2A6 Permeability is defined as: A. The magnetic field created by a conductor wound on a laminated core and carrying current. B. The ratio of magnetic flux density in a substance to the magnetizing force that produces it. C. Polarized molecular alignment in a ferromagnetic material while under the influence of a magnetizing force. D. None of these. Answer Key: 3-2A1: D 3-2A2: C 3-2A3: A 3-2A4: D 3-2A5: C 3-2A6: B Key Topic 3: Materials 3-3A1 What metal is usually employed as a sacrificial anode for corrosion control purposes? A. Platinum bushing. B. Lead bar. C. Zinc bar. D. Brass rod. 3-3A2 What is the relative dielectric constant for air? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 0 3-3A3 Which metal object may be least affected by galvanic corrosion when submerged in seawater? A. Aluminum outdrive. B. Bronze through-hull. C. Exposed lead keel. D. Stainless steel propeller shaft. 3-3A4 Skin effect is the phenomenon where: A. RF current flows in a thin layer of the conductor, closer to the surface, as frequency increases. B. RF current flows in a thin layer of the conductor, closer to the surface, as frequency decreases. C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance. D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance. 3-3A5 Corrosion resulting from electric current flow between dissimilar metals is called: A. Electrolysis. B. Stray current corrosion. C. Oxygen starvation corrosion. D. Galvanic corrosion. 3-3A6 Which of these will be most useful for insulation at UHF frequencies? A. Rubber. B. Mica. C. Wax impregnated paper. D. Lead. Answer Key: 3-3A1: C 3-3A2: A 3-3A3: D 3-3A4: A 3-3A5: D 3-3A6: B Key Topic 4: Resistance, Capacitance & Inductance 3-4A1 What formula would calculate the total inductance of inductors in series? A. LT = L1 / L2 B. LT = L1 + L2 C. LT = 1 / L1 + L2 D. LT = 1 / L1 x L2 3-4A2 Good conductors with minimum resistance have what type of electrons? A. Few free electrons. B. No electrons. C. Some free electrons. D. Many free electrons. 3-4A3 Which of the 4 groups of metals listed below are the best low-resistance conductors? A. Gold, silver, and copper. B. Stainless steel, bronze, and lead. C. Iron, lead, and nickel. D. Bronze, zinc, and manganese. 3-4A4 What is the purpose of a bypass capacitor? A. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit. B. It removes direct current from the circuit by shunting DC to ground. C. It removes alternating current by providing a low impedance path to ground. D. It forms part of an impedance transforming circuit. 3-4A5 How would you calculate the total capacitance of three capacitors in parallel? A. CT = C1 + C2 / C1 - C2 + C3. B. CT = C1 + C2 + C3. C. CT = C1 + C2 / C1 x C2 + C3. D. CT = 1 / C1+1 / C2 + 1 / C3. 3-4A6 How might you reduce the inductance of an antenna coil? A. Add additional turns. B. Add more core permeability. C. Reduce the number of turns. D. Compress the coil turns. Answer Key: 3-4A1: B 3-4A2: D 3-4A3: A 3-4A4: C 3-4A5: B 3-4A6: C Key Topic 5: Semi-conductors 3-5A1 What are the two most commonly-used specifications for a junction diode? A. Maximum forward current and capacitance. B. Maximum reverse current and PIV (peak inverse voltage). C. Maximum reverse current and capacitance. D. Maximum forward current and PIV (peak inverse voltage). 3-5A2 What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode? A. The peak inverse voltage (PIV). B. The junction temperature. C. The forward voltage. D. The back EMF. 3-5A3 MOSFETs are manufactured with THIS protective device built into their gate to protect the device from static charges and excessive voltages: A. Schottky diode. B. Metal oxide varistor (MOV). C. Zener diode. D. Tunnel diode. 3-5A4 What are the two basic types of junction field-effect transistors? A. N-channel and P-channel. B. High power and low power. C. MOSFET and GaAsFET. D. Silicon FET and germanium FET. 3-5A5 A common emitter amplifier has: A. Lower input impedance than a common base. B. More voltage gain than a common collector. C. Less current gain than a common base. D. Less voltage gain than a common collector. 3-5A6 How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with that of a bipolar transistor? A. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance. B. One cannot compare input impedance without first knowing the supply voltage. C. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance. D. The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same. Answer Key: 3-5A1: D 3-5A2: B 3-5A3: C 3-5A4: A 3-5A5: B 3-5A6: A Key Topic 6: Electrical Measurements 3-6A1 An AC ammeter indicates: A. Effective (TRM) values of current. B. Effective (RMS) values of current. C. Peak values of current. D. Average values of current. 3-6A2 By what factor must the voltage of an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the peak voltage value? A. 0.707 B. 0.9 C. 1.414 D. 3.14 3-6A3 What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet? A. 331-V AC. B. 82.7-V AC. C. 165.5-V AC. D. 117-V AC. 3-6A4 What is the easiest voltage amplitude to measure by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope? A. Peak-to-peak. B. RMS. C. Average. D. DC. 3-6A5 By what factor must the voltage measured in an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the average voltage value? A. 0.707 B. 1.414 C. 0.9 D. 3.14 3-6A6 What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? A. 234 volts. B. 117 volts. C. 331 volts. D. 165.5 volts. Answer Key: 3-6A1: B 3-6A2: C 3-6A3: D 3-6A4: A 3-6A5: C 3-6A6: D Key Topic 7: Waveforms 3-7A1 What is a sine wave? A. A constant-voltage, varying-current wave. B. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by the projection of a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed. C. A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function. D. A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner. 3-7A2 How many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle? A. 90 degrees. B. 270 degrees. C. 180 degrees. D. 360 degrees. 3-7A3 What type of wave is made up of sine waves of the fundamental frequency and all the odd harmonics? A. Square. B. Sine. C. Cosine. D. Tangent. 3-7A4 What is the description of a square wave? A. A wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle. B. A wave whose periodic function is always negative. C. A wave whose periodic function is always positive. D. A wave that abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and stays at these levels for equal amounts of time. 3-7A5 What type of wave is made up of sine waves at the fundamental frequency and all the harmonics? A. Sawtooth wave. B. Square wave. C. Sine wave. D. Cosine wave. 3-7A6 What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)? A. Cosine wave. B. Square wave. C. Sawtooth wave. D. Sine wave. Answer Key: 3-7A1: B 3-7A2: D 3-7A3: A 3-7A4: D 3-7A5: A 3-7A6: C Key Topic 8: Conduction 3-8A1 What is the term used to identify an AC voltage that would cause the same heating in a resistor as a corresponding value of DC voltage? A. Cosine voltage. B. Power factor. C. Root mean square (RMS). D. Average voltage. 3-8A2 What happens to reactive power in a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors? A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit. B. It alternates between magnetic and electric fields and is not dissipated. C. It is dissipated as inductive and capacitive fields. D. It is dissipated as kinetic energy within the circuit. 3-8A3 Halving the cross-sectional area of a conductor will: A. Not affect the resistance. B. Quarter the resistance. C. Double the resistance. D. Halve the resistance. 3-8A4 Which of the following groups is correct for listing common materials in order of descending conductivity? A. Silver, copper, aluminum, iron, and lead. B. Lead, iron, silver, aluminum, and copper. C. Iron, silver, aluminum, copper, and silver. D. Silver, aluminum, iron, lead, and copper. 3-8A5 How do you compute true power (power dissipated in the circuit) in a circuit where AC voltage and current are out of phase? A. Multiply RMS voltage times RMS current. B. Subtract apparent power from the power factor. C. Divide apparent power by the power factor. D. Multiply apparent power times the power factor. 3-8A6 Assuming a power source to have a fixed value of internal resistance, maximum power will be transferred to the load when: A. The load impedance is greater than the source impedance. B. The load impedance equals the internal impedance of the source. C. The load impedance is less than the source impedance. D. The fixed values of internal impedance are not relative to the power source. Answer Key: 3-8A1: C 3-8A2: B 3-8A3: C 3-8A4: A 3-8A5: D 3-8A6: B Subelement B – Electrical Math: 10 Key Topics, 10 Exam Questions, 3 Drawings Key Topic 9: Ohm’s Law-1 3-9B1 What value of series resistor would be needed to obtain a full scale deflection on a 50 microamp DC meter with an applied voltage of 200 volts DC? A. 4 megohms. B. 2 megohms. C. 400 kilohms. D. 200 kilohms. 3-9B2 Which of the following Ohms Law formulas is incorrect? A. I = E / R B. I = R / E C. E = I x R D. R = E / I 3-9B3 If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the resistor? A. 25 volts. B. 52 volts. C. 200 volts. D. 100 volts. 3-9B4 If a 100-ohm resistor is connected across 200 volts, what is the current through the resistor? A. 2 amperes. B. 1 ampere. C. 300 amperes. D. 20,000 amperes. 3-9B5 If a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts, what is the resistance? A. 3 ohms. B. 30 ohms. C. 93 ohms. D. 270 ohms. 3-9B6 A relay coil has 500 ohms resistance, and operates on 125 mA. What value of resistance should be connected in series with it to operate from 110 V DC? A. 150 ohms. B. 220 ohms. C. 380 ohms. D. 470 ohms. Answer Key: 3-9B1: A 3-9B2: B 3-9B3: D 3-9B4: A 3-9B5: B 3-9B6: C Key Topic 10: Ohm’s Law-2 3-10B1 What is the peak-to-peak RF voltage on the 50 ohm output of a 100 watt transmitter? A. 70 volts. C. 140 volts. B. 100 volts. D. 200 volts. 3-10B2 What is the maximum DC or RMS voltage that may be connected across a 20 watt, 2000 ohm resistor? A. 10 volts. C. 200 volts. B. 100 volts. D. 10,000 volts. 3-10B3 A 500-ohm, 2-watt resistor and a 1500-ohm, 1-watt resistor are connected in parallel. What is the maximum voltage that can be applied across the parallel circuit without exceeding wattage ratings? A. 22.4 volts. C. 38.7 volts. B. 31.6 volts. D. 875 volts. 3-10B4 In Figure 3B1, what is the voltage drop across R1? A. 9 volts. C. 5 volts. B. 7 volts. D. 3 volts. 3-10B5 In Figure 3B2, what is the voltage drop across R1? A. 1.2 volts. C. 3.7 volts. B. 2.4 volts. D. 9 volts. 3-10B6 What is the maximum rated current-carrying capacity of a resistor marked “2000 ohms, 200 watts”? A. 0.316 amps. C. 10 amps. B. 3.16 amps. D. 100 amps. Answer Key: 3-10B1: D 3-10B2: C 3-10B3: B 3-10B4: C 3-10B5: D 3-10B6: A Key Topic 11: Frequency 3-11B1 What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 462,100,000 Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of ± 0.1 ppm? A. 46.21 Hz. B. 0.1 MHz. C. 462.1 Hz. D. 0.2 MHz. 3-11B2 The second harmonic of a 380 kHz frequency is: A. 2 MHz. B. 760 kHz. C. 190 kHz. D. 144.4 GHz. 3-11B3 What is the second harmonic of SSB frequency 4146 kHz? A. 8292 kHz. B. 4.146 MHz. C. 2073 kHz. D. 12438 kHz. 3-11B4 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of ± 1.0 ppm? A. 165.2 Hz. B. 15.652 kHz. C. 156.52 Hz. D. 1.4652 MHz. 3-11B5 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm? A. 146.52 Hz. B. 1565.20 Hz. C. 10 Hz. D. 156.52 kHz. 3-11B6 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 462,100,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of ± 1.0 ppm? A. 46.21 MHz. B. 10 Hz. C. 1.0 MHz. D. 462.1 Hz. Answer Key: 3-11B1: A 3-11B2: B 3-11B3: A 3-11B4: C 3-11B5: B 3-11B6: D Key Topic 12: Waveforms 3-12B1 At pi/3 radians, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts? A. -4.3 volts. C. +2.5 volts. B. -2.5 volts. D. +4.3 volts. 3-12B2 At 150 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts? A. -4.3 volts. C. +2.5 volts. B. -2.5 volts. D. +4.3 volts. 3-12B3 At 240 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts? A. -4.3 volts. C. +2.5 volts. B. -2.5 volts. D. +4.3 volts. 3-12B4 What is the equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage? A. AC voltage is the square root of the average AC value. B. The DC voltage causing the same heating in a given resistor at the peak AC voltage. C. The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage. D. The DC voltage causing the same heating in a given resistor as the RMS AC voltage of the same value. 3-12B5 What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave? A. 170 volts AC. C. 120 volts AC. B. 240 volts AC. D. 350 volts AC. 3-12B6 Determine the phase relationship between the two signals shown in Figure 3B3. A. A is lagging B by 90 degrees. B. B is lagging A by 90 degrees. C. A is leading B by 180 degrees. D. B is leading A by 90 degrees. Answer Key: 3-12B1: D 3-12B2: C 3-12B3: A 3-12B4: D 3-12B5: C 3-12B6: B Key Topic 13: Power Relationships 3-13B1 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.414 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 1.73 3-13B2 If a resistance to which a constant voltage is applied is halved, what power dissipation will result? A. Double. B. Halved. C. Quadruple. D. Remain the same. 3-13B3 746 watts, corresponding to the lifting of 550 pounds at the rate of one-foot-per-second, is the equivalent of how much horsepower? A. One-quarter horsepower. B. One-half horsepower. C. Three-quarters horsepower. D. One horsepower. 3-13B4 In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be determined? A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor. B. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor. C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor. D. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current. 3-13B5 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.866 B. 1.0 C. 0.5 D. 0.707 3-13B6 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.73 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 0.577 Answer Key: 3-13B1: C 3-13B2: A 3-13B3: D 3-13B4: A 3-13B5: D 3-13B6: B Key Topic 14: RC Time Constants-1 3-14B1 What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage? A. An exponential rate of one. B. One time constant. C. One exponential period. D. A time factor of one. 3-14B2 What is the meaning of the term “time constant of an RC circuit”? The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to: A. 23.7% of the supply voltage. B. 36.8% of the supply voltage. C. 57.3% of the supply voltage. D. 63.2% of the supply voltage. 3-14B3 What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value? A. One time constant. B. An exponential period of one. C. A time factor of one. D. One exponential rate. 3-14B4 What is the meaning of the term “time constant of an RL circuit”? The time required for the: A. Current in the circuit to build up to 36.8% of the maximum value. B. Voltage in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value. C. Current in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value. D. Voltage in the circuit to build up to 36.8% of the maximum value. 3-14B5 After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage? A. 36.8 % B. 63.2 % C. 86.5 % D. 95 % 3-14B6 After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage? A. 86.5 % B. 13.5 % C. 63.2 % D. 36.8 % Answer Key: 3-14B1: B) 3-14B2: D) 3-14B3: A) 3-14B4: C 3-14B5: C 3-14B6: B Key Topic 15: RC Time Constants-2 3-15B1 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel? A. 22 seconds. B. 44 seconds. C. 440 seconds. D. 220 seconds. 3-15B2 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series? A. 470 seconds. B. 47 seconds. C. 4.7 seconds. D. 0.47 seconds. 3-15B3 What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-microfarad capacitor and a 470-kilohm resistor in series? A. 4700 seconds. B. 470 seconds. C. 47 seconds. D. 0.47 seconds. 3-15B4 What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor and a 1-megohm resistor in parallel? A. 220 seconds. B. 22 seconds. C. 2.2 seconds. D. 0.22 seconds. 3-15B5 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in parallel? A. 470 seconds. B. 47 seconds. C. 4.7 seconds. D. 0.47 seconds. 3-15B6 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in series? A. 220 seconds. B. 55 seconds. C. 110 seconds. D. 440 seconds. Answer Key: 3-15B1: D 3-15B2: B 3-15B3: C 3-15B4: A 3-15B5: B 3-15B6: A Key Topic 16: Impedance Networks-1 3-16B1 What is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 20-ohm resistor, at 30 MHz? Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates. A. 20 -j19 B. 19 +j20 C. 20 +j19 D. 19 -j20 3-16B2 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz? A. 30 -j3 B. 3 +j30 C. 3 -j30 D. 30 +j3 3-16B3 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 500 MHz? A. 40 +j31400 B. 40 -j31400 C. 31400 +j40 D. 31400 -j40 3-16B4 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor, at 30 kHz? A. 200 - j188 B. 200 + j188 C. 188 + j200 D. 188 - j200 3-16B5 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.01-microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz? A. 150 - j159 B. 150 + j159 C. 159 - j150 D. 159 + j150 3-16B6 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.001-microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz? A. 318 - j400 B. 400 + j318 C. 318 + j400 D. 400 - j318 Answer Key: 3-16B1: C 3-16B2: D 3-16B3: A 3-16B4: B 3-16B5: C 3-16B6: D Key Topic 17: Impedance Networks-2 3-17B1 What is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4000-ohm resistor, at 500 KHz? Specify your answer in polar coordinates. A. 2490 ohms, /51.5 degrees B. 4000 ohms, /38.5 degrees C. 5112 ohms, /-38.5 degrees D. 2490 ohms, /-51.5 degrees 3-17B2 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 121 ohms, /35 degrees B. 141 ohms, /45 degrees C. 161 ohms, /55 degrees D. 181 ohms, /65 degrees 3-17B3 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms, /36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms, /-36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms, /-53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms, /53.1 degrees 3-17B4 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series? A. 500 ohms, /37 degrees B. 400 ohms, /27 degrees C. 300 ohms, /17 degrees D. 200 ohms, /10 degrees 3-17B5 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms, /-36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms, /36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms, /53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms, /-53.1 degrees 3-17B6 Using the polar coordinate system, what visual representation would you get of a voltage in a sinewave circuit? A. To show the reactance which is present. B. To graphically represent the AC and DC component. C. To display the data on an XY chart. D. The plot shows the magnitude and phase angle. Answer Key: 3-17B1: D 3-17B2: B 3-17B3: C 3-17B4: A 3-17B5: B 3-17B6: D Key Topic 18: Calculations 3-18B1 What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series AC circuit having a resistance of 6 ohms, an inductive reactance of 17 ohms, and zero capacitive reactance? A. 6.6 ohms. B. 11 ohms. C. 18 ohms. D. 23 ohms. 3-18B2 A 1-watt, 10-volt Zener diode with the following characteristics: Imin. = 5 mA; Imax. = 95 mA; and Z = 8 ohms, is to be used as part of a voltage regulator in a 20-V power supply. Approximately what size current-limiting resistor would be used to set its bias to the midpoint of its operating range? A. 100 ohms. B. 200 ohms. C. 1 kilohms. D. 2 kilohms. 3-18B3 Given a power supply with a no load voltage of 12 volts and a full load voltage of 10 volts, what is the percentage of voltage regulation? A. 17 % B. 80 % C. 20 % D. 83 % 3-18B4 What turns ratio does a transformer need in order to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms? A. 7.1 to 1. B. 14.2 to 1. C. 50 to 1. D. None of these. 3-18B5 Given a power supply with a full load voltage of 200 volts and a regulation of 25%, what is the no load voltage? A. 150 volts. B. 160 volts. C. 240 volts. D. 250 volts. 3-18B6 What is the conductance (G) of a circuit if 6 amperes of current flows when 12 volts DC is applied? A. 0.25 Siemens (mhos). B. 0.50 Siemens (mhos). C. 1.00 Siemens (mhos). D. 1.25 Siemens (mhos). Answer Key: 3-18B1: C 3-18B2: B 3-18B3: C 3-18B4: A 3-18B5: D 3-18B6: B Subelement C – Components: 10 Key Topics, 10 Exam Questions, 2 Drawings Key Topic 19: Photoconductive Devices 3-19C1 What happens to the conductivity of photoconductive material when light shines on it? A. It increases. B. It decreases. C. It stays the same. D. It becomes temperature dependent. 3-19C2 What is the photoconductive effect? A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy. B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction. C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy. D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction. 3-19C3 What does the photoconductive effect in crystalline solids produce a noticeable change in? A. The capacitance of the solid. B. The inductance of the solid. C. The specific gravity of the solid. D. The resistance of the solid. 3-19C4 What is the description of an optoisolator? A. An LED and a photosensitive device. B. A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when exposed to light. C. An LED and a capacitor. D. An LED and a lithium battery cell. 3-19C5 What happens to the conductivity of a photosensitive semiconductor junction when it is illuminated? A. The junction resistance is unchanged. B. The junction resistance decreases. C. The junction resistance becomes temperature dependent. D. The junction resistance increases 3-19C6 What is the description of an optocoupler? A. A resistor and a capacitor. B. Two light sources modulated onto a mirrored surface. C. An LED and a photosensitive device. D. An amplitude modulated beam encoder. Answer Key: 3-19C1: A 3-19C2: B 3-19C3: D 3-19C4: A 3-19C5: B 3-19C6: C Key Topic 20: Capacitors 3-20C1 What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor? A. Voltage on the plates and distance between the plates. B. Voltage on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates. C. Amount of charge on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates. D. Distance between the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates. 3-20C2 In Figure 3C4, if a small variable capacitor were installed in place of the dashed line, it would? A. Increase gain. B. Increase parasitic oscillations. C. Decrease parasitic oscillations. D. Decrease crosstalk. 3-20C3 In Figure 3C4, which component (labeled 1 through 4) is used to provide a signal ground? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 3-20C4 In Figure 3C5, which capacitor (labeled 1 through 4) is being used as a bypass capacitor? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 3-20C5 In Figure 3C5, the 1 μF capacitor is connected to a potentiometer that is used to: A. Increase gain. B. Neutralize amplifier. C. Couple. D. Adjust tone. 3-20C6 What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor? A. It blocks direct current and passes alternating current. B. It blocks alternating current and passes direct current. C. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit. D. It decreases the resonant frequency of the circuit. Answer Key: 3-20C1: D 3-20C2: C 3-20C3: B 3-20C4: C 3-20C5: D 3-20C6: A Key Topic 21: Transformers 3-21C1 A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer to: A. Improve the power factor. B. Improve output voltage regulation. C. Rectify the primary windings. D. None of these. 3-21C2 A transformer used to step up its input voltage must have: A. More turns of wire on its primary than on its secondary. B. More turns of wire on its secondary than on its primary. C. Equal number of primary and secondary turns of wire. D. None of the above statements are correct. 3-21C3 A transformer primary of 2250 turns connected to 120 VAC will develop what voltage across a 500-turn secondary? A. 26.7 volts. B. 2300 volts. C. 1500 volts. D. 5.9 volts. 3-21C4 What is the ratio of the output frequency to the input frequency of a single-phase full-wave rectifier? A. 1:1. B. 1:2. C. 2:1. D. None of these. 3-21C5 A power transformer has a single primary winding and three secondary windings producing 5.0 volts, 12.6 volts, and 150 volts. Assuming similar wire sizes, which of the three secondary windings will have the highest measured DC resistance? A. The 12.6 volt winding. B. The 150 volt winding. C. The 5.0 volt winding. D. All will have equal resistance values. 3-21C6 A power transformer has a primary winding of 200 turns of #24 wire and a secondary winding consisting of 500 turns of the same size wire. When 20 volts are applied to the primary winding, the expected secondary voltage will be: A. 500 volts. B. 25 volts. C. 10 volts. D. 50 volts. Answer Key: 3-21C1: A 3-21C2: B 3-21C3: A 3-21C4: C 3-21C5: B 3-21C6: D Key Topic 22: Voltage Regulators, Zener Diodes 3-22C1 In a linear electronic voltage regulator: A. The output is a ramp voltage. B. The pass transistor switches from the “off” state to the “on”" state. C. The control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions. D. The conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current. 3-22C2 A switching electronic voltage regulator: A. Varies the conduction of a control element in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current. B. Provides more than one output voltage. C. Switches the control device on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions. D. Gives a ramp voltage at its output. 3-22C3 What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator? A. Zener diode. B. Tunnel diode. C. SCR. D. Varactor diode. 3-22C4 In a regulated power supply, what type of component will most likely be used to establish a reference voltage? A. Tunnel Diode. B. Battery. C. Pass Transistor. D. Zener Diode. 3-22C5 A three-terminal regulator: A. Supplies three voltages with variable current. B. Supplies three voltages at a constant current. C. Contains a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element. D. Contains three error amplifiers and sensing transistors. 3-22C6 What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener diodes? A. 1.2 volts to 7 volts. B. 2.4 volts to 200 volts and above. C. 3 volts to 2000 volts. D. 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts. Answer Key: 3-22C1: D 3-22C2: C 3-22C3: A 3-22C4: D 3-22C5: C 3-22C6: B Key Topic 23: SCRs, Triacs 3-23C1 How might two similar SCRs be connected to safely distribute the power load of a circuit? A. In series. B. In parallel, same polarity. C. In parallel, reverse polarity. D. In a combination series and parallel configuration. 3-23C2 What are the three terminals of an SCR? A. Anode, cathode, and gate. B. Gate, source, and sink. C. Base, collector, and emitter. D. Gate, base 1, and base 2. 3-23C3 Which of the following devices acts as two SCRs connected back to back, but facing in opposite directions and sharing a common gate? A. JFET. B. Dual-gate MOSFET. C. DIAC. D. TRIAC. 3-23C4 What is the transistor called that is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal? A. TRIAC. B. Bilateral SCR. C. Unijunction transistor. D. Field effect transistor. 3-23C5 What are the three terminals of a TRIAC? A. Emitter, base 1, and base 2. B. Base, emitter, and collector. C. Gate, source, and sink. D. Gate, anode 1, and anode 2. 3-23C6 What circuit might contain a SCR? A. Filament circuit of a tube radio receiver. B. A light-dimming circuit. C. Shunt across a transformer primary. D. Bypass capacitor circuit to ground. Answer Key: 3-23C1: C 3-23C2: A 3-23C3: D 3-23C4: A 3-23C5: D 3-23C6: B Key Topic 24: Diodes 3-24C1 What is one common use for PIN diodes? A. Constant current source. B. RF switch. C. Constant voltage source. D. RF rectifier. 3-24C2 What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? A. Balanced inputs in SSB generation. B. Variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit. C. Constant voltage reference in a power supply. D. VHF and UHF mixers and detectors. 3-24C3 Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes? A. Junction and point contact. B. Electrolytic and junction. C. Electrolytic and point contact. D. Vacuum and point contact. 3-24C4 What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation? A. Zener diodes. B. Point contact diodes. C. Tunnel diodes. D. Junction diodes. 3-24C5 What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies? A. Tunnel diode. B. Varactor diode. C. Silicon-controlled rectifier. D. Zener diode. 3-24C6 What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode? A. High forward resistance. B. Very high PIV(peak inverse voltage). C. Negative resistance region. D. High forward current rating. Answer Key: 3-24C1: B 3-24C2: D 3-24C3: A 3-24C4: C 3-24C5: B 3-24C6: C Key Topic 25: Transistors-1 3-25C1 What is the meaning of the term “alpha” with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of: A. Collector current with respect to base current. B. Base current with respect to collector current. C. Collector current with respect to gate current. D. Collector current with respect to emitter current. 3-25C2 What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor? A. Cathode, plate and grid. B. Base, collector and emitter. C. Gate, source and sink. D. Input, output and ground. 3-25C3 What is the meaning of the term “beta” with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of: A. Base current with respect to emitter current. B. Collector current with respect to emitter current. C. Collector current with respect to base current. D. Base current with respect to gate current. 3-25C4 What are the elements of a unijunction transistor? A. Base 1, base 2, and emitter. B. Gate, cathode, and anode. C. Gate, base 1, and base 2. D. Gate, source, and sink. 3-25C5 The beta cutoff frequency of a bipolar transistor is the frequency at which: A. Base current gain has increased to 0.707 of maximum. B. Emitter current gain has decreased to 0.707 of maximum. C. Collector current gain has decreased to 0.707. D. Gate current gain has decreased to 0.707. 3-25C6 What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated? A. The collector current is at its maximum value. B. The collector current is at its minimum value. C. The transistor’s Alpha is at its maximum value. D. The transistor’s Beta is at its maximum value. Answer Key: 3-25C1: D 3-25C2: B 3-25C3: C 3-25C4: A 3-25C5: B 3-25C6: A Key Topic 26: Transistors-2 3-26C1 A common base amplifier has: A. More current gain than common emitter or common collector. B. More voltage gain than common emitter or common collector. C. More power gain than common emitter or common collector. D. Highest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations. 3-26C2 What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off? A. There is no base current. B. The transistor is at its Class A operating point. C. There is no current between emitter and collector. D. There is maximum current between emitter and collector. 3-26C3 An emitter-follower amplifier has: A. More voltage gain than common emitter or common base. B. More power gain than common emitter or common base. C. Lowest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations. D. More current gain than common emitter or common base. 3-26C4 What conditions exists when a transistor is operating in saturation? A. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both forward biased. B. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both reverse biased. C. The base-emitter junction is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased. D. The base-emitter junction is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased. 3-26C5 For current to flow in an NPN silicon transistor’s emitter-collector junction, the base must be: A. At least 0.4 volts positive with respect to the emitter. B. At a negative voltage with respect to the emitter. C. At least 0.7 volts positive with respect to the emitter. D. At least 0.7 volts negative with respect to the emitter. 3-26C6 When an NPN transistor is operating as a Class A amplifier, the base-emitter junction: A. And collector-base junction are both forward biased. B. And collector-base junction are both reverse biased. C. Is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased. D. Is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased. Answer Key: 3-26C1: B 3-26C2: C 3-26C3: D 3-26C4: A 3-26C5: C 3-26C6: D Key Topic 27: Light Emitting Diodes 3-27C1 What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence? A. Reverse bias. B. Forward bias. C. Logic 0 (Lo) bias. D. Logic 1 (Hi) bias. 3-27C2 What determines the visible color radiated by an LED junction? A. The color of a lens in an eyepiece. B. The amount of voltage across the device. C. The amount of current through the device. D. The materials used to construct the device. 3-27C3 What is the approximate operating current of a light-emitting diode? A. 20 mA. B. 5 mA. C. 10 mA. D. 400 mA. 3-27C4 What would be the maximum current to safely illuminate a LED? A. 1 amp. B. 1 microamp. C. 500 milliamps. D. 20 mA. 3-27C5 An LED facing a photodiode in a light-tight enclosure is commonly known as a/an: A. Optoisolator. B. Seven segment LED. C. Optointerrupter. D. Infra-red (IR) detector. 3-27C6 What circuit component must be connected in series to protect an LED? A. Bypass capacitor to ground. B. Electrolytic capacitor. C. Series resistor. D. Shunt coil in series. Answer Key: 3-27C1: B 3-27C2: D 3-27C3: A 3-27C4: D 3-27C5: A 3-27C6: C Key Topic 28: Devices 3-28C1 What describes a diode junction that is forward biased? A. It is a high impedance. B. It conducts very little current. C. It is a low impedance. D. It is an open circuit. 3-28C2 Why are special precautions necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices? A. They have fragile leads that may break off. B. They are susceptible to damage from static charges. C. They have micro-welded semiconductor junctions that are susceptible to breakage. D. They are light sensitive. 3-28C3 What do the initials CMOS stand for? A. Common mode oscillating system. B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon. C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor. D. Complementary metal-oxide substrate. 3-28C4 What is the piezoelectric effect? A. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage. B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field. C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light. D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light. 3-28C5 An electrical relay is a: A. Current limiting device. B. Device used for supplying 3 or more voltages to a circuit. C. Component used mainly with HF audio amplifiers. D. Remotely controlled switching device. 3-28C6 In which oscillator circuit would you find a quartz crystal? A. Hartley. B. Pierce C. Colpitts. D. All of the above. Answer Key: 3-28C1: C 3-28C2: B 3-28C3: C 3-28C4: A 3-28C5: D 3-28C6: B Subelement D – Circuits: 4 Key Topics, 4 Exam Questions, 6 Drawings Key Topic 29: R-L-C Circuits 3-29D1 What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance. B. Approximately equal to XL. C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance. D. Approximately equal to XC. 3-29D2 What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance. B. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance. C. Approximately equal to XL. D. Approximately equal to XC. 3-29D3 How could voltage be greater across reactances in series than the applied voltage? A. Resistance. B. Conductance. C. Capacitance. D. Resonance. 3-29D4 What is the characteristic of the current flow in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Maximum. B. Minimum. C. DC. D. Zero. 3-29D5 What is the characteristic of the current flow within the parallel elements in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Minimum. B. Maximum. C. DC. D. Zero. 3-29D6 What is the relationship between current through a resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit? A. The current and voltage are 180 degrees out of phase. B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees. C. The voltage and current are in phase. D. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees. Answer Key: 3-29D1: A 3-29D2: B 3-29D3: D 3-29D4: A 3-29D5: B 3-29D6: C Key Topic 30: Op Amps 3-30D1 What is the main advantage of using an op-amp audio filter over a passive LC audio filter? A. Op-amps are largely immune to vibration and temperature change. B. Most LC filter manufacturers have retooled to make op-amp filters. C. Op-amps are readily available in a wide variety of operational voltages and frequency ranges. D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss. 3-30D2 What are the characteristics of an inverting operational amplifier (op-amp) circuit? A. It has input and output signals in phase. B. Input and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase. C. It has input and output signals 180 degrees out of phase. D. Input impedance is low while the output impedance is high. 3-30D3 Gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit is determined by? A. The maximum operating frequency divided by the square root of the load impedance. B. The op-amp’s external feedback network. C. Supply voltage and slew rate. D. The op-amp’s internal feedback network. 3-30D4 Where is the external feedback network connected to control the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit? A. Between the differential inputs. B. From output to the non-inverting input. C. From output to the inverting input. D. Between the output and the differential inputs. 3-30D5 Which of the following op-amp circuits is operated open-loop? A. Non-inverting amp. C. Active filter. B. Inverting amp. D. Comparator. 3-30D6 In the op-amp oscillator circuit shown in Figure 3D6, what would be the most noticeable effect if the capacitance of C were suddenly doubled? A. Frequency would be lower. B. Frequency would be higher. C. There would be no change. The inputs are reversed, therefore the circuit cannot function. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 3-30D1: D 3-30D2: C 3-30D3: B 3-30D4: C 3-30D5: D 3-30D6: A Key Topic 31: Phase Locked Loops (PLLs); Voltage Controlled Oscillators (VCOs); Mixers 3-31D1 What frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase comparator, look-up table, digital-to-analog converter, and a low-pass antialias filter? A. A direct digital synthesizer. B. Phase-locked-loop synthesizer. C. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer. D. A hybrid synthesizer. 3-31D2 A circuit that compares the output of a voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) to a frequency standard and produces an error voltage that is then used to adjust the capacitance of a varactor diode used to control frequency in that same VCO is called what? A. Doubly balanced mixer. B. Phase-locked loop. C. Differential voltage amplifier. D. Variable frequency oscillator. 3-31D3 RF input to a mixer is 200 MHz and the local oscillator frequency is 150 MHz. What output would you expect to see at the IF output prior to any filtering? A. 50, 150, 200 and 350 MHz. B. 50 MHz. C. 350 MHz. D. 50 and 350 MHz. 3-31D4 What spectral impurity components might be generated by a phase-locked-loop synthesizer? A. Spurs at discrete frequencies. B. Random spurs which gradually drift up in frequency. C. Broadband noise. D. Digital conversion noise. 3-31D5 In a direct digital synthesizer, what are the unwanted components on its output? A. Broadband noise. B. Spurs at discrete frequencies. C. Digital conversion noise. D. Nyquist limit noise pulses. 3-31D6 What is the definition of a phase-locked loop (PLL) circuit? A. A servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator. B. A circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator. C. A circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input. D. A servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator. Answer Key: 3-31D1: A 3-31D2: B 3-31D3: A 3-31D4: C 3-31D5: B 3-31D6: D Key Topic 32: Schematics 3-32D1 Given the combined DC input voltages, what would the output voltage be in the circuit shown in Figure 3D7? A. 150 mV B. 5.5 V C. -15 mv D. -5.5 V 3-32D2 Which lamps would be lit in the circuit shown in Figure 3D8? A. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. B. 5, 6, 8 and 9. C. 2, 3, 4, 7 and 8. D. 1, 3, 5, 7 and 8. 3-32D3 What will occur if an amplifier input signal coupling capacitor fails open? A. No amplification will occur, with DC within the circuit measuring normal. B. Improper biasing will occur within the amplifier stage. C. Oscillation and thermal runaway may occur. D. An AC hum will appear on the circuit output. 3-32D4 In Figure 3D9, determine if there is a problem with this regulated power supply and identify the problem. A. R1 value is too low which would cause excessive base current and instantly destroy TR 1. B. D1 and D2 are reversed. The power supply simply would not function. C. TR1 is shown as an NPN and must be changed to a PNP. D. There is no problem with the circuit. 3-32D5 In Figure 3D10 with a square wave input what would be the output? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 3-32D6 With a pure AC signal input to the circuit shown in Figure 3D11, what output wave form would you expect to see on an oscilloscope display? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer Key: 3-32D1: D 3-32D2: C 3-32D3: A 3-32D4: D 3-32D5: C 3-32D6: B Subelement E – Digital Logic: 8 Key Topics, 8 Exam Questions, 3 Drawings Key Topic 33: Types of Logic 3-33E1 What is the voltage range considered to be valid logic low input in a TTL device operating at 5 volts? A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts. B. -2.0 to -5.5 volts. C. Zero to 0.8 volts. D. 5.2 to 34.8 volts. 3-33E2 What is the voltage range considered to be a valid logic high input in a TTL device operating at 5.0 volts? A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts. B. 1.5 to 3.0 volts. C. 1.0 to 1.5 volts. D. 5.2 to 34.8 volts. 3-33E3 What is the common power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits? A. 12 volts. B. 13.6 volts. C. 1 volt. D. 5 volts. 3-33E4 TTL inputs left open develop what logic state? A. A high-logic state. B. A low-logic state. C. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored. D. Random high- and low-logic states. 3-33E5 Which of the following instruments would be best for checking a TTL logic circuit? A. VOM. B. DMM. C. Continuity tester. D. Logic probe. 3-33E6 What do the initials TTL stand for? A. Resistor-transistor logic. B. Transistor-transistor logic. C. Diode-transistor logic. D. Emitter-coupled logic. Answer Key: 3-33E1: C 3-33E2: A 3-33E3: D 3-33E4: A 3-33E5: D 3-33E6: B Key Topic 34: Logic Gates 3-34E1 What is a characteristic of an AND gate? A. Produces a logic “0” at its output only if all inputs are logic “1”. B. Produces a logic “1” at its output only if all inputs are logic “1”. C. Produces a logic “1” at its output if only one input is a logic “1”. D. Produces a logic “1” at its output if all inputs are logic “0”. 3-34E2 What is a characteristic of a NAND gate? A. Produces a logic “0” at its output only when all inputs are logic “0”. B. Produces a logic “1” at its output only when all inputs are logic “1”. C. Produces a logic “0” at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic “1”. D. Produces a logic “0” at its output only when all inputs are logic “1”. 3-34E3 What is a characteristic of an OR gate? A. Produces a logic “1” at its output if any input is logic “1”. B. Produces a logic “0” at its output if any input is logic “1”. C. Produces a logic “0” at its output if all inputs are logic “1”. D. Produces a logic “1” at its output if all inputs are logic “0”. 3-34E4 What is a characteristic of a NOR gate? A. Produces a logic “0” at its output only if all inputs are logic “0”. B. Produces a logic “1” at its output only if all inputs are logic “1”. C. Produces a logic “0” at its output if any or all inputs are logic “1”. D. Produces a logic “1” at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic “1”. 3-34E5 What is a characteristic of a NOT gate? A. Does not allow data transmission when its input is high. B. Produces a logic “0” at its output when the input is logic “1” and vice versa. C. Allows data transmission only when its input is high. D. Produces a logic "1" at its output when the input is logic "1" and vice versa. 3-34E6 Which of the following logic gates will provide an active high out when both inputs are active high? A. NAND. B. NOR. C. AND. D. XOR. Answer Key: 3-34E1: B 3-34E2: D 3-34E3: A 3-34E4: C 3-34E5: B 3-34E6: C Key Topic 35: Logic Levels 3-35E1 In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0? A. Low level. C. Negative-transition level. B. Positive-transition level. D. High level. 3-35E2 For the logic input levels shown in Figure 3E12, what are the logic levels of test points A, B and C in this circuit? (Assume positive logic.) A. A is high, B is low and C is low. B. A is low, B is high and C is high. C. A is high, B is high and C is low. D. A is low, B is high and C is low. 3-35E3 For the logic input levels given in Figure 3E13, what are the logic levels of test points A, B and C in this circuit? (Assume positive logic.) A. A is low, B is low and C is high. B. A is low, B is high and C is low. C. A is high, B is high and C is high. D. A is high, B is low and C is low. 3-35E4 In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1? A. High level B. Low level C. Positive-transition level D. Negative-transition level 3-35E5 Given the input levels shown in Figure 3E14 and assuming positive logic devices, what would the output be? A. A is low, B is high and C is high. C. A is low, B is low and C is high. B. A is high, B is high and C is low. D. None of the above are correct. 3-35E6 What is a truth table? A. A list of input combinations and their corresponding outputs that characterizes a digital device’s function. B. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp. C. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device’s output is true. D. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp. Answer Key: 3-35E1: D 3-35E2: B 3-35E3: C 3-35E4: A 3-35E5: A 3-35E6: A Key Topic 36: Flip-Flops 3-36E1 A flip-flop circuit is a binary logic element with how many stable states? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 3-36E2 What is a flip-flop circuit? A binary sequential logic element with ___stable states. A. 1 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 3-36E3 How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4? A. 1 B. 4 C. 8 D. 2 3-36E4 How many bits of information can be stored in a single flip-flop circuit? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 3-36E5 How many R-S flip-flops would be required to construct an 8 bit storage register? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 3-36E6 An R-S flip-flop is capable of doing all of the following except: A. Accept data input into R-S inputs with CLK initiated. B. Accept data input into PRE and CLR inputs without CLK being initiated. C. Refuse to accept synchronous data if asynchronous data is being input at same time. D. Operate in toggle mode with R-S inputs held constant and CLK initiated. Answer Key: 3-36E1: B 3-36E2: C 3-36E3: D 3-36E4: A 3-36E5: C 3-36E6: D Key Topic 37: Multivibrators 3-37E1 The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by what type of digital circuit? A. Free-running multivibrator. B. Bistable multivibrator. C. OR gate. D. Astable multivibrator. 3-37E2 What is an astable multivibrator? A. A circuit that alternates between two stable states. B. A circuit that alternates between a stable state and an unstable state. C. A circuit set to block either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse and pass the other. D. A circuit that alternates between two unstable states. 3-37E3 What is a monostable multivibrator? A. A circuit that can be switched momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns after a set time to its original state. B. A “clock” circuit that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0. C. A circuit designed to store one bit of data in either the 0 or the 1 configuration. D. A circuit that maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage. 3-37E4 What is a bistable multivibrator circuit commonly named? A. AND gate. B. OR gate. C. Clock. D. Flip-flop. 3-37E5 What is a bistable multivibrator circuit? A. Flip-flop. B. AND gate. C. OR gate. D. Clock. 3-37E6 What wave form would appear on the voltage outputs at the collectors of an astable, multivibrator, common-emitter stage? A. Sine wave. B. Sawtooth wave. C. Square wave. D. Half-wave pulses. Answer Key: 3-37E1: B 3-37E2: D 3-37E3: A 3-37E4: D 3-37E5: A 3-37E6: C Key Topic 38: Memory 3-38E1 What is the name of the semiconductor memory IC whose digital data can be written or read, and whose memory word address can be accessed randomly? A. ROM – Read-Only Memory. B. PROM – Programmable Read-Only Memory. C. RAM – Random-Access Memory. D. EPROM – Electrically Programmable Read-Only Memory. 3-38E2 What is the name of the semiconductor IC that has a fixed pattern of digital data stored in its memory matrix? A. RAM – Random-Access Memory. B. ROM – Read-Only Memory. C. Register. D. Latch. 3-38E3 What does the term “IO” mean within a microprocessor system? A. Integrated oscillator. B. Integer operation. C. Input-output. D Internal operation. 3-38E4 What is the name for a microprocessor’s sequence of commands and instructions? A. Program. B. Sequence. C. Data string. D. Data execution. 3-38E5 How many individual memory cells would be contained in a memory IC that has 4 data bus input/output pins and 4 address pins for connection to the address bus? A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64 3-38E6 What is the name of the random-accessed semiconductor memory IC that must be refreshed periodically to maintain reliable data storage in its memory matrix? A. ROM – Read-Only Memory. B. DRAM – Dynamic Random-Access Memory. C. PROM – Programmable Read-Only Memory. D. PRAM – Programmable Random-Access Memory. Answer Key: 3-38E1: C 3-38E2: B 3-38E3: C 3-38E4: A 3-38E5: D 3-38E6: B Key Topic 39: Microprocessors 3-39E1 In a microprocessor-controlled two-way radio, a “watchdog” timer: A. Verifies that the microprocessor is executing the program. B. Assures that the transmission is exactly on frequency. C. Prevents the transmitter from exceeding allowed power out. D. Connects to the system RADAR presentation. 3-39E2 What does the term “DAC” refer to in a microprocessor circuit? A. Dynamic access controller. B. Digital to analog converter. C. Digital access counter. D. Dial analog control. 3-39E3 Which of the following is not part of a MCU processor? A. RAM B. ROM C. I/O D. Voltage Regulator 3-39E4 What portion of a microprocessor circuit is the pulse generator? A. Clock B. RAM C. ROM D. PLL 3-39E5 In a microprocessor, what is the meaning of the term “ALU”? A. Automatic lock/unlock. B. Arithmetical logic unit. C. Auto latch undo. D. Answer local unit. 3-39E6 What circuit interconnects the microprocessor with the memory and input/output system? A. Control logic bus. B. PLL line. C. Data bus line. D. Directional coupler. Answer Key: 3-39E1: A 3-39E2: B 3-39E3: D 3-39E4: A 3-39E5: B 3-39E6: C Key Topic 40: Counters, Dividers, Converters 3-40E1 What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit? A. Converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS flip-flop. B. Multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency. C. Prevents oscillation in a low frequency counter circuit. D. Divides an HF signal so that a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency. 3-40E2 What does the term “BCD” mean? A. Binaural coded digit. B. Bit count decimal. C. Binary coded decimal. D. Broad course digit. 3-40E3 What is the function of a decade counter digital IC? A. Decode a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display. B. Produce one output pulse for every ten input pulses. C. Produce ten output pulses for every input pulse. D. Add two decimal numbers. 3-40E4 What integrated circuit device converts an analog signal to a digital signal? A. DAC B. DCC C. ADC D. CDC 3-40E5 What integrated circuit device converts digital signals to analog signals? A. ADC B. DCC C. CDC D. DAC 3-40E6 In binary numbers, how would you note the quantity TWO? A. 0010 B. 0002 C. 2000 D. 0020 Answer Key: 3-40E1: D 3-40E2: C 3-40E3: B 3-40E4: C 3-40E5: D 3-40E6: A Subelement F – Receivers: 10 Key Topics, 10 Exam Questions, 2 Drawings Key Topic 41: Receiver Theory 3-41F1 What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver? A. The noise floor of the receiver. B. The power supply output ripple. C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion. D. The input impedance to the detector. 3-41F2 What is the definition of the term “receiver desensitizing”? A. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too low. B. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on a nearby frequency. C. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too high. D. A reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain control is turned down. 3-41F3 What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel signals? A. Desensitizing. B. Intermodulation distortion. C. Quieting. D. Overloading. 3-41F4 What is meant by the term noise figure of a communications receiver? A. The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna. B. The relative strength of a received signal 3 kHz removed from the carrier frequency. C. The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding stages of a receiver. D. The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at frequencies close to the desired one. 3-41F5 Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its noise figure? A. The audio stage. B. The RF stage. C. The IF strip. D. The local oscillator. 3-41F6 What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum discernible signal? A. Intermodulation distortion. B. Noise floor. C. Noise figure. D. Dynamic range. Answer Key: 3-41F1: A 3-41F2: B 3-41F3: A 3-41F4: C 3-41F5: B 3-41F6: D Key Topic 42: RF Amplifiers 3-42F1 How can selectivity be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a communications receiver? A. By using an audio filter. B. By using an additional RF amplifier stage. C. By using an additional IF amplifier stage. D. By using a preselector. 3-42F2 What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver? A. To provide most of the receiver gain. B. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC. C. To improve the receiver’s noise figure. D. To develop the AGC voltage. 3-42F3 How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver? A. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage. B. As much gain as possible short of self oscillation. C. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first mixer stage. D. It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage. 3-42F4 Too much gain in a VHF receiver front end could result in this: A. Local signals become weaker. B. Difficult to match receiver impedances. C. Dramatic increase in receiver current. D. Susceptibility of intermodulation interference from nearby transmitters. 3-42F5 What is the advantage of a GaAsFET preamplifier in a modern VHF radio receiver? A. Increased selectivity and flat gain. B. Low gain but high selectivity. C. High gain and low noise floor. D. High gain with high noise floor. 3-42F6 In what stage of a VHF receiver would a low noise amplifier be most advantageous? A. IF stage. B. Front end RF stage. C. Audio stage. D. Power supply. Answer Key: 3-42F1: D 3-42F2: C 3-42F3: A 3-42F4: D 3-42F5: C 3-42F6: B Key Topic 43: Oscillators 3-43F1 Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)? A. It can be phase locked. B. It can be remotely tuned. C. It is stable. D. It has little or no effect on the crystal’s stability. 3-43F2 What is the oscillator stage called in a frequency synthesizer? A. VCO. C. Phase detector. B. Divider. D. Reference standard. 3-43F3 What are three major oscillator circuits found in radio equipment? A. Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback. B. Colpitts, Hartley, and Taft. C. Taft, Hartley, and Pierce. D. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce. 3-43F4 Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)? A. Colpitts. C. Hartley. B. Pierce. D. Negative feedback. 3-43F5 What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? It must: A. Have a gain of less than 1. B. Be neutralized. C. Have sufficient negative feedback. D. Have sufficient positive feedback. 3-43F6 In Figure 3F15, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) is used to represent a local oscillator? A. 1 C. 3 B. 2 D. 4 Answer Key: 3-43F1: C 3-43F2: A 3-43F3: D 3-43F4: A 3-43F5: D 3-43F6: B Key Topic 44: Mixers 3-44F1 What is the image frequency if the normal channel is 151.000 MHz, the IF is operating at 11.000 MHz, and the LO is at 140.000 MHz? A. 131.000 MHz. B. 129.000 MHz. C. 162.000 MHz. D. 150.000 MHz. 3-44F2 What is the mixing process in a radio receiver? A. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison. B. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase differentiation. C. Distortion caused by auroral propagation. D. The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies. 3-44F3 In what radio stage is the image frequency normally rejected? A. RF. B. IF. C. LO. D. Detector. 3-44F4 What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit? A. Two and four times the original frequency. B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies. C. The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies. D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency. 3-44F5 If a receiver mixes a 13.8 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz receive signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver? A. Local oscillator interference. B. An image response. C. Mixer interference. D. Intermediate frequency interference. 3-44F6 What might occur in a receiver if excessive amounts of signal energy overdrive the mixer circuit? A. Automatic limiting occurs. B. Mixer blanking occurs. C. Spurious mixer products are generated. D. The mixer circuit becomes unstable and drifts. Answer Key: 3-44F1: B 3-44F2: D 3-44F3: A 3-44F4: C 3-44F5: B 3-44F6: C Key Topic 45: IF Amplifiers 3-45F1 What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a wideband FM phone receiver? A. 1 kHz. B. 2.4 kHz. C. 4.2 kHz. D. 15 kHz. 3-45F2 Which one of these filters can be used in micro-miniature electronic circuits? A. High power transmitter cavity. B. Receiver SAW IF filter. C. Floppy disk controller. D. Internet DSL to telephone line filter. 3-45F3 A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals? A. CW. B. Double-sideband AM voice. C. SSB voice. D. FSK RTTY. 3-45F4 A receiver selectivity of 10 KHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals? A. Double-sideband AM. B. SSB voice. C. CW. D. FSK RTTY. 3-45F5 What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver? A. Output-offset overshoot. B. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage. C. Thermal-noise distortion. D. Filter ringing. 3-45F6 How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal? A. Slightly greater than the received-signal bandwidth. B. Approximately half the received-signal bandwidth. C. Approximately two times the received-signal bandwidth. D. Approximately four times the received-signal bandwidth. Answer Key: 3-45F1: D 3-45F2: B 3-45F3: C 3-45F4: A 3-45F5: B 3-45F6: A Key Topic 46: Filters and IF Amplifiers 3-46F1 What is the primary purpose of the final IF amplifier stage in a receiver? A. Dynamic response. B. Gain. C. Noise figure performance. D. Bypass undesired signals. 3-46F2 What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency? A. Cross-modulation distortion and interference. B. Interference to other services. C. Image rejection and selectivity. D. Noise figure and distortion. 3-46F3 What is the primary purpose of the first IF amplifier stage in a receiver? A. Noise figure performance. B. Tune out cross-modulation distortion. C. Dynamic response. D. Selectivity. 3-46F4 What parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter using an op-amp? A. Bandpass characteristics. B. Desired current gain. C. Temperature coefficient. D. Output-offset overshoot. 3-46F5 What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter? A. It has a maximally flat response over its passband. B. It only requires inductors. C. It allows ripple in the passband. D. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies. 3-46F6 When would it be more desirable to use an m-derived filter over a constant-k filter? A. When the response must be maximally flat at one frequency. B. When the number of components must be minimized. C. When high power levels must be filtered. D. When you need more attenuation at a certain frequency that is too close to the cut-off frequency for a constant-k filter. Answer Key: 3-46F1: B 3-46F2: C 3-46F3: D 3-46F4: A 3-46F5: C 3-46F6: D Key Topic 47: Filters 3-47F1 A good crystal band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone would be? A. 5 KHz. C. 500 Hz. B. 2.1 KHz. D. 15 KHz. 3-47F2 Which statement is true regarding the filter output characteristics shown in Figure 3F16? A. C is a low pass curve and B is a band pass curve. B. B is a high pass curve and D is a low pass curve. C. A is a high pass curve and B is a low pass curve. D. A is a low pass curve and D is a band stop curve. 3-47F3 What are the three general groupings of filters? A. High-pass, low-pass and band-pass. C. Audio, radio and capacitive. B. Inductive, capacitive and resistive. D. Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce. 3-47F4 What is an m-derived filter? A. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth. B. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies. C. A filter whose schematic shape is the letter “M”. D. A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired frequencies too near cutoff for a constant-k filter. 3-47F5 What is an advantage of a constant-k filter? A. It has high attenuation of signals at frequencies far removed from the pass band. B. It can match impedances over a wide range of frequencies. C. It uses elliptic functions. D. The ratio of the cutoff frequency to the trap frequency can be varied. 3-47F6 What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter? A. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies. B. It only requires capacitors. C. It has a maximally flat response over its passband. D. It requires only inductors. Answer Key: 3-47F1: B 3-47F2: D 3-47F3: A 3-47F4: D 3-47F5: A 3-47F6: C Key Topic 48: Detectors 3-48F1 What is a product detector? A. It provides local oscillations for input to the mixer. B. It amplifies and narrows the band-pass frequencies. C. It uses a mixing process with a locally generated carrier. D. It is used to detect cross-modulation products. 3-48F2 Which circuit is used to detect FM-phone signals? A. Balanced modulator. B. Frequency discriminator. C. Product detector. D. Phase splitter. 3-48F3 What is the process of detection in a radio diode detector circuit? A. Breakdown of the Zener voltage. B. Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode. C. Rectification and filtering of RF. D. The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency. 3-48F4 What is a frequency discriminator in a radio receiver? A. A circuit for detecting FM signals. B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals. C. An automatic band switching circuit. D. An FM generator. 3-48F5 In a CTCSS controlled FM receiver, the CTCSS tone is filtered out after the: A. IF stage but before the mixer. B. Mixer but before the IF. C. IF but before the discriminator. D. Discriminator but before the audio section. 3-48F6 What is the definition of detection in a radio receiver? A. The process of masking out the intelligence on a received carrier to make an S-meter operational. B. The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal. C. The modulation of a carrier. D. The mixing of noise with the received signal. Answer Key: 3-48F1: C 3-48F2: B 3-48F3: C 3-48F4: A 3-48F5: D 3-48F6: B Key Topic 49: Audio & Squelch Circuits 3-49F1 What is the digital signal processing term for noise subtraction circuitry? A. Adaptive filtering and autocorrelation. B. Noise blanking. C. Noise limiting. D. Auto squelch noise reduction. 3-49F2 What is the purpose of de-emphasis in the receiver audio stage? A. When coupled with the transmitter pre-emphasis, flat audio is achieved. B. When coupled with the transmitter pre-emphasis, flat audio and noise reduction is received. C. No purpose is achieved. D. To conserve bandwidth by squelching no-audio periods in the transmission. 3-49F3 What makes a Digital Coded Squelch work? A. Noise. B. Tones. C. Absence of noise. D. Digital codes. 3-49F4 What causes a squelch circuit to function? A. Presence of noise. B. Absence of noise. C. Received tones. D. Received digital codes. 3-49F5 What makes a CTCSS squelch work? A. Noise. B. Tones. C. Absence of noise. D. Digital codes. 3-49F6 What radio circuit samples analog signals, records and processes them as numbers, then converts them back to analog signals? A. The pre-emphasis audio stage. B. The squelch gate circuit. C. The digital signal processing circuit. D. The voltage controlled oscillator circuit. Answer Key: 3-49F1: A 3-49F2: B 3-49F3: D 3-49F4: A 3-49F5: B 3-49F6: C Key Topic 50: Receiver Performance 3-50F1 Where would you normally find a low-pass filter in a radio receiver? A. In the AVC circuit. C. In the Power Supply. B. In the Oscillator stage. D. A and C, but not B. 3-50F2 How can ferrite beads be used to suppress ignition noise? Install them: A. In the resistive high voltage cable every 2 years. B. Between the starter solenoid and the starter motor. C. Install them in the primary and secondary ignition leads. D. In the antenna lead. 3-50F3 What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received? A. Intermodulation distortion. B. Cross-modulation interference. C. Receiver quieting. D. Capture effect. 3-50F4 What is cross-modulation interference? A. Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type. B. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp. C. Modulation from an unwanted signal heard in addition to the desired signal. D. Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal. 3-50F5 In Figure 3F15 at what point in the circuit (labeled 1 through 4) could a DC voltmeter be used to monitor signal strength? A. 1 C. 3 B. 2 D. 4 3-50F6 Pulse type interference to automobile radio receivers that appears related to the speed of the engine can often be reduced by: A. Installing resistances in series with spark plug wires. B. Using heavy conductors between the starting battery and the starting motor. C. Connecting resistances in series with the battery. D. Grounding the negative side of the battery. Answer Key: 3-50F1: D 3-50F2: C 3-50F3: B 3-50F4: C 3-50F5: D 3-50F6: A Subelement G – Transmitters: 6 Key Topics, 6 Exam Questions Key Topic 51: Amplifiers-1 3-51G1 What class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence of output throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never goes into the cutoff region? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. 3-51G2 What is the distinguishing feature of a Class A amplifier? A. Output for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle. B. Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle. C. Output for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the signal cycle. D. Output for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle. 3-51G3 Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class AB. 3-51G4 Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class AB. 3-51G5 What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well beyond cutoff? A. Class A. B. Class C. C. Class B. D. Class AB. 3-51G6 Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class AB. Answer Key: 3-51G1: A 3-51G2: B 3-51G3: A 3-51G4: C 3-51G5: B 3-51G6: D Key Topic 52: Amplifiers-2 3-52G1 The class B amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. 360 degrees. B. Greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees. C. Less than 180 degrees. D. 180 degrees. 3-52G2 What input-amplitude parameter is most valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier? A. Average voltage. B. RMS voltage. C. Peak voltage. D. Resting voltage. 3-52G3 The class C amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. Less than 180 degrees. B. Exactly 180 degrees. C. 360 degrees. D. More than 180 but less than 360 degrees. 3-52G4 What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts? A. 250 watts. B. 600 watts. C. 800 watts. D. 1000 watts. 3-52G5 The class AB amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. Exactly 180 degrees. B. 360 degrees C. More than 180 but less than 360 degrees. D. Less than 180 degrees. 3-52G6 What class of amplifier is characterized by conduction for 180 degrees of the input wave? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. Answer Key: 3-52G1: D 3-52G2: C 3-52G3: A 3-52G4: D 3-52G5: C 3-52G6: B Key Topic 53: Oscillators & Modulators 3-53G1 What is the modulation index in an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3,000 Hz on either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1,000 Hz? A. 0.3 B. 3,000 C. 3 D. 1,000 3-53G2 What is the modulation index of a FM phone transmitter producing a maximum carrier deviation of 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency? A. 3 B. 6,000 C. 2,000 D. 1 3-53G3 What is the total bandwidth of a FM phone transmission having a 5 kHz deviation and a 3 kHz modulating frequency? A. 3 kHz. B. 8 kHz. C. 5 kHz. D. 16 kHz. 3-53G4 How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency? A. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency. B. Modulation index increases as the RF carrier frequency increases. C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency. D. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases. 3-53G5 How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated? A. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal. B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer. C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer. D. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter. 3-53G6 What is a balanced modulator? A. An FM modulator that produces a balanced deviation. B. A modulator that produces a double sideband, suppressed carrier signal. C. A modulator that produces a single sideband, suppressed carrier signal. D. A modulator that produces a full carrier signal. Answer Key: 3-53G1: C 3-53G2: A 3-53G3: D 3-53G4: A 3-53G5: D 3-53G6: B Key Topic 54: Resonance - Tuning Networks 3-54G1 What is an L-network? A. A low power Wi-Fi RF network connection. B. A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor. C. A “lossy” network. D. A network formed by joining two low pass filters. 3-54G2 What is a pi-network? A. A network consisting of a capacitor, resistor and inductor. B. The Phase inversion stage. C. An enhanced token ring network. D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors and one capacitor. 3-54G3 What is the resonant frequency in an electrical circuit? A. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance. B. The highest frequency that will pass current. C. The lowest frequency that will pass current. D. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum. 3-54G4 Which three network types are commonly used to match an amplifying device to a transmission line? A. Pi-C network, pi network and T network. B. T network, M network and Z network. C. L network, pi network and pi-L network. D. L network, pi network and C network. 3-54G5 What is a pi-L network? A. A Phase Inverter Load network. B. A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors. C. A network with only three discrete parts. D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground. 3-54G6 Which network provides the greatest harmonic suppression? A. L network. B. Pi network. C. Pi-L network. D. Inverse L network. Answer Key: 3-54G1: B 3-54G2: D 3-54G3: A 3-54G4: C 3-54G5: B 3-54G6: C Key Topic 55: SSB Transmitters 3-55G1 What will occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a single-sideband phone transmitter? A. Reduced amplifier efficiency. B. Increased intelligibility. C. Sideband inversion. D. Distortion. 3-55G2 To produce a single-sideband suppressed carrier transmission it is necessary to ____ the carrier and to ____ the unwanted sideband. A. Filter, filter. B. Cancel, filter. C. Filter, cancel. D. Cancel, cancel. 3-55G3 In a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power ratio? A. The frequency of the modulating signal. B. The degree of carrier suppression. C. The speech characteristics. D. The amplifier power. 3-55G4 What is the approximate ratio of peak envelope power to average power during normal voice modulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal? A. 2.5 to 1. B. 1 to 1. C. 25 to 1. D. 100 to 1. 3-55G5 What is the output peak envelope power from a transmitter as measured on an oscilloscope showing 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load resistor? A. 1,000 watts. B. 100 watts. C. 200 watts. D. 400 watts. 3-55G6 What would be the voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1,200 watts? A. 245 volts. B. 692 volts. C. 346 volts. D. 173 volts. Answer Key: 3-55G1: D 3-55G2: B 3-55G3: C 3-55G4: A 3-55G5: B 3-55G6: A Key Topic 56: Technology 3-56G1 How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power. B. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line to the transmitter and duplexer. C. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line. D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line. 3-56G2 How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated in a power amplifier? A. By tuning for maximum SWR. B. By tuning for maximum power output. C. By neutralization. D. By tuning the output. 3-56G3 What is the name of the condition that occurs when the signals of two transmitters in close proximity mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original transmissions are generated? A. Amplifier desensitization. B. Neutralization. C. Adjacent channel interference. D. Intermodulation interference. 3-56G4 What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier varies according to some pre-determined sequence? A. Spread-spectrum communication. B. AMTOR. C. SITOR. D. Time-domain frequency modulation. 3-56G5 How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter amplifier design? A. By using a push-push amplifier. B. By operating class C. C. By using a push-pull amplifier. D. By operating class AB. 3-56G6 What is the modulation type that can be a frequency hopping of one carrier or multiple simultaneous carriers? A. SSB. B. FM. C. OFSK. D. Spread spectrum. Answer Key: 3-56G1: B 3-56G2: C 3-56G3: D 3-56G4: A 3-56G5: C 3-56G6: D Subelement H – Modulation: 3 Key Topics, 3 Exam Questions, 1 Drawing Key Topic 57: Frequency Modulation 3-57H1 The deviation ratio is the: A. Audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency. B. Maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency. C. Carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency. D. Highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency. 3-57H2 What is the deviation ratio for an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz? A. 60 B. 0.16 C. 0.6 D. 1.66 3-57H3 What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz? A. 2.14 B. 0.214 C. 0.47 D. 47 3-57H4 How can an FM-phone signal be produced in a transmitter? A. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier. B. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier. C. By using a balanced modulator. D. By feeding the audio directly to the oscillator. 3-57H5 What is meant by the term modulation index? A. The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency. B. The processor index. C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio. D. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency. 3-57H6 In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency? A. Deviation index. B. Modulation index. C. Deviation ratio. D. Modulation ratio. Answer Key: 3-57H1: B 3-57H2: D 3-57H3: A 3-57H4: D 3-57H5: A 3-57H6: C Key Topic 58: SSB Modulation 3-58H1 In Figure 3H17, the block labeled 4 would indicate that this schematic is most likely a/an: A. Audio amplifier. C. SSB radio transmitter. B. Shipboard RADAR. D. Wireless LAN (local area network) computer. 3-58H2 In Figure 3H17, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) represents where audio intelligence is inserted? A. 1 C. 3 B. 2 D. 4 3-58H3 What kind of input signal could be used to test the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output on an oscilloscope? A. Whistling in the microphone. B. An audio frequency sine wave. C. A two-tone audio-frequency sine wave. D. An audio frequency square wave. 3-58H4 What does a two-tone test illustrate on an oscilloscope? A. Linearity of a SSB transmitter. B. Frequency of the carrier phase shift. C. Percentage of frequency modulation. D. Sideband suppression. 3-58H5 How can a double-sideband phone signal be produced? A. By using a reactance modulator. B. By varying the voltage to the varactor in an oscillator circuit. C. By using a phase detector, oscillator, and filter in a feedback loop. D. By modulating the supply voltage to a class C amplifier. 3-58H6 What type of signals are used to conduct an SSB two-tone test? A. Two audio signals of the same frequency, but shifted 90 degrees in phase. B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals that are within the modulation band pass of the transmitter. C. Two different audio frequency square wave signals of equal amplitude. D. Any two audio frequencies as long as they are harmonically related. Answer Key: 3-58H1: C 3-58H2: B 3-58H3: C 3-58H4: A 3-58H5: D 3-58H6: B Key Topic 59: Pulse Modulation 3-59H1 What is an important factor in pulse-code modulation using time-division multiplex? A. Synchronization of transmit and receive clock pulse rates. B. Frequency separation. C. Overmodulation and undermodulation. D. Slight variations in power supply voltage. 3-59H2 In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary? A. Pulse frequency. B. Pulse duration. C. Pulse amplitude. D. Pulse intensity. 3-59H3 What is the name of the type of modulation in which the modulating signal varies the duration of the transmitted pulse? A. Amplitude modulation. B. Frequency modulation. C. Pulse-height modulation. D. Pulse-width modulation. 3-59H4 Which of the following best describes a pulse modulation system? A. The peak transmitter power is normally much greater than the average power. B. Pulse modulation is sometimes used in SSB voice transmitters. C. The average power is normally only slightly below the peak power. D. The peak power is normally twice as high as the average power. 3-59H5 In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary? A. The number of pulses per second. B. The time at which each pulse occurs. C. Both the frequency and amplitude of the pulses. D. The duration of the pulses. 3-59H6 What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width modulation system? A. A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant. B. The position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant. C. A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant. D. The number of standard pulses per second varies depending on the voice waveform at that instant. Answer Key: 3-59H1: A 3-59H2: B 3-59H3: D 3-59H4: A 3-59H5: B 3-59H6: C Subelement I – Power Sources: 3 Key Topics, 3 Exam Questions Key Topic 60: Batteries-1 3-60I1 When a lead-acid storage battery is being charged, a harmful effect to humans is: A. Internal plate sulfation may occur under constant charging. B. Emission of oxygen. C. Emission of chlorine gas. D. Emission of hydrogen gas. 3-60I2 A battery with a terminal voltage of 12.5 volts is to be trickle-charged at a 0.5 A rate. What resistance should be connected in series with the battery to charge it from a 110-V DC line? A. 95 ohms. B. 300 ohms. C. 195 ohms. D. None of these. 3-60I3 What capacity in amperes does a storage battery need to be in order to operate a 50 watt transmitter for 6 hours? Assume a continuous transmitter load of 70% of the key-locked demand of 40 A, and an emergency light load of 1.5 A. A. 100 ampere-hours. B. 177 ampere-hours. C. 249 ampere-hours. D. None of these. 3-60I4 What is the total voltage when 12 Nickel-Cadmium batteries are connected in series? A. 12 volts. B. 12.6 volts. C. 15 volts. D. 72 volts. 3-60I5 The average fully-charged voltage of a lead-acid storage cell is: A. 1 volt. B. 1.2 volts. C. 1.56 volts. D. 2.06 volts. 3-60I6 A nickel-cadmium cell has an operating voltage of about: A. 1.25 volts. B. 1.4 volts. C. 1.5 volts. D. 2.1 volts. Answer Key: 3-60I1: D 3-60I2: C 3-60I3: B 3-60I4: C 3-60I5: D 3-60I6: A Key Topic 61: Batteries-2 3-61I1 When an emergency transmitter uses 325 watts and a receiver uses 50 watts, how many hours can a 12.6 volt, 55 ampere-hour battery supply full power to both units? A. 1.8 hours. B. 6 hours. C. 3 hours. D. 1.2 hours. 3-61I2 What current will flow in a 6 volt storage battery with an internal resistance of 0.01 ohms, when a 3-watt, 6-volt lamp is connected? A. 0.4885 amps. B. 0.4995 amps. C. 0.5566 amps. D. 0.5795 amps. 3-61I3 A ship RADAR unit uses 315 watts and a radio uses 50 watts. If the equipment is connected to a 50 ampere-hour battery rated at 12.6 volts, how long will the battery last? A. 1 hour 43 minutes. B. 28.97 hours. C. 29 minutes. D. 10 hours, 50 minutes. 3-61I4 If a marine radiotelephone receiver uses 75 watts of power and a transmitter uses 325 watts, how long can they both operate before discharging a 50 ampere-hour 12 volt battery? A. 40 minutes. B. 1 hour. C. 1 1/2 hours. D. 6 hours. 3-61I5 A 6 volt battery with 1.2 ohms internal resistance is connected across two light bulbs in parallel whose resistance is 12 ohms each. What is the current flow? A. 0.57 amps. B. 0.83 amps. C. 1.0 amps. D. 6.0 amps. 3-61I6 A 12.6 volt, 8 ampere-hour battery is supplying power to a receiver that uses 50 watts and a RADAR system that uses 300 watts. How long will the battery last? A. 100.8 hours. B. 27.7 hours. C. 1 hour. D. 17 minutes or 0.3 hours. Answer Key: 3-61I1: A 3-61I2: B 3-61I3: A 3-61I4: C 3-61I5: B 3-61I6: D Key Topic 62: Motors & Generators 3-62I1 What occurs if the load is removed from an operating series DC motor? A. It will stop running. B. Speed will increase slightly. C. No change occurs. D. It will accelerate until it falls apart. 3-62I2 If a shunt motor running with a load has its shunt field opened, how would this affect the speed of the motor? A. It will slow down. B. It will stop suddenly. C. It will speed up. D. It will be unaffected. 3-62I3 The expression “voltage regulation” as it applies to a shunt-wound DC generator operating at a constant frequency refers to: A. Voltage fluctuations from load to no-load. B. Voltage output efficiency. C. Voltage in the secondary compared to the primary. D. Rotor winding voltage ratio 3-62I4 What is the line current of a 7 horsepower motor operating on 120 volts at full load, a power factor of 0.8, and 95% efficient? A. 4.72 amps. B. 13.03 amps. C. 56 amps. D. 57.2 amps. 3-62I5 A 3 horsepower, 100 V DC motor is 85% efficient when developing its rated output. What is the current? A. 8.545 amps. B. 20.345 amps. C. 26.300 amps. D. 25.000 amps. 3-62I6 The output of a separately-excited AC generator running at a constant speed can be controlled by: A. The armature. B. The amount of field current. C. The brushes. D. The exciter. Answer Key: 3-62I1: D 3-62I2: C 3-62I3: A 3-62I4: D 3-62I5: C 3-62I6: B Subelement J – Antennas: 5 Key Topics, 5 Exam Questions Key Topic 63: Antenna Theory 3-63J1 Which of the following could cause a high standing wave ratio on a transmission line? A. Excessive modulation. B. An increase in output power. C. A detuned antenna coupler. D. Low power from the transmitter. 3-63J2 Why is the value of the radiation resistance of an antenna important? A. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match impedances for maximum power transfer. B. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to measure the near-field radiation density from transmitting antenna. C. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-side ratio of the antenna. D. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-back ratio of the antenna. 3-63J3 A radio frequency device that allows RF energy to pass through in one direction with very little loss but absorbs RF power in the opposite direction is a: A. Circulator. B. Wave trap. C. Multiplexer. D. Isolator. 3-63J4 What is an advantage of using a trap antenna? A. It may be used for multiband operation. B. It has high directivity in the high-frequency bands. C. It has high gain. D. It minimizes harmonic radiation. 3-63J5 What is meant by the term radiation resistance of an antenna? A. Losses in the antenna elements and feed line. B. The specific impedance of the antenna. C. The resistance in the trap coils to received signals. D. An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna. 3-63J6 What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth? A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements. B. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well. C. The angle between the half-power radiation points. D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements. Answer Key: 3-63J1: C 3-63J2: A 3-63J3: D 3-63J4: A 3-63J5: D 3-63J6: B Key Topic 64: Voltage, Current and Power Relationships 3-64J1 What is the current flowing through a 52 ohm line with an input of 1,872 watts? A. 0.06 amps. B. 6 amps. C. 28.7 amps. D. 144 amps. 3-64J2 The voltage produced in a receiving antenna is: A. Out of phase with the current if connected properly. B. Out of phase with the current if cut to 1/3 wavelength. C. Variable depending on the station’s SWR. D. Always proportional to the received field strength. 3-64J3 Which of the following represents the best standing wave ratio (SWR)? A. 1:1. B. 1:1.5. C. 1:3. D. 1:4. 3-64J4 At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? A. Equal voltage and current. B. Minimum voltage and maximum current. C. Maximum voltage and minimum current. D. Minimum voltage and minimum current. 3-64J5 An antenna radiates a primary signal of 500 watts output. If there is a 2nd harmonic output of 0.5 watt, what attenuation of the 2nd harmonic has occurred? A. 10 dB. B. 30 dB. C. 40 dB. D. 50 dB. 3-64J6 There is an improper impedance match between a 30 watt transmitter and the antenna, with 5 watts reflected. How much power is actually radiated? A. 35 watts. B. 30 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 20 watts. Answer Key: 3-64J1: B 3-64J2: D 3-64J3: A 3-64J4: C 3-64J5: B 3-64J6: C Key Topic 65: Frequency and Bandwidth 3-65J1 A vertical 1/4 wave antenna receives signals: A. In the microwave band. B. In one vertical direction. C. In one horizontal direction. D. Equally from all horizontal directions. 3-65J2 The resonant frequency of a Hertz antenna can be lowered by: A. Lowering the frequency of the transmitter. B. Placing an inductance in series with the antenna. C. Placing a condenser in series with the antenna. D. Placing a resistor in series with the antenna. 3-65J3 An excited 1/2 wavelength antenna produces: A. Residual fields. B. An electro-magnetic field only. C. Both electro-magnetic and electro-static fields. D. An electro-flux field sometimes. 3-65J4 To increase the resonant frequency of a 1/4 wavelength antenna: A. Add a capacitor in series. B. Lower capacitor value. C. Cut antenna. D. Add an inductor. 3-65J5 What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils? A. It is increased. B. It is decreased. C. No change occurs. D. It becomes flat. 3-65J6 To lengthen an antenna electrically, add a: A. Coil. B. Resistor. C. Battery. D. Conduit. Answer Key: 3-65J1: D 3-65J2: B 3-65J3: C 3-65J4: A 3-65J5: B 3-65J6: A Key Topic 66: Transmission Lines 3-66J1 What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line? A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance. B. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum. C. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum. D. The index of shielding for coaxial cable. 3-66J2 What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line? A. The termination impedance. B. The line length. C. Dielectrics in the line. D. The center conductor resistivity. 3-66J3 Nitrogen is placed in transmission lines to: A. Improve the “skin-effect” of microwaves. B. Reduce arcing in the line. C. Reduce the standing wave ratio of the line. D. Prevent moisture from entering the line. 3-66J4 A perfect (no loss) coaxial cable has 7 dB of reflected power when the input is 5 watts. What is the output of the transmission line? A. 1 watt. B. 1.25 watts. C. 2.5 watts. D. 5 watts. 3-66J5 Referred to the fundamental frequency, a shorted stub line attached to the transmission line to absorb even harmonics could have a wavelength of: A. 1.41 wavelength. B. 1/2 wavelength. C. 1/4 wavelength. D. 1/6 wavelength. 3-66J6 If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line fed by a 100 watt transmitter? A. 70 watts. B. 50 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 6 watts. Answer Key: 3-66J1: B 3-66J2: C 3-66J3: D 3-66J4: A 3-66J5: C 3-66J6: D Key Topic 67: Effective Radiated Power 3-67J1 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 158 watts. B. 39.7 watts. C. 251 watts. D. 69.9 watts. 3-67J2 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 600 watts. B. 75 watts. C. 18.75 watts. D. 150 watts. 3-67J3 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 37.6 watts. B. 237 watts. C. 150 watts. D. 23.7 watts. 3-67J4 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 631 watts. B. 400 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 100 watts. 3-67J5 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 126 watts. B. 800 watts. C. 12.5 watts. D. 1260 watts. 3-67J6 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 300 watts. B. 315 watts. C. 31.5 watts. D. 69.9 watts. Answer Key: 3-67J1: B 3-67J2: D 3-67J3: A 3-67J4: D 3-67J5: A 3-67J6: C Subelement 3-K – Aircraft: 6 Key Topics, 6 Exam Questions Key Topic 68: Distance Measuring Equipment 3-68K1 What is the frequency range of the Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) used to indicate an aircraft’s slant range distance to a selected ground-based navigation station? A. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. B. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. C. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz. D. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. 3-68K2 The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) measures the distance from the aircraft to the DME ground station. This is referred to as: A. DME bearing. B. The slant range. C. Glide Slope angle of approach. D. Localizer course width. 3-68K3 The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) ground station has a built-in delay between reception of an interrogation and transmission of the reply to allow: A. Someone to answer the call. B. The VOR to make a mechanical hook-up. C. Operation at close range. D. Clear other traffic for a reply. 3-68K4 What is the main underlying operating principle of an aircraft’s Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)? A. A measurable amount of time is required to send and receive a radio signal through the Earth’s atmosphere. B. The difference between the peak values of two DC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft’s distance to another aircraft. C. A measurable frequency compression of an AC signal may be used to determine an aircraft’s altitude above the earth. D. A phase inversion between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft’s distance to the exit ramp of an airport’s runway. 3-68K5 What radio navigation aid determines the distance from an aircraft to a selected VORTAC station by measuring the length of time the radio signal takes to travel to and from the station? A. RADAR. B. Loran C. C. Distance Marking (DM). D. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME). 3-68K6 The majority of airborne Distance Measuring Equipment systems automatically tune their transmitter and receiver frequencies to the paired __ / __ channel. A. VOR/marker beacon. B. VOR/LOC. C. Marker beacon/glideslope. D. LOC/glideslope. Answer Key: 3-68K1: C 3-68K2: B 3-68K3: C 3-68K4: A 3-68K5: D 3-68K6: B Key Topic 69: VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR) 3-69K1 All directions associated with a VOR station are related to: A. Magnetic north. B. North pole. C. North star. D. None of these. 3-69K2 The rate that the transmitted VOR variable signal rotates is equivalent to how many revolutions per second? A. 60 B. 30 C. 2400 D. 1800 3-69K3 What is the frequency range of the ground-based Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) stations used for aircraft navigation? A. 108.00 kHz to 117.95 kHz. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. C. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz. D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. 3-69K4 Lines drawn from the VOR station in a particular magnetic direction are: A. Radials. B. Quadrants. C. Bearings. D. Headings. 3-69K5 The amplitude modulated variable phase signal and the frequency modulated reference phase signal of a Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station used for aircraft navigation are synchronized so that both signals are in phase with each other at ____________ of the VOR station. A. 180 degrees South, true bearing position. B. 360 degrees North, magnetic bearing position. C. 180 degrees South, magnetic bearing position. D. 0 degrees North, true bearing position. 3-69K6 What is the main underlying operating principle of the Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) aircraft navigational system? A. A definite amount of time is required to send and receive a radio signal. B. The difference between the peak values of two DC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft’s altitude above a selected VOR station. C. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft’s azimuth position in relation to a selected VOR station. D. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft’s distance from a selected VOR station. Answer Key: 3-69K1: A 3-69K2: B 3-69K3: D 3-69K4: A 3-69K5: B 3-69K6: C Key Topic 70: Instrument Landing System (ILS) 3-70K1 What is the frequency range of the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport? A. 108.10 kHz to 111.95 kHz. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. C. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz. D. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. 3-70K2 What is the frequency range of the marker beacon system used to indicate an aircraft's position during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport's runway? A. The outer, middle, and inner marker beacons’ UHF frequencies are unique for each ILS equipped airport to provide unambiguous frequency-protected reception areas in the 329.15 to 335.00 MHz range. B. The outer marker beacon’s carrier frequency is 400 MHz, the middle marker beacon’s carrier frequency is 1300 MHz, and the inner marker beacon’s carrier frequency is 3000 MHz. C. The outer, the middle, and the inner marker beacon’s carrier frequencies are all 75 MHz but the marker beacons are 95% tone-modulated at 400 Hz (outer), 1300 Hz (middle), and 3000 Hz (inner). D. The outer, marker beacon’s carrier frequency is 3000 kHz, the middle marker beacon’s carrier frequency is 1300 kHz, and the inner marker beacon’s carrier frequency is 400 kHz. 3-70K3 Which of the following is a required component of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)? A. Altimeter: shows aircraft height above sea-level. B. Localizer: shows aircraft deviation horizontally from center of runway. C. VHF Communications: provide communications to aircraft. D. Distance Measuring Equipment: shows aircraft distance to VORTAC station. 3-70K4 What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Instrument Landing System (ILS) glideslope installation? A. A vertically polarized antenna that radiates an omnidirectional antenna pattern. B. A balanced loop reception antenna. C. A folded dipole reception antenna. D. An electronically steerable phased-array antenna that radiates a directional antenna pattern. 3-70K5 Choose the only correct statement about the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport. The localizer beam system: A. Operates within the assigned frequency range of 108.10 to 111.95 GHz. B. Produces two amplitude modulated antenna patterns; one pattern above and one pattern below the normal 2.5 degree approach glide path of the aircraft. C. Frequencies are automatically tuned-in when the proper glide slope frequency is selected on the aircraft’s Navigation and Communication (NAV/COMM) transceiver. D. Produces two amplitude modulated antenna patterns; one pattern with an audio frequency of 90 Hz and one pattern with an audio frequency of 150 Hz, one left of the runway centerline and one right of the runway centerline. 3-70K6 On runway approach, an ILS Localizer shows: A. Deviation left or right of runway center line. B. Deviation up and down from ground speed. C. Deviation percentage from authorized ground speed. D. Wind speed along runway. Answer Key: 3-70K1: D 3-70K2: C 3-70K3: B 3-70K4: C 3-70K5: D 3-70K6: A Key Topic 71: Automatic Direction Finding Equipment (ADF) & Transponders 3-71K1 What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment? A. 190 kHz to 1750 kHz. B. 190 MHz to 1750 MHz. C. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. 3-71K2 What is meant by the term “night effect” when using an aircraft’s Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment? Night effect refers to the fact that: A. All Non Directional Beacon (NDB) transmitters are turned-off at dusk and turned-on at dawn. B. Non Directional Beacon (NDB) transmissions can bounce-off the Earth’s ionosphere at night and be received at almost any direction. C. An aircraft’s ADF transmissions will be slowed at night due to the increased density of the Earth’s atmosphere after sunset. D. An aircraft’s ADF antennas usually collect dew moisture after sunset which decreases their effective reception distance from an NDB transmitter. 3-71K3 What are the transmit and receive frequencies of an aircraft’s mode C transponder operating in the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. Transmit at 1090 MHz, and receive at 1030 MHz B. Transmit at 1030 kHz, and receive at 1090 kHz C. Transmit at 1090 kHz, and receive at 1030 kHz D. Transmit at 1030 MHz, and receive at 1090 MHz 3-71K4 In addition to duplicating the functions of a mode C transponder, an aircraft’s mode S transponder can also provide: A. Primary RADAR surveillance capabilities. B. Long range lightning detection. C. Mid-Air collision avoidance capabilities. D. Backup VHF voice communication abilities. 3-71K5 What type of encoding is used in an aircraft’s mode C transponder transmission to a ground station of the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. Differential phase shift keying. B. Pulse position modulation. C. Doppler effect compressional encryption. D. Amplitude modulation at 95%. 3-71K6 Choose the only correct statement about an aircraft’s Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment. A. An aircraft’s ADF transmission exhibits primarily a line-of-sight range to the ground-based target station and will not follow the curvature of the Earth. B. Only a single omnidirectional sense antenna is required to receive an NDB transmission and process the signal to calculate the aircraft’s bearing to the selected ground station. C. All frequencies in the ADF’s operating range except the commercial standard broadcast stations (550 to 1660 kHz) can be utilized as a navigational Non Directional Beacon (NDB) signal. D. An aircraft’s ADF antennas can receive transmissions that are over the Earth’s horizon (sometimes several hundred miles away) since these signals will follow the curvature of the Earth. Answer Key: 3-71K1: A 3-71K2: B 3-71K3: A 3-71K4: C 3-71K5: B 3-71K6: D Key Topic 72: Aircraft Antenna Systems and Frequencies 3-72K1 What type of antenna pattern is radiated from a ground station phased-array directional antenna when transmitting the PPM pulses in a Mode S interrogation signal of an aircraft’s Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) installation? A. 1090 MHz directional pattern. B. 1030 MHz omnidirectional pattern. C. 1090 MHz omnidirectional pattern. D. 1030 MHz directional pattern. 3-72K2 What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Instrument Landing System (ILS) marker beacon installation? A. An electronically steerable phased-array antenna that radiates a directional antenna pattern. B. A folded dipole reception antenna. C. A balanced loop reception antenna. D. A horizontally polarized antenna that radiates an omnidirectional antenna pattern. 3-72K3 What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s Very High Frequency (VHF) communications? A. 118.000 MHz to 136.975 MHz (worldwide up to 151.975 MHz). B. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. D. 2.000 MHz to 29.999 MHz. 3-72K4 Aircraft Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT) operate on what frequencies? A. 121.5 MHz. B. 243 MHz. C. 121.5 and 243 MHz. D. 121.5, 243 and 406 MHz. 3-72K5 What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s radio altimeter? A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. C. 4250 MHz to 4350 MHz. D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. 3-72K6 What type of antenna is attached to an aircraft’s Mode C transponder installation and used to receive 1030 MHz interrogation signals from the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. An electronically steerable phased-array directional antenna. B. An L-band monopole blade-type omnidirectional antenna. C. A folded dipole reception antenna. D. An internally mounted, mechanically rotatable loop antenna. Answer Key: 3-72K1: D 3-72K2: C 3-72K3: A 3-72K4: D 3-72K5: C 3-72K6: B Key Topic 73: Equipment Functions 3-73K1 Some aircraft and avionics equipment operates with a prime power line frequency of 400 Hz. What is the principle advantage of a higher line frequency? A. 400 Hz power supplies draw less current than 60 Hz supplies allowing more current available for other systems on the aircraft. B. A 400 Hz power supply generates less heat and operates much more efficiently than a 60 Hz power supply. C. The magnetic devices in a 400 Hz power supply such as transformers, chokes and filters are smaller and lighter than those used in 60 Hz power supplies. D. 400 Hz power supplies are much less expensive to produce than power supplies with lower line frequencies. 3-73K2 Aviation services use predominantly ____ microphones. A. Dynamic B. Carbon C. Condenser D. Piezoelectric crystal 3-73K3 Typical airborne HF transmitters usually provide a nominal RF power output to the antenna of ____ watts, compared with ____ watts RF output from a typical VHF transmitter. A. 10, 50 B. 50, 10 C. 20, 100 D. 100, 20 3-73K4 Before ground testing an aircraft RADAR, the operator should: A. Ensure that the area in front of the antenna is clear of other maintenance personnel to avoid radiation hazards. B. Be sure the receiver has been properly shielded and grounded. C. First test the transmitter connected to a matched load. D. Measure power supply voltages to prevent circuit damage. 3-73K5 What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) and Localizer (LOC) installations? A. Vertically polarized antenna that radiates an omnidirectional antenna pattern. B. Horizontally polarized omnidirection reception antenna. C. Balanced loop transmission antenna. D. Folded dipole reception antenna. 3-73K6 What is the function of a commercial aircraft’s SELCAL installation? SELCAL is a type of aircraft communications __________. A. Device that allows an aircraft’s receiver to be continuously calibrated for signal selectivity. B. System where a ground-based transmitter can call a selected aircraft or group of aircraft without the flight crew monitoring the ground-station frequency. C. Transmission that uses sequential logic algorithm encryption to prevent public “eavesdropping” of crucial aircraft flight data. D. System where an airborne transmitter can selectively calculate the line-of-sight distance to several ground-station receivers. Answer Key: 3-73K1: C 3-73K2: A 3-73K3: D 3-73K4: A 3-73K5: B 3-73K6: B Subelement 3-L – Installation, Maintenance & Repair: 8 Key Topics, 8 Exam Questions Key Topic 74: Indicating Meters 3-74L1 What is a 1/2 digit on a DMM? A. Smaller physical readout on the left side of the display. B. Partial extended accuracy on lower part of the range. C. Smaller physical readout on the right side. D. Does not apply to DMMs. 3-74L2 A 50 microampere meter movement has an internal resistance of 2,000 ohms. What applied voltage is required to indicate half-scale deflection? A. 0.01 volts B. 0.10 volts C. 0.005 volts. D. 0.05 volts. 3-74L3 What is the purpose of a series multiplier resistor used with a voltmeter? A. It is used to increase the voltage-indicating range of the voltmeter. B. A multiplier resistor is not used with a voltmeter. C. It is used to decrease the voltage-indicating range of the voltmeter. D. It is used to increase the current-indicating range of an ammeter, not a voltmeter. 3-74L4 What is the purpose of a shunt resistor used with an ammeter? A. A shunt resistor is not used with an ammeter. B. It is used to decrease the ampere indicating range of the ammeter. C. It is used to increase the ampere indicating range of the ammeter. D. It is used to increase the voltage indicating range of the voltmeter, not the ammeter. 3-74L5 What instrument is used to indicate high and low digital voltage states? A. Ohmmeter. B. Logic probe. C. Megger. D. Signal strength meter. 3-74L6 What instrument may be used to verify proper radio antenna functioning? A. Digital ohm meter. B. Hewlett-Packard frequency meter. C. An SWR meter. D. Different radio. Answer Key: 3-74L1: B 3-74L2: D 3-74L3: A 3-74L4: C 3-74L5: B 3-74L6: C Key Topic 75: Test Equipment 3-75L1 How is a frequency counter used? A. To provide reference points on an analog receiver dial thereby aiding in the alignment of the receiver. B. To heterodyne the frequency being measured with a known variable frequency oscillator until zero beat is achieved, thereby indicating the unknown frequency. C. To measure the deviation in an FM transmitter in order to determine the percentage of modulation. D. To measure the time between events, or the frequency, which is the reciprocal of the time. 3-75L2 What is a frequency standard? A. A well-known (standard) frequency used for transmitting certain messages. B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency. C. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz. D. A device used to generate wide-band random frequencies. 3-75L3 What equipment may be useful to track down EMI aboard a ship or aircraft? A. Fluke multimeter. B. An oscilloscope. C. Portable AM receiver. D. A logic probe. 3-75L4 On an analog wattmeter, what part of the scale is most accurate and how much does that accuracy extend to the rest of the reading scale? A. The accuracy is only at full scale, and that absolute number reading is carried through to the rest of the range. The upper 1/3 of the meter is the only truly calibrated part. B. The accuracy is constant throughout the entire range of the meter. C. The accuracy is only there at the upper 5% of the meter, and is not carried through at any other reading. D. The accuracy cannot be determined at any reading. 3-75L5 Which of the following frequency standards is used as a time base standard by field technicians? A. Quartz Crystal. B. Rubidium Standard. C. Cesium Beam Standard. D. LC Tank Oscillator. 3-75L6 Which of the following contains a multirange AF voltmeter calibrated in dB and a sharp, internal 1000 Hz bandstop filter, both used in conjunction with each other to perform quieting tests? A. SINAD meter. B. Reflectometer. C. Dip meter. D. Vector-impedance meter. Answer Key: 3-75L1: D 3-75L2: B 3-75L3: C 3-75L4: A 3-75L5: B 3-75L6: A Key Topic 76: Oscilloscopes 3-76L1 What is used to decrease circuit loading when using an oscilloscope? A. Dual input amplifiers. B. 10:1 divider probe. C. Inductive probe. D. Resistive probe. 3-76L2 How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional oscilloscope? A. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals while the spectrum analyzer is used to measure ionospheric reflection. B. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the time domain. C. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the time domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain. D. The oscilloscope is used for displaying audio frequencies and the spectrum analyzer is used for displaying radio frequencies. 3-76L3 What stage determines the maximum frequency response of an oscilloscope? A. Time base. B. Horizontal sweep. C. Power supply. D. Vertical amplifier. 3-76L4 What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of an oscilloscope? A. Sweep oscillator quality and deflection amplifier bandwidth. B. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage. C. Sweep oscillator quality and tube face voltage increments. D. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments. 3-76L5 An oscilloscope can be used to accomplish all of the following except: A. Measure electron flow with the aid of a resistor. B. Measure phase difference between two signals. C. Measure velocity of light with the aid of a light emitting diode. D. Measure electrical voltage. 3-76L6 What instrument is used to check the signal quality of a single-sideband radio transmission? A. Field strength meter. B. Signal level meter. C. Sidetone monitor. D. Oscilloscope. Answer Key: 3-76L1: B 3-76L2: C 3-76L3: D 3-76L4: A 3-76L5: C 3-76L6: D Key Topic 77: Specialized Instruments 3-77L1 A(n) ____ and ____ can be combined to measure the characteristics of transmission lines. Such an arrangement is known as a time-domain reflectometer (TDR). A. Frequency spectrum analyzer, RF generator. B. Oscilloscope, pulse generator. C. AC millivolt meter, AF generator. D. Frequency counter, linear detector. 3-77L2 What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude. B. Voltage. C. Resonance. D. Frequency. 3-77L3 What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude. B. Duration. C. Frequency. D. Time. 3-77L4 What instrument is most accurate when checking antennas and transmission lines at the operating frequency of the antenna? A. Time domain reflectometer. B. Wattmeter. C. DMM. D. Frequency domain reflectometer. 3-77L5 What test instrument can be used to display spurious signals in the output of a radio transmitter? A. A spectrum analyzer. B. A wattmeter. C. A logic analyzer. D. A time domain reflectometer. 3-77L6 What instrument is commonly used by radio service technicians to monitor frequency, modulation, check receiver sensitivity, distortion, and to generate audio tones? A. Oscilloscope. B. Spectrum analyzer. C. Service monitor. D. DMM. Answer Key: 3-77L1: B 3-77L2: D 3-77L3: A 3-77L4: D 3-77L5: A 3-77L6: C Key Topic 78: Measurement Procedures 3-78L1 Can a P25 radio system be monitored with a scanner? A. Yes , regardless if it has P25 decoding or not. B. No. C. Yes, if the scanner has P25 decoding. D. Yes, but it must also have P26 decoding. 3-78L2 Which of the following answers is true? A. The RF Power reading on a CDMA (code division multiple access) radio will be very accurate on an analog power meter. B. The RF Power reading on a CDMA radio is not accurate on an analog power meter. C. Power cannot be measured using CDMA modulation. D. None of the above. 3-78L3 What is a common method used to program radios without using a “wired” connection? A. Banding. B. Using the ultraviolet from a programmed radio to repeat the programming in another. C. Infra-red communication. D. Having the radio maker send down a programming signal via satellite. 3-78L4 What is the common method for determining the exact sensitivity specification of a receiver? A. Measure the recovered audio for 12 dB of SINAD. B. Measure the recovered audio for 10 dB of quieting. C. Measure the recovered audio for 10 dB of SINAD. D. Measure the recovered audio for 25 dB of quieting. 3-78L5 A communications technician would perform a modulation-acceptance bandwidth test in order to: A. Ascertain the audio frequency response of the receiver. B. Determine whether the CTCSS in the receiver is operating correctly. C. Verify the results from a 12 dB SINAD test. D. Determine the effective bandwidth of a communications receiver. 3-78L6 What is the maximum FM deviation for voice operation of a normal wideband channel on VHF and UHF? A. 2.5 kHz B. 5.0 kHz C. 7.5 kHz D. 10 kHz Answer Key: 3-78L1: C 3-78L2: B 3-78L3: C 3-78L4: A 3-78L5: D 3-78L6: B Key Topic 79: Repair Procedures 3-79L1 When soldering or working with CMOS electronics products or equipment, a wrist strap: A. Must have less than 100,000 ohms of resistance to prevent static electricity. B. Cannot be used when repairing TTL devices. C. Must be grounded to a water pipe. D. Does not work well in conjunction with anti-static floor mats. 3-79L2 Which of the following is the preferred method of cleaning solder from plated-through circuit-board holes? A. Use a dental pick. B. Use a vacuum device. C. Use a soldering iron tip that has a temperature above 900 degrees F. D. Use an air jet device. 3-79L3 What is the proper way to cut plastic wire ties? A. With scissors. B. With a knife. C. With semi-flush diagonal pliers. D. With flush-cut diagonal pliers and cut flush. 3-79L4 The ideal method of removing insulation from wire is: A. The thermal stripper. B. The pocket knife. C. A mechanical wire stripper. D. The scissor action stripping tool. 3-79L5 A “hot gas bonder” is used: A. To apply solder to the iron tip while it is heating the component. B. For non-contact melting of solder. C. To allow soldering both sides of the PC board simultaneously. D. To cure LCA adhesives. 3-79L6 When repairing circuit board assemblies it is most important to: A. Use a dental pick to clear plated-through holes. B. Bridge broken copper traces with solder. C. Wear safety glasses. D. Use a holding fixture. Answer Key: 3-79L1: A 3-79L2: B 3-79L3: D 3-79L4: A 3-79L5: B 3-79L6: C Key Topic 80: Installation Codes & Procedures 3-80L1 What color is the binder for pairs 51-75 in a 100-pair cable? A. Red B. Blue C. Black D. Green 3-80L2 What is most important when routing cables in a mobile unit? A. That cables be cut to the exact length. B. Assuring accessibility of the radio for servicing from outside the vehicle. C. Assuring radio or electronics cables do not interfere with the normal operation of the vehicle. D. Assuring cables are concealed under floor mats or carpeting. 3-80L3 Why should you not use white or translucent plastic tie wraps on a radio tower? A. White tie wraps are not FAA approved. B. UV radiation from the Sun deteriorates the plastic very quickly. C. The white color attracts wasps D. The black tie wraps may cause electrolysis. 3-80L4 What is the 6th pair color code in a 25 pair switchboard cable as is found in building telecommunications interconnections? A. Blue/Green, Green/Blue. B. Red/Blue, White/Violet. C. Red/Blue, Blue/Red. D. White/Slate, Slate/White. 3-80L5 What tolerance off of plumb should a single base station radio rack be installed? A. No tolerance allowed. B. Just outside the bubble on a level. C. All the way to one end. D. Just inside the bubble on a level. 3-80L6 What type of wire would connect an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay? A. GTO-15 high-voltage cable. B. RG8U. C. RG213. D. 16-gauge two-conductor. Answer Key: 3-80L1: D 3-80L2: C 3-80L3: B 3-80L4: C 3-80L5: D 3-80L6: A Key Topic 81: Troubleshooting 3-81L1 On a 150 watt marine SSB HF transceiver, what would be indicated by a steady output of 75 watts when keying the transmitter on? A. There is probably a defect in the system causing the carrier to be transmitted. B. One of the sidebands is missing. C. Both sidebands are being transmitting. D. The operation is normal. 3-81L2 The tachometer of a building’s elevator circuit experiences interference caused by the radio system nearby. What is a common potential “fix” for the problem? A. Replace the tachometer of the elevator. B. Add a .01 µF capacitor across the motor/tachometer leads. C. Add a 200 µF capacity across the motor/tachometer leads. D. Add an isolating resistor in series with the motor leads. 3-81L3 A common method of programming portable or mobile radios is to use a: A. A laptop computer. B Dummy load. C. A wattmeter. D. A signal generator. 3-81L4 In a software-defined transceiver, what would be the best way for a technician to make a quick overall evaluation of the radio’s operational condition? A. Set up a spectrum analyzer and service monitor and manually verify the manufacturer’s specifications. B. Use another radio on the same frequency to check the transmitter. C. Use the built-in self-test feature. D. Using on-board self-test routines are strictly prohibited by the FCC in commercial transmitters. Amateur Radio is the only service currently authorized to use them. 3-81L5 How might an installer verify correct GPS sentence to marine DSC VHF radio? A. Press and hold the red distress button. B. Look for latitude and longitude on the display. C. Look for GPS confirmation readout. D. Ask for VHF radio check position report. 3-81L6 What steps must be taken to activate the DSC emergency signaling function on a marine VHF? A. Separate 12 volts to the switch. B. Secondary DSC transmit antenna. C. GPS position input. D. Input of registered 9-digit MMSI. Answer Key: 3-81L1: A 3-81L2: B 3-81L3: A 3-81L4: C 3-81L5: B 3-81L6: D Subelement 3-M – Communications Technology: 3 Key Topics, 3 Exam Questions Key Topic 82: Types of Transmissions 3-82M1 What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence? A. Amplitude compandored single sideband. B. SITOR. C. Time-domain frequency modulation. D. Spread spectrum communication. 3-82M2 Name two types of spread spectrum systems used in most RF communications applications? A. AM and FM. B. QPSK or QAM. C. Direct Sequence and Frequency Hopping. D. Frequency Hopping and APSK. 3-82M3 What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications system where the center frequency of a conventional carrier is altered many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels? A. Frequency hopping. B. Direct sequence. C. Time-domain frequency modulation. D. Frequency compandored spread spectrum. 3-82M4 A TDMA radio uses what to carry the multiple conversations sequentially? A. Separate frequencies. B. Separate pilot tones. C. Separate power levels. D. Separate time slots. 3-82M5 Which of the following statements about SSB voice transmissions is correct? A. They use A3E emission which are produced by modulating the final amplifier. B. They use F3E emission which is produced by phase shifting the carrier. C. They normally use J3E emissions, which consists of one sideband and a suppressed carrier. D. They may use A1A emission to suppress the carrier. 3-82M6 What are the two most-used PCS (Personal Communications Systems) coding techniques used to separate different calls? A. QPSK and QAM. B. CDMA and GSM. C. ABCD and SYZ. D. AM and Frequency Hopping. Answer Key: 3-82M1: D 3-82M2: C 3-82M3: A 3-82M4: D 3-82M5: C 3-82M6: B Key Topic 83: Coding and Multiplexing 3-83M1 What is a CODEC? A. A device to read Morse code. B. A computer operated digital encoding compandor. C. A coder/decoder IC or circuitry that converts a voice signal into a predetermined digital format for encrypted transmission. D. A voice amplitude compression chip. 3-83M2 The GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) uses what type of CODEC for digital mobile radio system communications? A. Regular-Pulse Excited (RPE). B. Code-Excited Linear Predictive (CLEP). C. Multi-Pulse Excited (MPE). D. Linear Excited Code (LEC). 3-83M3 Which of the following codes has gained the widest acceptance for exchange of data from one computer to another? A. Gray. B. Baudot. C. Morse. D. ASCII. 3-83M4 The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. What level is responsible for the actual transmission of data and handshaking signals? A. The physical layer. B. The transport layer. C. The communications layer. D. The synchronization layer. 3-83M5 What CODEC is used in Phase 2 P25 radios? A. IWCE B. IMBC C. IMMM D. AMBE 3-83M6 The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. The _______ level arranges the bits into frames and controls data flow. A. Transport layer. B. Link layer. C. Communications layer. D. Synchronization layer. Answer Key: 3-83M1: C 3-83M2: A 3-83M3: D 3-83M4: A 3-83M5: D 3-83M6: B Key Topic 84: Signal Processing, Software and Codes 3-84M1 What is a SDR? A. Software Deviation Ratio. B. Software Defined Radio. C. SWR Meter. D. Static Dynamic Ram. 3-84M2 What does the DSP not do in a modern DSP radio? A. Control frequency. B. Control modulation. C. Control detection. D. Control SWR. 3-84M3 Which statement best describes the code used for GMDSS-DSC transmissions? A. A 10 bit error correcting code starting with bits of data followed by a 3 bit error correcting code. B. A 10 bit error correcting code starting with a 3 bit error correcting code followed by 7 bits of data. C. An 8 bit code with 7 bits of data followed by a single parity bit. D. A 7 bit code that is transmitted twice for error correction. 3-84M4 Which is the code used for SITOR-A and -B transmissions? A. The 5 bit baudot telex code. B. Each character consists of 7 bits with 3 “zeros” and 4 “ones”. C. Each character consists of 7 bits with 4 “zeros” and 3 “ones”. D. Each character has 7 bits of data and 3 bits for error correction. 3-84M5 Which of the following statements is true? A. The Signal Repetition character (1001100) is used as a control signal in SITOR-ARQ. B. The Idle Signal (a) (0000111) is used for FEC Phasing Signal 1. C. The Idle Signal (b) (0011001) is used for FEC Phasing Signal 2. D. The Control Signal 1 (0101100) is used to determine the time displacement in SITOR-B. 3-84M6 What principle allows multiple conversations to be able to share one radio channel on a GSM channel? A. Frequency Division Multiplex. B. Double sideband. C. Time Division Multiplex. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 3-84M1: B 3-84M2: D 3-84M3: A 3-84M4: C 3-84M5: B 3-84M6: C Subelement 3-N – Marine: 5 Key Topics, 5 Exam Questions Key Topic 85: VHF 3-85N1 What is the channel spacing used for VHF marine radio? A. 10 kHz. B. 12.5 kHz. C. 20 kHz. D. 25 kHz. 3-85N2 What VHF channel is assigned for distress and calling? A. 70 B. 16 C. 21A D. 68 3-85N3 What VHF Channel is used for Digital Selective Calling and acknowledgement? A. 16 B. 21A C. 70 D. 68 3-85N4 Maximum allowable frequency deviation for VHF marine radios is: A. +/- 5 kHz. B. +/- 15 kHz. C. +/- 2.5 kHz. D. +/- 25 kHz. 3-85N5 What is the reason for the USA-INT control or function? A. It changes channels that are normally simplex channels into duplex channels. B. It changes some channels that are normally duplex channels into simplex channels. C. When the control is set to “INT” the range is increased. D. None of the above. 3-85N6 How might an installer verify correct GPS sentence to marine DSC VHF radio? A. Look for latitude and longitude, plus speed, on VHF display. B. Press and hold the red distress button. C. Look for GPS confirmation readout. D. Ask for VHF radio check position report. Answer Key: 3-85N1: D 3-85N2: B 3-85N3: C 3-85N4: A 3-85N5: B 3-85N6: A Key Topic 86: MF-HF, SSB-SITOR 3-86N1 What is a common occurrence when voice-testing an SSB aboard a boat? A. Ammeter fluctuates down with each spoken word. B. Voltage panel indicator lamps may glow with each syllable. C. Automatic tuner cycles on each syllable. D. Minimal voltage drop seen at power source. 3-86N2 What might contribute to apparent low voltage on marine SSB transmitting? A. Blown red fuse. B. Too much grounding. C. Blown black negative fuse. D. Antenna mismatch. 3-86N3 What type of wire connects an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay? A. RG8U. B. RG213. C. 16-gauge two-conductor. D. GTO-15 high-voltage cable. 3-86N4 Which of the following statements concerning SITOR communications is true? A. ARQ message transmissions are made in data groups consisting of three-character blocks. B. ARQ transmissions are acknowledged by the Information Receiving Station only at the end of the message. C. ARQ communications rely upon error correction by time diversity transmission and reception. D. Forward error correction is an interactive mode. 3-86N5 The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences? A. One-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. B. One-way communications to all stations, two-way communications, one-way communications to a single station. C. Two way communications, one-way communications to all stations, one-way communications to a single station. D. Two way communications, one-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations. 3-86N6 Which of the following statements concerning SITOR communications is true? A. Communication is established on the working channel and answerbacks are exchanged before FEC broadcasts can be received. B. In the ARQ mode each character is transmitted twice. C. Weather broadcasts cannot be made in FEC because sending each character twice would cause the broadcast to be prohibitively long. D. Two-way communication with the coast radio station using FEC is not necessary to be able to receive the broadcasts. Answer Key: 3-86N1: B 3-86N2: C 3-86N3: D 3-86N4: A 3-86N5: C 3-86N6: D Key Topic 87: Survival Craft Equipment: VHF, SARTs & EPIRBs 3-87N1 What causes the SART to begin a transmission? A. When activated manually, it begins radiating immediately. B. After being activated the SART responds to RADAR interrogation. C. It is either manually or water activated before radiating. D. It begins radiating only when keyed by the operator. 3-87N2 How should the signal from a Search And Rescue RADAR Transponder appear on a RADAR display? A. A series of dashes. B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART. C. A series of twenty dashes. D. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. 3-87N3 In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 9 GHz B. 3 GHz C. S-band D. 406 MHz 3-87N4 Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? A. Radio Direction Finder (RDF). B. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz. C. Survival Craft Transceiver. D. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz. 3-87N5 Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true? A. Once activated, these EPIRBs transmit a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. B. The coded signal identifies the nature of the distress situation. C. The coded signal only identifies the vessel’s name and port of registry. D. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode. 3-87N6 What statement is true regarding 406 MHz EPIRB transmissions? A. Allows immediate voice communications with the RCC. B. Coding permits the SAR authorities to know if manually or automatically activated. C. Transmits a unique hexadecimal identification number. D. Radio Operator programs an I.D. into the SART immediately prior to activation. Answer Key: 3-87N1: B 3-87N2: D 3-87N3: A 3-87N4: D 3-87N5: A 3-87N6: C Key Topic 88: FAX, NAVTEX 3-88N1 What is facsimile? A. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television. B. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when printed. C. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper. D. The transmission of video by television. 3-88N2 What is the standard scan rate for high-frequency 3 MHz - 23 MHz weather facsimile reception from shore stations? A. 240 lines per minute. B. 120 lines per minute. C. 150 lines per second. D. 60 lines per second. 3-88N3 What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for weather facsimile HF (high frequency) reception? A. 500 Hz at -6 dB. B. 6 kHz at -6 dB. C. 1 kHz at -6 dB. D. 15 kHz at -6 dB. 3-88N4 Which of the following statements about NAVTEX is true? A. Receives MSI broadcasts using SITOR-B or FEC mode. B. The ship station transmits on 518 kHz. C. The ship receives MSI broadcasts using SITOR-A or ARQ mode. D. NAVTEX is received on 2182 kHz using SSB. 3-88N5 Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 2187.5 kHz. B. 4209.5 kHz. C. VHF channel 16. D. 518 kHz. 3-88N6 What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver does not print a particular type of message content? A. The message does not concern your vessel. B. The subject indicator matches that programmed for rejection by the operator. C. The transmitting station ID covering your area has not been programmed for rejection by the operator. D. All messages sent during each broadcast are printed. Answer Key: 3-88N1: C 3-88N2: B 3-88N3: C 3-88N4: A 3-88N5: D 3-88N6: B Key Topic 89: NMEA Data 3-89N1 What data language is bi-directional, multi-transmitter, multi-receiver network? A. NMEA 2000. B. NMEA 0181. C. NMEA 0182. D. NMEA 0183. 3-89N2 How should shielding be grounded on an NMEA 0183 data line? A. Unterminated at both ends. B. Terminated to ground at the talker and unterminated at the listener. C. Unterminated at the talker and terminated at the listener. D. Terminated at both the talker and listener. 3-89N3 What might occur in NMEA 2000 network topology if one device in line should fail? A. The system shuts down until the device is removed. B. Other electronics after the failed device will be inoperable. C. The main fuse on the backbone may open. D. There will be no interruption to all other devices. 3-89N4 In an NMEA 2000 device, a load equivalence number (LEN) of 1 is equivalent to how much current consumption? A. 50 mA B. 10 mA C. 25 mA D. 5 mA 3-89N5 An NMEA 2000 system with devices in a single location may be powered using this method: A. Dual mid-powered network. B. End-powered network. C. Individual devices individually powered. D. No 12 volts needed for NMEA 2000 devices. 3-89N6 What voltage drop at the end of the last segment will satisfy NMEA 2000 network cabling plans? A. 0.5 volts B. 2.0 volts C. 1.5 volts D. 3.0 volts Answer Key: 3-89N1: A 3-89N2: B 3-89N3: D 3-89N4: A 3-89N5: B 3-89N6: C Subelement 3O – RADAR: 5 Key Topics, 5 Exam Questions Key Topic 90: RADAR Theory 3-90O1 What is the normal range of pulse repetition rates? A. 2,000 to 4,000 pps. B. 1,000 to 3,000 pps. C. 500 to 1,000 pps. D. 500 to 2,000 pps. 3-90O2 The RADAR range in nautical miles to an object can be found by measuring the elapsed time during a RADAR pulse and dividing this quantity by: A. 0.87 seconds. B. 1.15 µs. C. 12.346 µs. D. 1.073 µs. 3-90O3 What is the normal range of pulse widths? A. .05 s to 0.1 s. B. .05 s to 1.0 s. C. 1.0 s to 3.5 s. D. 2.5 s to 5.0 s. 3-90O4 Shipboard RADAR is most commonly operated in what band? A. VHF. B. UHF. C. SHF. D. EHF. 3-90O5 The pulse repetition rate (prr) of a RADAR refers to the: A. Reciprocal of the duty cycle. B. Pulse rate of the local oscillator. C. Pulse rate of the klystron. D. Pulse rate of the magnetron. 3-90O6 If the elapsed time for a RADAR echo is 62 microseconds, what is the distance in nautical miles to the object? A. 5 nautical miles. B. 87 nautical miles. C. 37 nautical miles. D. 11.5 nautical miles. Answer Key: 3-90O1: D 3-90O2: C 3-90O3: B 3-90O4: C 3-90O5: D 3-90O6: A Key Topic 91: Components 3-91O1 The ATR box: A. Prevents the received signal from entering the transmitter. B. Protects the receiver from strong RADAR signals. C. Turns off the receiver when the transmitter is on. D. All of the above. 3-91O2 What is the purpose or function of the RADAR duplexer/circulator? It is a/an: A. Coupling device that is used in the transition from a rectangular waveguide to a circular waveguide. B. Electronic switch that allows the use of one antenna for both transmission and reception. C. Modified length of waveguide that is used to sample a portion of the transmitted energy for testing purposes. D. Dual section coupling device that allows the use of a magnetron as a transmitter. 3-91O3 What device can be used to determine the performance of a RADAR system at sea? A. Echo box. B. Klystron. C. Circulator. D. Digital signal processor. 3-91O4 What is the purpose of a synchro transmitter and receiver? A. Synchronizes the transmitted and received pulse trains. B. Prevents the receiver from operating during the period of the transmitted pulse. C. Transmits the angular position of the antenna to the indicator unit. D. Keeps the speed of the motor generator constant. 3-91O5 Digital signal processing (DSP) of RADAR signals (compared with analog) causes: A. Improved display graphics. B. Improved weak signal or target enhancement. C. Less interference with SONAR systems. D. Less interference with other radio communications equipment. 3-91O6 The component or circuit providing the transmitter output power for a RADAR system is the: A. Thyratron. B. SCR. C. Klystron. D. Magnetron. Answer Key: 3-91O1: A 3-91O2: B 3-91O3: A 3-91O4: C 3-91O5: B 3-91O6: D Key Topic 92: Range, Pulse Width & Repetition Rate 3-92O1 When a RADAR is being operated on the 48 mile range setting, what is the most appropriate pulse width (PW) and pulse repetition rate (pps)? A. 1.0 s PW and 2,000 pps. B. 0.05 s PW and 2,000 pps. C. 2.5 s PW and 2,500 pps. D. 1.0 s PW and 500 pps. 3-92O2 When a RADAR is being operated on the 6 mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate? A. 1.0 s PW and 500 pps. B. 2.0 s PW and 3,000 pps. C. 0.25 s PW and 1,000 pps. D. 0.01 s PW and 500 pps. 3-92O3 We are looking at a target 25 miles away. When a RADAR is being operated on the 25 mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate? A. 1.0 s PW and 500 pps. B. 0.25 s PW and 1,000 pps. C. 0.01 s PW and 500 pps. D. 0.05 s PW and 2,000 pps. 3-92O4 What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at long ranges? A. Narrow pulse width and slow repetition rate. B. Narrow pulse width and fast repetition rate. C. Wide pulse width and fast repetition rate. D. Wide pulse width and slow repetition rate. 3-92O5 What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at short ranges? A. Wide pulse width and fast repetition rate. B. Narrow pulse width and slow repetition rate. C. Narrow pulse width and fast repetition rates. D. Wide pulse width and slow repetition rates. 3-92O6 When a RADAR is being operated on the 1.5 mile range setting, what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate? A. 0.25 s PW and 1,000 pps. B. 0.05 s PW and 2,000 pps. C. 1.0 s PW and 500 pps. D. 2.5 s PW and 2,500 pps. Answer Key: 3-92O1: D 3-92O2: C 3-92O3: A 3-92O4: D 3-92O5: C 3-92O6: B Key Topic 93: Antennas & Waveguides 3-93O1 How does the gain of a parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled? A. Gain does not change. B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707. C. Gain increases 6 dB. D. Gain increases 3 dB. 3-93O2 What type of antenna or pickup device is used to extract the RADAR signal from the wave guide? A. J-hook. B. K-hook. C. Folded dipole. D. Circulator. 3-93O3 What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain is increased? The beamwidth: A. Increases geometrically as the gain is increased. B. Increases arithmetically as the gain is increased. C. Is essentially unaffected by the gain of the antenna. D. Decreases as the gain is increased. 3-93O4 A common shipboard RADAR antenna is the: A. Slotted array. B. Dipole. C. Stacked Yagi. D. Vertical Marconi. 3-93O5 Conductance takes place in a waveguide: A. By interelectron delay. B. Through electrostatic field reluctance. C. In the same manner as a transmission line. D. Through electromagnetic and electrostatic fields in the walls of the waveguide. 3-93O6 To couple energy into and out of a waveguide use: A. Wide copper sheeting. B. A thin piece of wire as an antenna. C. An LC circuit. D. Capacitive coupling. Answer Key: 3-93O1: C 3-93O2: A 3-93O3: D 3-93O4: A 3-93O5: D 3-93O6: B Key Topic 94: RADAR Equipment 3-94O1 The permanent magnetic field that surrounds a traveling-wave tube (TWT) is intended to: A. Provide a means of coupling. B. Prevent the electron beam from spreading. C. Prevent oscillations. D. Prevent spurious oscillations. 3-94O2 Prior to testing any RADAR system, the operator should first: A. Check the system grounds. B. Assure the display unit is operating normally. C. Inform the airport control tower or ship’s master. D. Assure no personnel are in front of the antenna. 3-94O3 In the term “ARPA RADAR,” ARPA is the acronym for which of the following? A. Automatic RADAR Plotting Aid. B. Automatic RADAR Positioning Angle. C. American RADAR Programmers Association. D. Authorized RADAR Programmer and Administrator. 3-94O4 Which of the following is NOT a precaution that should be taken to ensure the magnetron is not weakened: A. Keep metal tools away from the magnet. B. Do not subject it to excessive heat. C. Keep the TR properly tuned. D. Do not subject it to shocks and blows. 3-94O5 Exposure to microwave energy from RADAR or other electronics devices is limited by U.S. Health Department regulations to _______ mW/centimeter. A. 0.005 B. 5.0 C. 0.05 D. 0.5 3-94O6 RADAR collision avoidance systems utilize inputs from each of the following except your ship’s: A. Gyrocompass. B. Navigation position receiver. C. Anemometer. D. Speed indicator. Answer Key: 3-94O1: B 3-94O2: D 3-94O3: A 3-94O4: C 3-94O5: B 3-94O6: C Subelement 3P – Satellite: 4 Key Topics, 4 Exam Questions Key Topic 95: Low Earth Orbit Systems 3-95P1 What is the orbiting altitude of the Iridium satellite communications system? A. 22,184 miles. B. 11,492 miles. C. 4,686 miles. D. 485 miles. 3-95P2 What frequency band is used by the Iridium system for telephone and messaging? A. 965 - 985 MHz. B. 1616 -1626 MHz. C. 1855 -1895 MHz. D. 2415 - 2435 MHz. 3-95P3 What services are provided by the Iridium system? A. Analog voice and Data at 4.8 kbps. B. Digital voice and Data at 9.6 kbps. C. Digital voice and Data at 2.4 kbps. D. Analog voice and Data at 9.6 kbps. 3-95P4 Which of the following statements about the Iridium system is true? A. There are 48 spot beams per satellite with a footprint of 30 miles in diameter. B. There are 48 satellites in orbit in 4 orbital planes. C. The inclination of the orbital planes is 55 degrees. D. The orbital period is approximately 85 minutes. 3-95P5 What is the main function of the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system? A. Monitor 121.5 MHz for voice distress calls. B. Monitor 406 MHz for distress calls from EPIRBs. C. Monitor 1635 MHz for coded distress calls. D. Monitor 2197.5 kHz for hexadecimal coded DSC distress messages. 3-95P6 How does the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system determine the position of a ship in distress? A. By measuring the Doppler shift of the 406 MHz signal taken at several different points in its orbit. B. The EPIRB always transmits its position which is relayed by the satellite to the Local User Terminal. C. It takes two different satellites to establish an accurate position. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 3-95P1: D 3-95P2: B 3-95P3: C 3-95P4: A 3-95P5: B 3-95P6: A Key Topic 96: INMARSAT Communications Systems-1 3-96P1 What is the orbital altitude of INMARSAT Satellites? A. 16, 436 miles. B. 22,177 miles. C. 10, 450 miles. D. 26,435 miles. 3-96P2 Which of the following describes the INMARSAT Satellite system? A. AOR at 35 W, POR-E at 165 W, POR-W at 155 E and IOR at 56.5 E. B. AOR-E at 25 W, AOR-W at 85 W, POR at 175 W and IOR at 56.5 E. C. AOR-E at 15.5 W, AOR-W at 54 W, POR at 178 E and IOR at 64.5 E. D. AOR at 40 W, POR at 178 W, IOR-E at 109 E and IOR-W at 46 E. 3-96P3 What are the directional characteristics of the INMARSAT-C SES antenna? A. Highly directional parabolic antenna requiring stabilization. B. Wide beam width in a cardioid pattern off the front of the antenna. C. Very narrow beam width straight-up from the top of the antenna. D. Omnidirectional. 3-96P4 When engaging in voice communications via an INMARSAT-B terminal, what techniques are used? A. CODECs are used to digitize the voice signal. B. Noise-blanking must be selected by the operator. C. The voice signal must be compressed to fit into the allowed bandwidth. D. The voice signal will be expanded at the receiving terminal. 3-96P5 Which of the following statements concerning INMARSAT geostationary satellites is true? A. They are in a polar orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. B. They are in an equatorial orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. C. They provide coverage to vessels in nearly all of the world’s navigable waters. D. Vessels sailing in equatorial waters are able to use only one satellite, whereas other vessels are able to choose between at least two satellites. 3-96P6 Which of the following conditions can render INMARSAT -B communications impossible? A. An obstruction, such as a mast, causing disruption of the signal between the satellite and the SES antenna when the vessel is steering a certain course. B. A satellite whose signal is on a low elevation, below the horizon. C. Travel beyond the effective radius of the satellite. D. All of these. Answer Key: 3-96P1: B 3-96P2: C 3-96P3: D 3-96P4: A 3-96P5: C 3-96P6: D Key Topic 97: INMARSAT Communications Systems-2 3-97P1 What is the best description for the INMARSAT-C system? A. It provides slow speed telex and voice service. B. It is a store-and-forward system that provides routine and distress communications. C. It is a real-time telex system. D. It provides world-wide coverage. 3-97P2 The INMARSAT mini-M system is a: A. Marine SONAR system. B. Marine global satellite system. C. Marine depth finder. D. Satellite system utilizing spot beams to provide for small craft communications. 3-97P3 What statement best describes the INMARSAT-B services? A. Voice at 16 kbps, Fax at 14.4 kbps and high-speed Data at 64/54. B. Store and forward high speed data at 36/48 kbps. C. Voice at 3 kHz, Fax at 9.6 kbps and Data at 4.8 kbps. D. Service is available only in areas served by highly directional spot beam antennas. 3-97P4 Which INMARSAT systems offer High Speed Data at 64/54 kbps? A. C. B. B and C. C. Mini-M. D. B, M4 and Fleet. 3-97P5 When INMARSAT-B and INMARSAT-C terminals are compared: A. INMARSAT-C antennas are small and omni-directional, while INMARSAT-B antennas are larger and directional. B. INMARSAT-B antennas are bulkier but omni-directional, while INMARSAT-C antennas are smaller and parabolic, for aiming at the satellite. C. INMARSAT-B antennas are parabolic and smaller for higher gain, while INMARSAT-C antennas are larger but omni-directional. D. INMARSAT-C antennas are smaller but omni-directional, while INMARSAT-B antennas are parabolic for lower gain. 3-97P6 What services are provided by the INMARSAT-M service? A. Data and Fax at 4.8 kbps plus e-mail. B. Voice at 3 kHz, Fax at 9.6 kbps and Data at 4.8 kbps. C. Voice at 6.2 kbps, Data at 2.4 kbps, Fax at 2.4 kbps and e-mail. D. Data at 4.8 kbps and Fax at 9.6 kbps plus e-mail. Answer Key: 3-97P1: B 3-97P2: D 3-97P3: A 3-97P4: D 3-97P5: A 3-97P6: C Key Topic 98: GPS 3-98P1 Global Positioning Service (GPS) satellite orbiting altitude is: A. 4,686 miles. B. 24,184 miles. C. 12,554 miles. D. 247 miles. 3-98P2 The GPS transmitted frequencies are: A. 1626.5 MHz and 1644.5 MHz. B. 1227.6 MHz and 1575.4 MHz. C. 2245.4 and 2635.4 MHz. D. 946.2 MHz and 1226.6 MHz. 3-98P3 How many GPS satellites are normally in operation? A. 8 B. 18 C. 24 D. 36 3-98P4 What best describes the GPS Satellites orbits? A. They are in six orbital planes equally spaced and inclined about 55 degrees to the equator. B. They are in four orbital planes spaced 90 degrees in a polar orbit. C. They are in a geosynchronous orbit equally spaced around the equator. D. They are in eight orbital planes at an altitude of approximately 1,000 miles. 3-98P5 How many satellites must be received to provide complete position and time? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 3-98P6 What is DGPS? A. Digital Ground Position System. B. A system to provide additional correction factors to improve position accuracy. C. Correction signals transmitted by satellite. D. A system for providing altitude corrections for aircraft. Answer Key: 3-98P1: C 3-98P2: B 3-98P3: C 3-98P4: A 3-98P5: D 3-98P6: B Subelement 3Q – SAFETY: 2 Key Topics, 2 Exam Questions Key Topic 99: Radiation Exposure 3-99Q1 Compliance with MPE, or Maximum Permissible Exposure to RF levels (as defined in FCC Part 1, OET Bulletin 65) for “controlled” environments, are averaged over _______ minutes, while “uncontrolled” RF environments are averaged over ______ minutes. A. 6, 30. B. 30, 6. C. 1, 15. D. 15, 1. 3-99Q2 Sites having multiple transmitting antennas must include antennas with more than _______% of the maximum permissible power density exposure limit when evaluating RF site exposure. A. Any B. 5 C. 1 D. 12.5 3-99Q3 RF exposure from portable radio transceivers may be harmful to the eyes because: A. Magnetic fields blur vision. B. RF heating polarizes the eye lens. C. The magnetic field may attract metal particles to the eye. D. RF heating may cause cataracts. 3-99Q4 At what aggregate power level is an MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) study required? A. 1000 Watts ERP. B. 500 Watts ERP. C. 100 Watts ERP. D. Not required. 3-99Q5 Why must you never look directly into a fiber optic cable? A. High power light waves can burn the skin surrounding the eye. B. An active fiber signal may burn the retina and infra-red light cannot be seen. C. The end is easy to break. D. The signal is red and you can see it. 3-99Q6 If the MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) power is present, how often must the personnel accessing the affected area be trained and certified? A. Weekly. B. Monthly. C. Yearly. D. Not at all. Answer Key: 3-99Q1: A 3-99Q2: B 3-99Q3: D 3-99Q4: A 3-99Q5: B 3-99Q6: C Key Topic 100: Safety Steps 3-100Q1 What device can protect a transmitting station from a direct lightning hit? A. Lightning protector. B. Grounded cabinet. C. Short lead in. D. There is no device to protect a station from a direct hit from lightning. 3-100Q2 What is the purpose of not putting sharp corners on the ground leads within a building? A. No reason. B. It is easier to install. C. Lightning will jump off of the ground lead because it is not able to make sharp bends. D. Ground leads should always be made to look good in an installation, including the use of sharp bends in the corners. 3-100Q3 Should you use a power drill without eye protection? A. Yes. B. No. C. It’s okay as long as you keep your face away from the drill bit. D. Only in an extreme emergency. 3-100Q4 What class of fire is one that is caused by an electrical short circuit and what is the preferred substance used to extinguish that type of fire? A. FE28. B. FE29. C. FE30. D. FE31. 3-100Q5 Do shorted-stub lightning protectors work at all frequencies? A. Yes. B. No, the short also kills the radio signals. C. No, the short enhances the radio signal at the tuned band. D. No, only at the tuned frequency band. 3-100Q6 What is a GFI electrical socket used for? A. To prevent electrical shock by sensing ground path current and shutting the circuit down. B. As a gold plated socket. C. To prevent children from sticking objects in the socket. D. To increase the current capacity of the socket. Answer Key: 3-100Q1: D 3-100Q2: C 3-100Q3: B 3-100Q4: C 3-100Q5: D 3-100Q6: A End of Proposed 2009 FCC Commercial Element 3 Question Pool share/E5/0000775000175000017500000000000011725001364010602 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E5/5A90000664000175000017500000000034311725001364011063 0ustar jtnjtn5A9 B In case of distress, urgency or safety, the speed of radiotelegraph transmission should not in general exceed: A.Eleven words per minute B.Sixteen words per minute C.Twenty words per minute D.Twenty-five words per minute share/E5/5A260000664000175000017500000000024011725001364011136 0ustar jtnjtn5A26 D The proper way for station WDEF to answer station KABC is: A.KABC VAWDEF V B.KABC K WDEF K C.WDEF WDEF AR KABC KABC D.KABC KABC KABC DE WDEF WDEF WDEF K share/E5/5A390000664000175000017500000000041711725001364011150 0ustar jtnjtn5A39 C The radio silent period of the maritime service beginning at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour on 500 kilocycles is for the purpose of: A.Receiving time signals B.Receiving weather reports C.Listening for distress calls D.Transmitting ship call letter lists share/E5/5A810000664000175000017500000000035111725001364011142 0ustar jtnjtn5A81 D In communications receivers, the insertion of a crystal filter: A.Narrows the receiving band width B.Minimizes interference from stations operating on nearby frequencies C.Reduces the interference of static D.All of the above share/E5/5A10000664000175000017500000000047211725001364011056 0ustar jtnjtn5A1 B A person holding a radiotelegraph third class operator permit is authorized to operate: A.Radiotelegraph stations on aircraft with power under 100 watts B.Radiotelephone communication stations on aircraft with power under 250 watts C.Any coastal radiotelegraph station D.Any radiotelephone station on a ship share/E5/5B350000664000175000017500000000011411725001364011137 0ustar jtnjtn5B35 A What is the radiotelegraph signal for "Invitation"? A.K B.C C.R D.VA share/E5/5A490000664000175000017500000000026711725001364011154 0ustar jtnjtn5A49 B If a radiotelegraph operator makes an error in transmitting message text, he may indicate that an error has been made by sending: A.Error B.A series of 8 or 9 dots C.IMI D.XXX share/E5/5B1030000664000175000017500000000015511725001364011220 0ustar jtnjtn5B103 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I send more slowly?" A.QRT B.QST C.QRS D.None of the above share/E5/5B270000664000175000017500000000021111725001364011136 0ustar jtnjtn5B27 B What is the radiotelegraph urgency signal? A.Three dots, three dashes and three dots continuously B.XXX C.TTT D.None of the above share/E5/5B1010000664000175000017500000000015011725001364011211 0ustar jtnjtn5B101 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I send faster?" A.QRQ B.QRP C.QRS D.None of the above share/E5/5B1550000664000175000017500000000021011725001364011217 0ustar jtnjtn5B155 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Can you tell me the swell observed at ____ (please)?" A.QUL B.QRS C.QST D.None of the above share/E5/5B1590000664000175000017500000000030711725001364011232 0ustar jtnjtn5B159 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I train my searchlights nearby vertical on a cloud... deflect the beam up wind and on the water to facilitate your landing?" A.QUQ B.QRZ C.QRT D.QSO share/E5/5B420000664000175000017500000000020511725001364011136 0ustar jtnjtn5B42 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Adjust your transmitter, the minimum of you signal is too broad" is: A.DJ B.DS C.DX D.DB share/E5/5A830000664000175000017500000000037111725001364011146 0ustar jtnjtn5A83 A If a radiotelegraph receiver blocks on the reception of strong signals, what correction can be made? A.Reduce the radio frequency gain control B.Increase the radio frequency gain control C.Disable the squelch control D.Disconnect the antenna share/E5/5A460000664000175000017500000000037011725001364011144 0ustar jtnjtn5A46 C Who is not authorized to make technical adjustment to a radiotelephone transmitter? A.1st class radiotelephone operator permit holder B.2nd class radiotelegraph permit holder C.3rd class radiotelegraph holder D.General radiotelegraph holder share/E5/5A270000664000175000017500000000034311725001364011143 0ustar jtnjtn5A27 D Radio operators listening to CW signals for long periods may get relief from hearing fatigue by: A.Switching to AVC B.Increasing the receiver volume C.Using two receivers simultaneously D.Changing the tone of the signal share/E5/5B1060000664000175000017500000000022611725001364011222 0ustar jtnjtn5B106 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I inform ____ that you are calling him on ____ kHz?" (or MHz) A.QRW B.QRV C.QST D.None of the above share/E5/5A250000664000175000017500000000025411725001364011142 0ustar jtnjtn5A25 C The proper way for station KABC to call station WDEF is: A.WDEF VE KABC K B.WDEF WDEF K DE KABC KABC K C.WDEF WDEF WDEF DE KABC KABC KABC D.KABC KABC AR WDEF WDEF K share/E5/5A690000664000175000017500000000056711725001364011161 0ustar jtnjtn5A69 B If you are called by another station, but you are busy with other traffic, what should you do? A.Acknowledge the call B.Acknowledge the call and conclude by indicating a number signifying the number of minutes delay C.Acknowledge the call and conclude by a number signifying the order in which the traffic will be answered D.Ask the calling station to call back later share/E5/5A700000664000175000017500000000047111725001364011143 0ustar jtnjtn5A70 C If you are called by another station, but you are busy and anticipate a delay in excess of 10 minutes, what should you do? A.Apologize for the delay B.Indicate the reason for the delay C.Indicate the reason for the delay and give the number of minutes of delay D.Ask the calling station to call back later share/E5/5A590000664000175000017500000000020711725001364011147 0ustar jtnjtn5A59 A Receiving conditions are bad. What operating signal would be used to request each word or group twice? A.QSZ B.QRO C.QRK D.QRX share/E5/5A450000664000175000017500000000036211725001364011144 0ustar jtnjtn5A45 D What class of station may not be operated by a third class radiotelegraph permit holder? A.Television broadcast station B.Class 1-b, 2-b, 3-b coast stations C.Ship station open to public correspondence by telegraphy D.All of the above share/E5/5B1560000664000175000017500000000026011725001364011225 0ustar jtnjtn5B156 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Will vessels in my immediate vicinity please indicate their position, true course and speed?" A.QUB B.QUN C.QRV D.None of the above share/E5/5A790000664000175000017500000000033511725001364011153 0ustar jtnjtn5A79 B What kind of operation allows two stations to interrupt each other, informing the sending station immediately when the receiving station has missed a part of the message? A.Override B.Break in C.Duplex D.Interrupt share/E5/5B130000664000175000017500000000011711725001364011136 0ustar jtnjtn5B13 D The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Collate" is: A.CL B.CS C.CFM D.COL share/E5/5B520000664000175000017500000000010411725001364011135 0ustar jtnjtn5B52 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "No" is: A.N B.C C.K D.P share/E5/5A750000664000175000017500000000034611725001364011151 0ustar jtnjtn5A75 B What is the result of a long period of listening to CW telegraph signal of continuous tone? A.Increased operator response to weak signals B.Hearing fatigue of the operator C.A peak in hearing a continuous tone D.Both A & C share/E5/5B1370000664000175000017500000000016111725001364011224 0ustar jtnjtn5B137 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Have you left dock (or port)?" A.QSV B.QRT C.QTO D.None of the above share/E5/5B330000664000175000017500000000011011725001364011131 0ustar jtnjtn5B33 D What is the radiotelegraph signal for "YES"? A.BT B.IMI C.VA D.C share/E5/5B1490000664000175000017500000000022111725001364011224 0ustar jtnjtn5B149 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Have you received a distress signal sent by ____ (call sign)?" A.QLV B.QRL C.QUF D.None of the above share/E5/5B1480000664000175000017500000000022211725001364011224 0ustar jtnjtn5B148 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Have you received the urgency signal sent by ____ (call sign)?" A.QUD B.QSZ C.QRV D.None of the above share/E5/5A30000664000175000017500000000050211725001364011052 0ustar jtnjtn5A3 A The radio operator of a manually operated radiotelegraph station is required to: A.Post or have available his operator license or permit B.Take a code examination each time his license or permit is renewed C.Keep the station license in his personal possession at all times D.Sign the radio log at 4‑hour intervals share/E5/5B1410000664000175000017500000000025211725001364011220 0ustar jtnjtn5B141 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Will you send your call sign for ___ minutes...so that your frequency may be measured?" A.QRZ B.QTS C.QUM D.None of the above share/E5/5B1700000664000175000017500000000014311725001364011221 0ustar jtnjtn5B170 C What Q-signal would be used to say "Increase power"? A.QST B.QRT C.QRD D.None of the above share/E5/5A110000664000175000017500000000020711725001364011133 0ustar jtnjtn5A11 C If a radiotelegraph station transmits 1 ‑ .... ‑ 2, the receiving operator would copy: A.1, I/2 B.I/2 C.l l/2 D.1 minus 1/2 share/E5/5A720000664000175000017500000000034311725001364011143 0ustar jtnjtn5A72 A The procedure of radiotelegraph transmission in which one station answers the call of another is...? A.KMEX KMEX KMEX DE WCXY WCXY WCXY R K B.KMEX DE WCXY R C.KMEX KMEX KMEX DE WCXY WCXY WCXY RRR D.KMEX KMEX DE WCXY IMI share/E5/5B380000664000175000017500000000020711725001364011145 0ustar jtnjtn5B38 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Bearing doubtful in consequence of the bad quality of your signal" is: A.DI B.DG C.DF D.DC share/E5/5A770000664000175000017500000000032111725001364011144 0ustar jtnjtn5A77 A What is a cause of hearing fatigue? A.A long period of listening to a CW telegraph signal of continuous tone B.A CW telegraph signal with varying tones C.A poor radiotelegraph signal D.All of the above share/E5/5A230000664000175000017500000000051211725001364011135 0ustar jtnjtn5A23 D If you are standing by because other stations have been carrying on distress traffic and you hear one of them transmitting a general call followed by QUM, you would know that: A.There has been great loss of life and property B.The distress is becoming more severe C.You should transmit QRT D.The distress traffic has ended share/E5/5A990000664000175000017500000000054411725001364011157 0ustar jtnjtn5A99 A The movable dash contact on the dash lever of an automatic key (or bug) should be adjusted: A.So that it makes full-face contact with the stationary dash contact on the post B.So that it makes partial contact with the stationary dash contact on the post C.So that it makes no contact with the stationary dash contact on the post D.None of the above share/E5/5B850000664000175000017500000000027411725001364011153 0ustar jtnjtn5B85 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation used after a question mark usually is: A.A request for a repetition B.A questionable procedure C.The abbreviation of a statement D.None of the above share/E5/5B940000664000175000017500000000015511725001364011151 0ustar jtnjtn5B94 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Are you returning to ____?" A.QRL B.QRF C.QRK D.None of the above share/E5/5B1230000664000175000017500000000021011725001364011212 0ustar jtnjtn5B123 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I change to transmission on another frequency?" A.QSV B.QST C.QSY D.None of the above share/E5/5B70000664000175000017500000000015311725001364011061 0ustar jtnjtn5B7 C The radiotelegraph abbreviation used to interrupt a transmission in progress is: A.BN B.BT C.BF D.BQ share/E5/5B1620000664000175000017500000000016311725001364011224 0ustar jtnjtn5B162 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Is position of incident marked?" A.QUT B.QTH C.QRP D.None of the above share/E5/5B980000664000175000017500000000017111725001364011153 0ustar jtnjtn5B98 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is the readability of my signals?" A.QRT B.QXB C.QRK D.None of the above share/E5/5B480000664000175000017500000000013511725001364011146 0ustar jtnjtn5B48 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "The punctuation counts" is: A.ITP B.DZ C.NIL D.K share/E5/5A1010000664000175000017500000000033511725001364011215 0ustar jtnjtn5A101 C The spacing of the stationary dash contact of an automatic key (or bug) should: A.Be adjusted to about 1/16 to 1/32 of an inch B.Be adjusted to suit the sending style of the operator C.Both A & B D.Neither A or B share/E5/5B1080000664000175000017500000000016711725001364011230 0ustar jtnjtn5B108 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is the strength of my signals?" A.QSA B.QSD C.QSC D.None of the above share/E5/5B230000664000175000017500000000015411725001364011140 0ustar jtnjtn5B23 D An operating signal used to mean "repeat" in radiotelegraph communications is: A.BT B.GR C.QUM D.RPT share/E5/5A620000664000175000017500000000033111725001364011137 0ustar jtnjtn5A62 A In using "Q" signals to ask a question, you: A.Follow the Q signal with a question mark B.Prefix the Q signal with a question mark C.Send a Q signal twice D.Assume the receiving operator knows it as a question share/E5/5B320000664000175000017500000000011311725001364011133 0ustar jtnjtn5B32 A What is the radiotelegraph signal for "received"? A.R B.K C.BT D.DE share/E5/5B660000664000175000017500000000017311725001364011150 0ustar jtnjtn5B66 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Prefix indicating a service telegram" is: A.SYS B.SVC C.SS D.None of the above share/E5/5B1330000664000175000017500000000014711725001364011224 0ustar jtnjtn5B133 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is your speed?" A.QQQ B.QTJ C.QTH D.None of the above share/E5/5B1360000664000175000017500000000020211725001364011217 0ustar jtnjtn5B136 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "At what time did you depart from ____ (place)?" A.QTN B.QSV C.QRZ D.None of the above share/E5/5A930000664000175000017500000000026311725001364011147 0ustar jtnjtn5A93 D With a "bug": A.Dashes are made manually B.The dot speed is set by weights on the arm of the "bug" C.Dot-contact speed of usually about 1/8 inch is used D.All of the above share/E5/5A1020000664000175000017500000000020711725001364011214 0ustar jtnjtn5A102 A The adjustment of the dot lever travel should be: A.1/16 to 3/16 inch B.1/8 to 1/4 inch C.1/32 to 1/8 inch D.None of the above share/E5/5B1020000664000175000017500000000017211725001364011216 0ustar jtnjtn5B102 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Are you ready for automatic operation?" A.QRQ B.QRR C.QRS D.None of the above share/E5/5B1510000664000175000017500000000022111725001364011215 0ustar jtnjtn5B151 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Will you give me the present barometer pressure at sea level?" A.QUH B.QTH C.QSH D.None of the above share/E5/5B310000664000175000017500000000011511725001364011134 0ustar jtnjtn5B31 C What is the radiotelegraph signal for "Waiting"? A.CQ B.BT C.AS D.IMI share/E5/5B190000664000175000017500000000027311725001364011147 0ustar jtnjtn5B19 D The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Your bearings at