fccexam.10000664000175000017500000000734712530206657010741 0ustar jtnjtn.TH HAMEXAM 1 .SH NAME fccexam \- Study guide for USA FCC commercial radio license examinations. .SH SYNOPSIS .B fccexam [option] .SH DESCRIPTION .B fccexam presents questions in random order from the selected question pool, and terminates when all questions have been answered correctly. The session may be interrupted with ^C, and resumed later. Some questions refer to figures. The figures for the selected question pool are displayed in a separate window using $HTML_VIEWER, if it is executable. If $HTML_VIEWER is undefined, xdg-open(1) will be used to choose the default browser. If $HTML_VIEWER is not an executable command (e.g. ""), then questions which refer to figures will be noted and skipped. Licenses are issued by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC), but examinations are administered by COLEM examiners. See http://wireless.fcc.gov/commoperators/index.htm?job=home for information regarding USA commercial radio licenses. .SH OPTIONS If no pool is specified, usage, version, and help information is displayed. To initialize the question pool, one of the element numbers may be specified: .IP .B 1 Element 1, Basic radio law and operating practice. .B 3 Element 3, General Radiotelephone; Electronic fundamentals and techniques required to adjust, repair, and maintain radio transmitters and receivers. .B 5 Element 5, Radiotelegraph operating procedures and practices. .B 6 Element 6, Advanced technical, legal, and other matters applicable to the operation of all classes of radiotelegraph stations. .B 7 Element 7, GMDSS Radio Operating Practices. .B 7R Element 7R, Restricted GMDSS Radio Operating Practices. .B 8 Element 8, Ship Radar Techniques. .B 9 Element 9, GMDSS Radio Maintenance Practices and Procedures. The following abbreviations may be used to select multiple elements: .B T1 First Class Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 5, 6. .B T2 Second Class Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 5, 6. .B T3 Third Class Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 5. .B GROL General Radiotelephone Operator License: elements 1, 3. .B GROL+ General Radiotelephone Operator License + Radar: elements 1, 3, 8. .B MROP Marine Radio Operator Permit: element 1. .B GMDSS Global Maritime Distress Safety System Radio Operator: elements 1, 7. .B GMDSS+ GMDSS Radio Maintainer + Radar: elements 1, 7, 8, 9. .B RGMDSS Restricted GMDSS Radio Operator: elements 1, 7R. .B q The question pool is selected interactively. This is needed when starting the application from an icon. .SH FILES A directory ~/.fccexam is created to hold the names of the questions which remain to be answered correctly. .SH SEE ALSO For more information regarding licensing, ref. http://wireless.fcc.gov/commoperators/index.htm?job=home For information regarding amateur radio licensing (ham radio), see the package hamexam. .SH COPYRIGHT .B fccexam is Copyright (c) 2012-2015 John Nogatch . .B fccexam version 1.0.7, containing question pools as recent as 17-May-2013. This program is free software; you can redistribute it and/or modify it under the terms of the GNU General Public License as published by the Free Software Foundation; either version 2 of the License, or (at your option) any later version. This program is distributed in the hope that it will be useful, but WITHOUT ANY WARRANTY; without even the implied warranty of MERCHANTABILITY or FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR PURPOSE. See the GNU General Public License for more details. .SH BUGS The question pools, and number of questions required, are sometimes modified; ref. http://wireless.fcc.gov/commoperators/index.htm?job=question_pools Radiotelegraph Operator licenses also require Morse code proficiency elements, which are not provided by fccexam. .B fccexam does not automatically update the question pools from the FCC Web site. fccexam.desktop0000664000175000017500000000026111725442567012245 0ustar jtnjtn[Desktop Entry] Name=fccexam GenericName=fccexam Comment=FCC Radio Examination trainer Exec=fccexam q Icon=fccexam Terminal=true Type=Application Categories=Education;HamRadio; fccexam.png0000664000175000017500000000321011725443753011353 0ustar jtnjtnPNG  IHDR00WsBIT|d pHYsbb_'StEXtSoftwarewww.inkscape.org<IDATh{EҮ}`iPHM )*V0#S !HR HB Fc #p/N@O6:НSa5xO@R턹B<vo2 vkz(R-BH5 l{}[q|8܏o+>7 mtDWz(S7+^/?c{a`hW8`߃H<sp:&' k\DMD'FGGEiEE6؛ @qogOׇ`?1ϴ121ޙdhw6w^ c\لi~Y^`6Ȫ|Zvslm5sK~|ePͽH6oz('&n_DBrl vQyo\F˹+kZ}U6Vs]2N(.0[la[W ZpҒWgnZ+0+ة9X8ʶ~4752rM#r` 7f̬?Ki qܩw?2ԇkr7elbEMj͓(dcF?cC6]7K$kog+6DzQ#@Og-sĝASy< Z,|\!}[Vm{ +Z1q#h k\X&9XVh.4'kJt81nαyXa^Ɵ=UvT6z+kD#XWf v#FGFis-jnlZ.oƟ>/Gpȗ/EN4?0yLuiS=&#^pJ2;_gk2@xux2 S5ĝܨmOF`yOpA8sE`قsd~ps_~˄vQkpR=Ydo6#1%aR&P^?+x^ޅ##px Br r #b嗉 oW"}PBݧg8L)'7-.[$9Bds1Ď/S.j@64d.VNan <%\琩ť]Gy[ ȱ3{{ݔR image/svg+xml EXAM GROL GMDSS RADAR FCC Makefile0000664000175000017500000000116211726011135010665 0ustar jtnjtnbuild: echo "null build" clean: echo "null clean" dist: rm -f fccexam.orig.tar.gz tar zcvf fccexam.orig.tar.gz --exclude debian * install: mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share cp -r share $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/fccexam mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/bin ln -s ../share/fccexam/fccexam $(DESTDIR)/usr/bin/fccexam mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/man/man1 gzip -c fccexam.1 > $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/man/man1/fccexam.1.gz mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/applications cp fccexam.desktop $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/applications/fccexam.desktop mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/pixmaps cp fccexam.png $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/pixmaps/fccexam.png share/0000775000175000017500000000000012527732417010344 5ustar jtnjtnshare/ask.awk0000664000175000017500000000140612113724010011604 0ustar jtnjtn# display question, possible answers, then process reply # Copyright (C) 2011-2013 John Nogatch # collect info (NR==1){answer = $0; key = $2; gsub( /[^A-D]/, "", key); next} # display question and possible answers {print $0; next} # read response from stdin, if wrong, print correct answer info and wait for ack END { # read user's response if (getline < "/dev/stdin" != 1) exit 2 # convert to upper case response = toupper( $1) # check for "quit" if (response == "Q") exit 2 # check for incorrect response if (response != key) { print "*******" answer "\nto continue, hit Enter" if (getline < "/dev/stdin" != 1) exit 2 exit 1 } # response was correct print ".......correct\n" exit 0 } share/element1.txt0000664000175000017500000014600112527145055012615 0ustar jtnjtnFCC Commercial Element 1 Question Pool (approved 25 June 2009) Subelement A – Rules & Regulations: 6 Key Topics, 6 Exam Questions Key Topic 1: Equipment Requirements 1-1A1 What is a requirement of all marine transmitting apparatus used aboard United States vessels? A. Only equipment that has been certified by the FCC for Part 80 operations is authorized. B. Equipment must be type-accepted by the U.S. Coast Guard for maritime mobile use. C. Certification is required by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). D. Programming of all maritime channels must be performed by a licensed Marine Radio Operator. 1-1A2 What transmitting equipment is authorized for use by a station in the maritime services? A. Transmitters that have been certified by the manufacturer for maritime use. B. Unless specifically excepted, only transmitters certified by the Federal Communications Commission for Part 80 operations. C. Equipment that has been inspected and approved by the U.S. Coast Guard. D. Transceivers and transmitters that meet all ITU specifications for use in maritime mobile service. 1-1A3 Small passenger vessels that sail 20 to 150 nautical miles from the nearest land must have what additional equipment? A. Inmarsat-B terminal. B. Inmarsat-C terminal. C. Aircraft Transceiver with 121.5 MHz. D. MF-HF SSB Transceiver. 1-1A4 What equipment is programmed to initiate transmission of distress alerts and calls to individual stations? A. NAVTEX. B. GPS. C. DSC controller. D. Scanning Watch Receiver. 1-1A5 What is the minimum transmitter power level required by the FCC for a medium-frequency transmitter aboard a compulsorily fitted vessel? A. At least 100 watts, single-sideband, suppressed-carrier power. B. At least 60 watts PEP. C. The power predictably needed to communicate with the nearest public coast station operating on 2182 kHz. D. At least 25 watts delivered into 50 ohms effective resistance when operated with a primary voltage of 13.6 volts DC. 1-1A6 Shipboard transmitters using F3E emission (FM voice) may not exceed what carrier power? A. 500 watts. B. 250 watts. C. 100 watts. D. 25 watts. Answer Key: 1-1A1: A 1-1A2: B 1-1A3: D 1-1A4: C 1-1A5: B 1-1A6: D Key Topic 2: License Requirements 1-2A1 Which commercial radio operator license is required to operate a fixed-tuned ship RADAR station with external controls? A. A radio operator certificate containing a Ship RADAR Endorsement. B. A Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher. C. Either a First or Second Class Radiotelegraph certificate or a General Radiotelephone Operator License. D. No radio operator authorization is required. 1-2A2 When is a Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher license required for aircraft communications? A. When operating on frequencies below 30 MHz allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. B. When operating on frequencies above 30 MHz allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. C. When operating on frequencies below 30 MHz not allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. D. When operating on frequencies above 30 MHz not assigned for international use. 1-2A3 Which of the following persons are ineligible to be issued a commercial radio operator license? A. Individuals who are unable to send and receive correctly by telephone spoken messages in English. B. Handicapped persons with uncorrected disabilities which affect their ability to perform all duties required of commercial radio operators. C. Foreign maritime radio operators unless they are certified by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). D. U.S. Military radio operators who are still on active duty. 1-2A4 What are the radio operator requirements of a passenger ship equipped with a GMDSS installation? A. The operator must hold a General Radiotelephone Operator License or higher-class license. B. The operator must hold a Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit or higher-class license. C. The operator must hold a Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher-class license. D. Two operators on board must hold a GMDSS Radio Operator License or a Restricted GMDSS Radio Operator License, depending on the ship’s operating areas. 1-2A5 What is the minimum radio operator requirement for ships subject to the Great Lakes Radio Agreement? A. Third Class Radiotelegraph Operator’s Certificate. B. General Radiotelephone Operator License. C. Marine Radio Operator Permit. D. Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit. 1-2A6 What is a requirement of every commercial operator on duty and in charge of a transmitting system? A. A copy of the Proof-of-Passing Certificate (PPC) must be in the station’s records. B. The original license or a photocopy must be posted or in the operator’s personal possession and available for inspection. C. The FCC Form 605 certifying the operator’s qualifications must be readily available at the transmitting system site. D. A copy of the operator’s license must be supplied to the radio station’s supervisor as evidence of technical qualification. Answer Key: 1-2A1: D 1-2A2: C 1-2A3: A 1-2A4: D 1-2A5: C 1-2A6: B Key Topic 3: Watchkeeping 1-3A1 Radio watches for compulsory radiotelephone stations will include the following: A. VHF channel 22a continuous watch at sea. B. 121.5 MHz continuous watch at sea. C. VHF channel 16 continuous watch. D. 500 kHz. 1-3A2 All compulsory equipped cargo ships (except those operating under GMDSS regulations or in a VTS) while being navigated outside of a harbor or port, shall keep a continuous radiotelephone watch on: A. 2182 kHz and Ch-16. B. 2182 kHz. C. Ch-16. D. Cargo ships are exempt from radio watch regulations. 1-3A3 What channel must all compulsory, non-GMDSS vessels monitor at all times in the open sea? A. Channel 8. B. Channel 70. C. Channel 6. D. Channel 16. 1-3A4 When a watch is required on 2182 kHz, at how many minutes past the hour must a 3 minute silent period be observed? A. 00, 30. B. 15, 45. C. 10, 40. D. 05, 35. 1-3A5 Which is true concerning a required watch on VHF Ch-16? A. It is compulsory at all times while at sea until further notice, unless the vessel is in a VTS system. B. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is not required on Ch-16, provided the vessel monitors both Ch-13 and VTS channel. C. It is always compulsory in sea areas A2, A3 and A4. D. All of the above. 1-3A6 What are the mandatory DSC watchkeeping bands/channels? A. VHF Ch-70, 2 MHz MF DSC, 6 MHz DSC and 1 other HF DSC. B. 8 MHz HF DSC, 1 other HF DSC, 2 MHz MF DSC and VHF Ch-70. C. 2 MHz MF DSC, 8 MHz DSC, VHF Ch-16 and 1 other HF DSC. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 1-3A1: C 1-3A2: A 1-3A3 D 1-3A4: A 1-3A5: D 1-3A6: B Key Topic 4: Logkeeping 1-4A1 Who is required to make entries in a required service or maintenance log? A. The licensed operator or a person whom he or she designates. B. The operator responsible for the station operation or maintenance. C. Any commercial radio operator holding at least a Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit. D. The technician who actually makes the adjustments to the equipment. 1-4A2 Who is responsible for the proper maintenance of station logs? A. The station licensee. B. The commercially-licensed radio operator in charge of the station. C. The ship’s master and the station licensee. D. The station licensee and the radio operator in charge of the station. 1-4A3 Where must ship station logs be kept during a voyage? A. At the principal radiotelephone operating position. B. They must be secured in the vessel’s strongbox for safekeeping. C. In the personal custody of the licensed commercial radio operator. D. All logs are turned over to the ship’s master when the radio operator goes off duty. 1-4A4 What is the proper procedure for making a correction in the station log? A. The ship’s master must be notified, approve and initial all changes to the station log. B. The mistake may be erased and the correction made and initialized only by the radio operator making the original error. C. The original person making the entry must strike out the error, initial the correction and indicate the date of the correction. D. Rewrite the new entry in its entirety directly below the incorrect notation and initial the change. 1-4A5 How long should station logs be retained when there are entries relating to distress or disaster situations? A. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them. B. For a period of three years from the last date of entry, unless notified by the FCC. C. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard. D. For a period of one year from the last date of entry. 1-4A6 How long should station logs be retained when there are no entries relating to distress or disaster situations? A. For a period of three years from the last date of entry, unless notified by the FCC. B. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them. C. For a period of two years from the last date of entry. D. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard. Answer Key: 1-4A1: B 1-4A2: D 1-4A3: A 1-4A4: C 1-4A5: B 1-4A6: C Key Topic 5: Log Entries 1-5A1 Radiotelephone stations required to keep logs of their transmissions must include: A. Station, date and time. B. Name of operator on duty. C. Station call signs with which communication took place. D. All of these. 1-5A2 Which of the following is true? A. Battery test must be logged daily. B. EPIRB tests are normally logged monthly. C. Radiotelephone tests are normally logged weekly. D. None of the above. 1-5A3 Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship? A. Captain’s office. B. Sea cabin. C. At the GMDSS operating position. D. Anywhere on board the vessel. 1-5A4 Which of the following statements is true? A. Key letters or abbreviations may be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks if their meaning is noted in the log. B. Key letters or abbreviations may not be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks under any circumstances. C. All Urgency communications must be entered in the logbook. D. None of the above. 1-5A5 Which of the following logkeeping statements is true? A. Entries relating to pre-voyage, pre-departure and daily tests are required. B. Both a) and c) C. A summary of all required Distress communications heard and Urgency communications affecting the station’s own ship. Also, all Safety communications (other than VHF) affecting the station’s own ship must be logged. D. Routine daily MF-HF and Inmarsat-C transmissions do not have to be logged. 1-5A6 Which of the following statements concerning log entries is false? A. All Safety communications received on VHF must be logged. B. All required equipment tests must be logged. C. The radio operator must log on and off watch. D. The vessels daily position must be entered in the log. Answer Key: 1-5A1: D 1-5A2: B 1-5A3: C 1-5A4: A 1-5A5: B 1-5A6: A Key Topic 6: Miscellaneous Rules & Regulations 1-6A1 What regulations govern the use and operation of FCC-licensed ship stations in international waters? A. The regulations of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and Radio Officers Union. B. Part 80 of the FCC Rules plus the international Radio Regulations and agreements to which the United States is a party. C. The Maritime Mobile Directives of the International Telecommunication Union. D. Those of the FCC’s Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, Maritime Mobile Service, Washington, DC 20554. 1-6A2 When may the operator of a ship radio station allow an unlicensed person to speak over the transmitter? A. At no time. Only commercially-licensed radio operators may modulate the transmitting apparatus. B. When the station power does not exceed 200 watts peak envelope power. C. When under the supervision of the licensed operator. D. During the hours that the radio officer is normally off duty. 1-6A3 Where do you make an application for inspection of a ship GMDSS radio station? A. To a Commercial Operator Licensing Examination Manager (COLE Manager). B. To the Federal Communications Commission, Washington, DC 20554. C. To the Engineer-in-Charge of the FCC District Office nearest the proposed place of inspection. D. To an FCC-licensed technician holding a GMDSS Radio Maintainer’s License. 1-6A4 Who has ultimate control of service at a ship’s radio station? A. The master of the ship. B. A holder of a First Class Radiotelegraph Certificate with a six months’ service endorsement. C. The Radio Officer-in-Charge authorized by the captain of the vessel. D. An appointed licensed radio operator who agrees to comply with all Radio Regulations in force. 1-6A5 Where must the principal radiotelephone operating position be installed in a ship station? A. At the principal radio operating position of the vessel. B. In the chart room, master’s quarters or wheel house. C. In the room or an adjoining room from which the ship is normally steered while at sea. D. At the level of the main wheel house or at least one deck above the ship’s main deck. 1-6A6 By international agreement, which ships must carry radio equipment for the safety of life at sea? A. All ships traveling more than 100 miles out to sea. B. Cargo ships of more than 100 gross tons and passenger vessels on international deep-sea voyages. C. All cargo ships of more than 100 gross tons. D. Cargo ships of more than 300 gross tons and vessels carrying more than 12 passengers. Answer Key: 1-6A1: B 1-6A2: C 1-6A3: C 1-6A4: A 1-6A5: C 1-6A6: D Subelement B – Communications Procedures: 6 Key Topics, 6 Exam Questions Key Topic 7: Bridge-to-Bridge Operations 1-7B1 What traffic management service is operated by the U.S. Coast Guard in certain designated water areas to prevent ship collisions, groundings and environmental harm? A. Water Safety Management Bureau (WSMB). B. Vessel Traffic Service (VTS). C. Ship Movement and Safety Agency (SMSA). D. Interdepartmental Harbor and Port Patrol (IHPP). 1-7B2 What is a bridge-to-bridge station? A. An internal communications system linking the wheel house with the ship’s primary radio operating position and other integral ship control points. B. An inland waterways and coastal radio station serving ship stations operating within the United States. C. A portable ship station necessary to eliminate frequent application to operate a ship station on board different vessels. D. A VHF radio station located on a ship’s navigational bridge or main control station that is used only for navigational communications. 1-7B3 When may a bridge-to-bridge transmission be more than 1 watt? A. When broadcasting a distress message and rounding a bend in a river or traveling in a blind spot. B. When broadcasting a distress message. C. When rounding a bend in a river or traveling in a blind spot. D. When calling the Coast Guard. 1-7B4 When is it legal to transmit high power on Channel 13? A. Failure of vessel being called to respond. B. In a blind situation such as rounding a bend in a river. C. During an emergency. D. All of these. 1-7B5 A ship station using VHF bridge-to-bridge Channel 13: A. May be identified by the name of the ship in lieu of call sign. B. May be identified by call sign and country of origin. C. Must be identified by call sign and name of vessel. D. Does not need to identify itself within 100 miles from shore. 1-7B6 The primary purpose of bridge-to-bridge communications is: A. Search and rescue emergency calls only. B. All short-range transmission aboard ship. C. Navigational communications. D. Transmission of Captain's orders from the bridge. Answer Key: 1-7B1: B 1-7B2: D 1-7B3: A 1-7B4: D 1-7B5: A 1-7B6: C Key Topic 8: Operating Procedures-1 1-8B1 What is the best way for a radio operator to minimize or prevent interference to other stations? A. By using an omni-directional antenna pointed away from other stations. B. Reducing power to a level that will not affect other on-frequency communications. C. Determine that a frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting. D. By changing frequency when notified that a radiocommunication causes interference. 1-8B2 Under what circumstances may a coast station using telephony transmit a general call to a group of vessels? A. Under no circumstances. B. When announcing or preceding the transmission of Distress, Urgency, Safety or other important messages. C. When the vessels are located in international waters beyond 12 miles. D. When identical traffic is destined for multiple mobile stations within range. 1-8B3 Who determines when a ship station may transmit routine traffic destined for a coast or government station in the maritime mobile service? A. Shipboard radio officers may transmit traffic when it will not interfere with ongoing radiocommunications. B. The order and time of transmission and permissible type of message traffic is decided by the licensed on-duty operator. C. Ship stations must comply with instructions given by the coast or government station. D. The precedence of conventional radiocommunications is determined by FCC and international regulation. 1-8B4 What is required of a ship station which has established initial contact with another station on 2182 kHz or Ch-16? A. The stations must change to an authorized working frequency for the transmission of messages. B. The stations must check the radio channel for Distress, Urgency and Safety calls at least once every ten minutes. C. Radiated power must be minimized so as not to interfere with other stations needing to use the channel. D. To expedite safety communications, the vessels must observe radio silence for two out of every fifteen minutes. 1-8B5 How does a coast station notify a ship that it has a message for the ship? A. By making a directed transmission on 2182 kHz or 156.800 MHz. B. The coast station changes to the vessel’s known working frequency. C. By establishing communications using the eight-digit maritime mobile service identification. D. The coast station may transmit, at intervals, lists of call signs in alphabetical order for which they have traffic. 1-8B6 What is the priority of communications? A. Safety, Distress, Urgency and radio direction-finding. B. Distress, Urgency and Safety. C. Distress, Safety, radio direction-finding, search and rescue. D. Radio direction-finding, Distress and Safety. Answer Key: 1-8B1: C 1-8B2: B 1-8B3: C 1-8B4: A 1-8B5: D 1-8B6: B Key Topic 9: Operating Procedures-2 1-9B1 Under what circumstances may a ship or aircraft station interfere with a public coast station? A. In cases of distress. B. Under no circumstances during on-going radiocommunications. C. During periods of government priority traffic handling. D. When it is necessary to transmit a message concerning the safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. 1-9B2 Ordinarily, how often would a station using a telephony emission identify? A. At least every 10 minutes. B. At the beginning and end of each transmission and at 15-minute intervals. C. At 15-minute intervals, unless public correspondence is in progress. D. At 20-minute intervals. 1-9B3 When using a SSB station on 2182 kHz or VHF-FM on channel 16: A. Preliminary call must not exceed 30 seconds. B. If contact is not made, you must wait at least 2 minutes before repeating the call. C. Once contact is established, you must switch to a working frequency. D. All of these. 1-9B4 What should a station operator do before making a transmission? A. Except for the transmission of distress calls, determine that the frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting. B. Transmit a general notification that the operator wishes to utilize the channel. C. Check transmitting equipment to be certain it is properly calibrated. D. Ask if the frequency is in use. 1-9B5 On what frequency should a ship station normally call a coast station when using a radiotelephony emission? A. On a vacant radio channel determined by the licensed radio officer. B. Calls should be initiated on the appropriate ship-to-shore working frequency of the coast station. C. On any calling frequency internationally approved for use within ITU Region 2. D. On 2182 kHz or Ch-16 at any time. 1-9B6 In the International Phonetic Alphabet, the letters E, M, and S are represented by the words: A. Echo, Michigan, Sonar. B. Equator, Mike, Sonar. C. Echo, Mike, Sierra D. Element, Mister, Scooter Answer Key: 1-9B1: A 1-9B2: B 1-9B3: D 1-9B4: A 1-9B5: B 1-9B6: C Key Topic 10: Distress Communications 1-10B1 What information must be included in a Distress message? A. Name of vessel. B. Location. C. Type of distress and specifics of help requested. D. All of the above. 1-10B2 What are the highest priority communications from ships at sea? A. All critical message traffic authorized by the ship’s master. B. Navigation and meteorological warnings. C. Distress calls are highest and then communications preceded by Urgency and then Safety signals. D. Authorized government communications for which priority right has been claimed. 1-10B3 What is a Distress communication? A. Communications indicating that the calling station has a very urgent message concerning safety. B. An internationally recognized communication indicating that the sender is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate assistance. C. Radio communications which, if delayed, will adversely affect the safety of life or property. D. An official radio communication notification of approaching navigational or meteorological hazards. 1-10B4 What is the order of priority of radiotelephone communications in the maritime services? A. Alarm and health and welfare communications. B. Navigation hazards, meteorological warnings, priority traffic. C. Distress calls and signals, followed by communications preceded by Urgency and Safety signals and all other communications. D. Government precedence, messages concerning safety of life and protection of property, and traffic concerning grave and imminent danger. 1-10B5 The radiotelephone Distress call and message consists of: A. MAYDAY spoken three times, followed by the name of the vessel and the call sign in phonetics spoken three times. B. Particulars of its position, latitude and longitude, and other information which might facilitate rescue, such as length, color and type of vessel, and number of persons on board. C. Nature of distress and kind of assistance required. D. All of the above. 1-10B6 What is Distress traffic? A. All messages relative to the immediate assistance required by a ship, aircraft or other vehicle threatened by grave or imminent danger, such as life and safety of persons on board, or man overboard. B. In radiotelephony, the speaking of the word, “Mayday.” C. Health and welfare messages concerning property and the safety of a vessel. D. Internationally recognized communications relating to important situations. Answer Key: 1-10B1: D 1-10B2: C 1-10B3: B 1-10B4: C 1-10B5: D 1-10B6 A Key Topic 11: Urgency and Safety Communications 1-11B1 What is a typical Urgency transmission? A. A request for medical assistance that does not rise to the level of a Distress or a critical weather transmission higher than Safety. B. A radio Distress transmission affecting the security of humans or property. C. Health and welfare traffic which impacts the protection of on-board personnel. D. A communications alert that important personal messages must be transmitted. 1-11B2 What is the internationally recognized Urgency signal? A. The letters “TTT” transmitted three times by radiotelegraphy. B. The words “PAN PAN” spoken three times before the Urgency call. C. Three oral repetitions of the word “Safety” sent before the call. D. The pronouncement of the word “Mayday.” 1-11B3 What is a Safety transmission? A. A communications transmission which indicates that a station is preparing to transmit an important navigation or weather warning. B. A radiotelephony warning preceded by the words “PAN PAN.” C. Health and welfare traffic concerning the protection of human life. D. A voice call proceeded by the words “Safety Alert.” 1-11B4 The Urgency signal concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or person shall be sent only on the authority of: A. Master of ship. B. Person responsible for mobile station. C. Either Master of ship or person responsible for mobile station. D. An FCC-licensed operator. 1-11B5 The Urgency signal has lower priority than: A. Ship-to-ship routine calls. B. Distress. C. Safety. D. Security. 1-11B6 What safety signal call word is spoken three times, followed by the station call letters spoken three times, to announce a storm warning, danger to navigation, or special aid to navigation? A. PAN PAN. B. MAYDAY. C. SAFETY. D. SECURITE. Answer Key: 1-11B1: A 1-11B2: B 1-11B3: A 1-11B4: C 1-11B5: B 1-11B6: D Key Topic 12: GMDSS 1-12B1 What is the fundamental concept of the GMDSS? A. It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques. B. It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost commercial communications. C. It is intended to provide compulsory vessels with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels. D. It is intended to automate and improve emergency communications in the maritime industry. 1-12B2 The primary purpose of the GMDSS is to: A. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels. B. Provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications. C. Automate and improve emergency communications for the world’s shipping industry. D. Provide effective and inexpensive communications. 1-12B3 What is the basic concept of GMDSS? A. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation with minimum delay. B. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a Distress situation. C. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress will be rapidly alerted. D. All of these. 1-12B4 GMDSS is primarily a system based on? A. Ship-to-ship Distress communications using MF or HF radiotelephony. B. VHF digital selective calling from ship to shore. C. Distress, Urgency and Safety communications carried out by the use of narrow-band direct printing telegraphy. D. The linking of search and rescue authorities ashore with shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress or in need of assistance. 1-12B5 What is the responsibility of vessels under GMDSS? A. Vessels over 300 gross tons may be required to render assistance if such assistance does not adversely affect their port schedule. B. Only that vessel, regardless of size, closest to a vessel in Distress, is required to render assistance. C. Every ship is able to perform those communications functions that are essential for the Safety of the ship itself and of other ships. D. Vessels operating under GMDSS, outside of areas effectively serviced by shoreside authorities, operating in sea areas A2, and A4 may be required to render assistance in Distress situations. 1-12B6 GMDSS is required for which of the following? A. All vessels capable of international voyages. B. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. C. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coastal radio stations. D. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons. Answer Key: 1-12B1: D 1-12B2: C 1-12B3: D 1-12B4: D 1-12B5: C 1-12B6: B Subelement C – Equipment Operations: 6 Key Topics, 6 Exam Questions Key Topic 13: VHF Equipment Controls 1-13C1 What is the purpose of the INT-USA control settings on a VHF? A. To change all VTS frequencies to Duplex so all vessels can receive maneuvering orders. B. To change all VHF channels from Duplex to Simplex while in U.S. waters. C. To change certain International Duplex channel assignments to simplex in the U.S. for VTS and other purposes. D. To change to NOAA weather channels and receive weather broadcasts while in the U.S. 1-13C2 VHF ship station transmitters must have the capability of reducing carrier power to: A. 1 watt. B. 10 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 50 watts. 1-13C3 The Dual Watch (DW) function is used to: A. Listen to Ch-70 at the same time while monitoring Ch-16. B. Sequentially monitor 4 different channels. C. Sequentially monitoring all VHF channels. D. Listen on any selected channel while periodically monitoring Ch-16. 1-13C4 Which of the following statements best describes the correct setting for manual adjustment of the squelch control? A. Adjust squelch control to the minimum level necessary to barely suppress any background noise. B. Always adjust squelch control to its maximum level. C. Always adjust squelch control to its minimum level. D. Adjust squelch control to approximately twice the minimum level necessary to barely suppress any background noise. 1-13C5 The “Scan” function is used to: A. Monitor Ch-16 continuously and switching to either Ch-70 or Ch-13 every 5 seconds. B. Scan Ch-16 for Distress calls. C. Scan Ch-70 for Distress alerts. D. Sequentially scan all or selected channels. 1-13C6 Why must all VHF Distress, Urgency and Safety communications (as well as VTS traffic calls) be performed in Simplex operating mode? A. To minimize interference from vessels engaged in routine communications. B. To ensure that vessels not directly participating in the communications can hear both sides of the radio exchange. C. To enable an RCC or Coast station to only hear communications from the vessel actually in distress. D. To allow an RCC or Coast station to determine which transmissions are from other vessels and which transmissions are from the vessel actually in distress. Answer Key: 1-13C1: C 1-13C2: A 1-13C3: D 1-13C4: A 1-13C5: D 1-13C6: B Key Topic 14: VHF Channel Selection 1-14C1 What channel must VHF-FM-equipped vessels monitor at all times when the vessel is at sea? A. Channel 8. B. Channel 16. C. Channel 5A. D. Channel 1A. 1-14C2 What is the aircraft frequency and emission used for distress communications? A. 243.000 MHz - F3E. B. 121.500 MHz - F3E. C. 156.525 MHz - F1B. D. 121.500 MHz - A3E. 1-14C3 Which VHF channel is used only for digital selective calling? A. Channel 70. B. Channel 16. C. Channel 22A. D. Channel 6. 1-14C4 Which channel is utilized for the required bridge-to-bridge watch? A. DSC on Ch-70. B. VHF-FM on Ch-16. C. VHF-FM on Ch-13 in most areas of the continental United States. D. The vessel’s VHF working frequency. 1-14C5 Which channel would most likely be used for routine ship-to-ship voice traffic? A. Ch-16. B. Ch-08. C. Ch-70. D. Ch-22A. 1-14C6 What channel would you use to place a call to a shore telephone? A. Ch-16. B. Ch-70. C. Ch-28. D. Ch-06. Answer Key: 1-14C1: B 1-14C2: D 1-14C3: A 1-14C4: C 1-14C5: B 1-14C6: C Key Topic 15: MF-HF Equipment Controls 1-15C1 Which modes could be selected to receive vessel traffic lists from high seas shore stations? A. AM and VHF-FM. B. ARQ and FEC. C. VHF-FM and SSB. D. SSB and FEC. 1-15C2 Why must all MF-HF Distress, Urgency and Safety communications take place solely on the 6 assigned frequencies and in the simplex operating mode? A. For non-GMDSS ships, to maximize the chances for other vessels to receive those communications. B. Answers a) and c) are both correct. C. For GMDSS or DSC-equipped ships, to maximize the chances for other vessels to receive those communications following the transmission of a DSC call of the correct priority. D. To enable an RCC or Coast station to only hear communications from the vessel actually in distress. 1-15C3 To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a voice call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR operations. B. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. C. Select J3E mode for proper voice operations. D. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether FEC or ARQ is preferred. 1-15C4 MF/HF transceiver power levels should be set: A. To the lowest level necessary for effective communications. B. To the level necessary to maximize the propagation radius. C. To the highest level possible so as to ensure other stations cannot “break-in” on the channel during use. D. Both a) and c) are correct. 1-15C5 To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a TELEX call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR operations. B. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. C. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether ARQ or FEC is preferred. D. None of the above. 1-15C6 What is the purpose of the Receiver Incremental Tuning (RIT) or “Clarifier” control? A. It acts as a “fine-tune” control on the receive frequency. B. It acts as a “fine-tune” control on the transmitted frequency. C. It acts as a “fine-tune” control on both the receive and transmitted frequencies. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 1-15C1: D 1-15C2: B 1-15C3: C 1-15C4: A 1-15C5: B 1-15C6: A Key Topic 16: MF-HF Frequency & Emission Selection 1-16C1 On what frequency would a vessel normally call another ship station when using a radiotelephony emission? A. Only on 2182 kHz in ITU Region 2. B. On 2182 kHz or Ch-16, unless the station knows that the called vessel maintains a simultaneous watch on another intership working frequency. C. On the appropriate calling channel of the ship station at 15 minutes past the hour. D. On the vessel’s unique working radio channel assigned by the Federal Communications Commission. 1-16C2 What is the MF radiotelephony calling and Distress frequency? A. 2670 kHz. B. Ch-06 VHF. C. 2182 kHz. D. Ch-22 VHF. 1-16C3 For general communications purposes, paired frequencies are: A. Normally used with private coast stations. B. Normally used between ship stations. C. Normally used between private coast and ship stations. D. Normally used with public coast stations. 1-16C4 What emission must be used when operating on the MF distress and calling voice frequency? A. J3E – Single sideband telephony. B. A1A – On-off keying without modulation by an audio frequency. C. F3E – Frequency modulation telephony. D. A3E – Amplitude modulation telephony, double sideband. 1-16C5 Which of the following defines high frequency “ITU Channel 1212”? A. Ch-12 in the 16 MHz band. B. Ch-1216 in the MF band. C. The 12th channel in the 12 MHz band. D. This would indicate the 1st channel in the 12 MHz band. 1-16C6 For general communications purposes, simplex frequencies are: A. Normally used between ship stations and private coast stations. B. Normally used with public coast stations. C. Normally used between ship stations. D. Both a) and c) are correct. Answer Key: 1-16C1: B 1-16C2: C 1-16C3: D 1-16C4: A 1-16C5: C 1-16C6: D Key Topic 17: Equipment Tests 1-17C1 What is the proper procedure for testing a radiotelephone installation? A. A dummy antenna must be used to insure the test will not interfere with ongoing communications. B. Transmit the station’s call sign, followed by the word “test” on the frequency being used for the test. C. Permission for the voice test must be requested and received from the nearest public coast station. D. Short tests must be confined to a single frequency and must never be conducted in port. 1-17C2 When testing is conducted on 2182 kHz or Ch-16, testing should not continue for more than ______ in any 5-minute period. A. 2 minutes. B. 1 minute. C. 30 seconds. D. 10 seconds. 1-17C3 Under GMDSS, a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at sea? A. Daily. B. Annually, by a representative of the FCC. C. Weekly. D. Monthly. 1-17C4 The best way to test the MF-HF NBDP system is? A. Make a radiotelephone call to a coast station. B. Initiate an ARQ call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. C. Initiate an FEC call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. D. Initiate an ARQ call to a Coast Station and wait for the automatic exchange of answerbacks. 1-17C5 The best way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal is? A. Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal. B. Send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation. C. Send a message to another ship terminal. D. If the “Send” light flashes, proper operation has been confirmed. 1-17C6 When may you test a radiotelephone transmitter on the air? A. Between midnight and 6:00 AM local time. B. Only when authorized by the Commission. C. At any time (except during silent periods) as necessary to assure proper operation. D. After reducing transmitter power to 1 watt. Answer Key: 1-17C1: B 1-17C2: D 1-17C3: A 1-17C4: D 1-17C5: A 1-17C6: C Key Topic 18: Equipment Faults 1-18C1 Under normal circumstances, what do you do if the transmitter aboard your ship is operating off-frequency, overmodulating or distorting? A. Reduce to low power. B. Reduce audio volume level. C. Stop transmitting. D. Make a notation in station operating log. 1-18C2 Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output? A. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, power output is indicated. B. In SITOR communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. C. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes power meter to fluctuate slightly around the 60 watt reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF Power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. 1-18C3 If a ship radio transmitter signal becomes distorted: A. Reduce transmitter power. B. Use minimum modulation. C. Cease operations. D. Reduce audio amplitude. 1-18C4 What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system? A. A constant 30 volt reading on the GMDSS console voltmeter. B. After testing the station on battery power, the ammeter reading indicates a high rate of charge that then declines. C. After testing the station on battery power, a voltmeter reading of 30 volts for brief period followed by a steady 26 volt reading. D. None of the above. 1-18C5 Your antenna tuner becomes totally inoperative. What would you do to obtain operation on both the 8 MHz and 22 MHz frequency bands? A. Without an operating antenna tuner, transmission is impossible. B. It is impossible to obtain operation on 2 different HF bands, without an operating antenna tuner. C. Bypass the antenna tuner and shorten the whip to 15 ft. D. Bypass the antenna tuner. Use a straight whip or wire antenna approximately 30 ft long. 1-18C6 Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system that must be reported to the Master, then logged appropriately. A. Much higher noise level observed during daytime operation. B. No indication of power output when speaking into the microphone. C. When testing a radiotelephone alarm on 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna, the Distress frequency watch receiver becomes unmuted, an improper testing procedure. D. Failure to contact a shore station 600 nautical miles distant during daytime operation. Answer Key: 1-18C1: C 1-18C2: B 1-18C3: C 1-18C4: A 1-18C5: D 1-18C6: B Subelement D – Other Equipment: 6 Key Topics, 6 Exam Questions Key Topic 19: Antennas 1-19D1 What are the antenna requirements of a VHF telephony coast, maritime utility or ship station? A. The shore or on-board antenna must be vertically polarized. B. The antenna array must be type-accepted for 30-200 MHz operation by the FCC. C. The horizontally-polarized antenna must be positioned so as not to cause excessive interference to other stations. D. The antenna must be capable of being energized by an output in excess of 100 watts. 1-19D2 What is the antenna requirement of a radiotelephone installation aboard a passenger vessel? A. The antenna must be located a minimum of 15 meters from the radiotelegraph antenna. B. The antenna must be vertically polarized and as non-directional and efficient as is practicable for the transmission and reception of ground waves over seawater. C. An emergency reserve antenna system must be provided for communications on 156.800 MHz. D. All antennas must be tested and the operational results logged at least once during each voyage. 1-19D3 What is the most common type of antenna for GMDSS VHF? A. Horizontally polarized circular antenna. B. Long wire antenna. C. Both of the above. D. None of the above. 1-19D4 What is the purpose of the antenna tuner? A. It alters the electrical characteristics of the antenna to match the frequency in use. B. It physically alters the length of the antenna to match the frequency in use. C. It makes the antenna look like a half-wave antenna at the frequency in use. D. None of the above. 1-19D5 What advantage does a vertical whip have over a long wire? A. It radiates more signal fore and aft. B. It radiates equally well in all directions. C. It radiates a strong signal vertically. D. None of the above. 1-19D6 A vertical whip antenna has a radiation pattern best described by? A. A figure eight. B. A cardioid. C. A circle. D. An ellipse. Answer Key: 1-19D1: A 1-19D2: B 1-19D3: D 1-19D4: A 1-19D5: B 1-19D6: C Key Topic 20: Power Sources 1-20D1 For a small passenger vessel inspection, reserve power batteries must be tested: A. At intervals not exceeding every 3 months. B. At intervals not exceeding every 6 months C. Before any new voyage D. At intervals not exceeding 12 months, or during the inspection. 1-20D2 What are the characteristics of the Reserve Source of Energy under GMDSS? A. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time. B. Cannot be independent of the propelling power of the ship. C. Must be independent of the ship’s electrical system when the RSE is needed to supply power to the GMDSS equipment. D. Must be incorporated into the ship’s electrical system. 1-20D3 Which of the following terms is defined as a back-up power source that provides power to radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications when the vessel’s main and emergency generators cannot? A. Emergency Diesel Generator. B. Reserve Source of Energy. C. Reserve Source of Diesel Power. D. Emergency Back-up Generator. 1-20D4 In the event of failure of the main and emergency sources of electrical power, what is the term for the source required to supply the GMDSS console with power for conducting distress and other radio communications? A. Emergency power. B. Ship’s emergency diesel generator. C. Reserve source of energy. D. Ship’s standby generator 1-20D5 What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? A. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries). B. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications. C. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a distress alert. D. All newly constructed ships under GMDSS must have both emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications. 1-20D6 What is the meaning of “Reserve Source of Energy”? A. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship’s main and emergency sources of electrical power. B. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. C. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements. D. None of these. Answer Key: 1-20D1: D 1-20D2: C 1-20D3: B 1-20D4: C 1-20D5: D 1-20D6: A Key Topic 21: EPIRBs 1-21D1 What is an EPIRB? A. A battery-operated emergency position-indicating radio beacon that floats free of a sinking ship. B. An alerting device notifying mariners of imminent danger. C. A satellite-based maritime distress and safety alerting system. D. A high-efficiency audio amplifier. 1-21D2 When are EPIRB batteries changed? A. After emergency use; after battery life expires. B. After emergency use or within the month and year replacement date printed on the EPIRB. C. After emergency use; every 12 months when not used. D. Whenever voltage drops to less than 20% of full charge. 1-21D3 If a ship sinks, what device is designed to float free of the mother ship, is turned on automatically and transmits a distress signal? A. An emergency position indicating radio beacon. B. EPIRB on 2182 kHz and 405.025 kHz. C. Bridge-to-bridge transmitter on 2182 kHz. D. Auto alarm keyer on any frequency. 1-21D4 How do you cancel a false EPIRB distress alert? A. Transmit a DSC distress alert cancellation. B. Transmit a broadcast message to “all stations” canceling the distress message. C. Notify the Coast Guard or rescue coordination center at once. D. Make a radiotelephony “distress cancellation” transmission on 2182 kHz. 1-21D5 What is the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. A global satellite communications system for users in the maritime, land and aeronautical mobile services. B. An international satellite-based search and rescue system. C. A broadband military satellite communications network. D. A Wide Area Geostationary Satellite program (WAGS). 1-21D6 What is an advantage of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. It is compatible with the COSPAS-SARSAT Satellites and Global Maritime Distress Safety System (GMDSS) regulations. B. Provides a fast, accurate method for the Coast Guard to locating and rescuing persons in distress. C. Includes a digitally encoded message containing the ship’s identity and nationality. D. All of the above. Answer Key: 1-21D1: A 1-21D2: B 1-21D3: A 1-21D4: C 1-21D5: B 1-21D6: D Key Topic 22: SARTs 1-22D1 In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 3 GHz. B. S-band. C. 406 MHz. D. 9 GHz. 1-22D2 How should the signal from a Search And Rescue Radar Transponder appear on a RADAR display? A. A series of dashes. B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART. C. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. D. A series of twenty dashes. 1-22D3 What is the purpose of the SART’s audible tone alarm? A. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby. B. It informs survivors when the battery’s charge condition has weakened. C. It informs survivors when the SART switches to the “standby” mode. D. It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signaling on DSC. 1-22D4 Which statement is true regarding the SART? A. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one S-band navigational RADAR system. B. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by another vessel’s S-band navigational RADAR system. C. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one X-band navigational RADAR system. D. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by vessel’s X-band navigational RADAR system. 1-22D5 At what point does a SART begin transmitting? A. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the “on” position. B. It must be manually activated. C. If it has been placed in the “on” position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz RADAR signal. D. If it has been placed in the “on” position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in water. 1-22D6 How can a SART’s effective range be maximized? A. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation. B. The SART should be held as high as possible. C. Switch the SART into the “high” power position. D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching RADAR signal. Answer Key: 1-22D1: D 1-22D2: C 1-22D3: A 1-22D4: D 1-22D5: C 1-22D6: B Key Topic 23: Survival Craft VHF 1-23D1 Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 watts. C. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. 1-23D2 Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Operation on Ch-13. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. C. Simplex voice communications only. D. Operation on Ch-16. 1-23D3 With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate? A. Communication is permitted between survival craft. B. Communication is permitted between survival craft and ship. C. Communication is permitted between survival craft and rescue unit. D. All of the above. 1-23D4 Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on Ch-16. B. Operation on 457.525 MHz. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Any one of these. 1-23D5 Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristic(s)? A. Operation on Ch-16. B. Watertight. C. Permanently-affixed antenna. D. All of these. 1-23D6 What is the minimum power of the SCT A. Five watts. B. One watt. C. 1/4 watt. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 1-23D1: C 1-23D2: A 1-23D3: D 1-23D4: A 1-23D5: D 1-23D6: B Key Topic 24: NAVTEX 1-24D1 NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. Immediately following traffic lists. B. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. C. On request of maritime mobile stations. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. 1-24D2 MSI can be obtained by one (or more) of the following: A. NAVTEX. B. SafetyNET. C. HF NBDP. D. All of the above. 1-24D3 Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 518 kHz. B. 2187.5 kHz. C. 4209.5 kHz. D. VHF channel 16 when the vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2. 1-24D4 What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system? A. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours. B. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. C. Programming the receiver to reject unwanted broadcasts. D. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours. 1-24D5 When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range? A. Local noontime. B. Middle of the night. C. Sunset. D. Post sunrise. 1-24D6 What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations? A. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore. B. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime. C. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km). D. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km). Answer Key: 1-24D1: B 1-24D2: D 1-24D3: A 1-24D4: C 1-24D5: B 1-24D6: C [END OF PROPOSED 2009 FCC COMMERCIAL ELEMENT 1 QUESTION POOL] share/E6/0000775000175000017500000000000012527170133010605 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E6/6A2860000664000175000017500000000035712527170605011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A286 A A discharged storage battery of 3 cells has an open circuit voltage of 1.8 V per cell and an internal resistance of 0.1 ohm per cell. What voltage is needed to give an initial charging rate of 10 A? A.8.4 V B.10 V C.15 V D.12.5 V share/E6/6A5590000664000175000017500000000042112527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A559 D Upon compulsorily equipped vessels which are required to have an accurate clock in the radio room, how frequently must this clock be adjusted and be compared with standard time? A.Every three hours B.Ever four hours C.Every six hours D.At least once every 24 hours share/E6/6A2930000664000175000017500000000060012527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A293 A If an electrolyte in a lead-acid storage cell becomes low due to evaporation: A.The level should be brought to about 1/4 inch above the tops of the plates with pure water B.The level should be brought to about 1/4 inch above the tops of the plates with tap water C.The level should be brought to about 1/4 inch above the tops of the plates with salt water D.None of the above share/E6/6A3900000664000175000017500000000055012527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A390 D Important factors in the operation of the vacuum tube as a frequency doubler are: A.Plate tank should be tuned to twice the grid circuit frequency B.The grid bias should be very large, the grid driving voltage must be very large, the plate voltage should be comparatively high C.The plate tank circuit should have a low C to L ratio D.All of the above share/E6/6A3940000664000175000017500000000046412527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A394 D Excessive plate current of an RF amplifier may be caused by: A.Plate-tank circuit off resonance, defective tube B.Excessive loading of plate tank, insufficient bias, parasitic oscillations C.Excessive plate and screen voltage, excessive excitation voltage, improper neutralization D.All of the above share/E6/6A4890000664000175000017500000000030112527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A489 D What type of radio receiver do not respond to static interference? A.AM receivers are less responsive B.FM receivers have better sensitivity to such interference C.Both AM & FM D.B & C share/E6/6A2950000664000175000017500000000046612527170605011250 0ustar jtnjtn6A295 D Your emergency battery has a specific gravity reading of 1.120. What should be done? A.Place the battery on charge at once B.Bring the electrolyte level to about 1/4 inch above the top of the plates C.The battery will be fully charged when the specific gravity reads 1.280 to 1.300 D.All of the above share/E6/6A5310000664000175000017500000000047612527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A531 A What is the meaning of "zero beat" as used in connection with frequency measuring equipment? A.Zero beat occurs when two frequencies are being mixed together and have no difference frequency between them B.To achieve this the frequencies must be suppressed C.The transmitter must be nulled D.None of the above share/E6/6A670000664000175000017500000000020612527170605011155 0ustar jtnjtn6A67 A What is the maximum current carrying capacity of a resistor of 5000 ohms, 200 watts? A.0.2 A B.1 A C.1.2 A D.None of the above share/E6/6A1490000664000175000017500000000020012527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A149 A The presence of gas within a tube is indicated: A.By a blue glow B.By a red glow C.By a yellow glow D.None of the above share/E6/6A470000664000175000017500000000034612527170605011160 0ustar jtnjtn6A47 C The difference between electrical power and electrical energy is: A.Electrical power is the rate of doing work by electricity B.Electrical energy is the ability to accomplish work by electricity C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5050000664000175000017500000000070112527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A505 A The auto-alarm signal is: A.Four consecutive dashes from C.5 to D.5 seconds, separated by spaces ranging from 0.1 to 0.5 seconds. The combination may not exceed 5 seconds B.Three consecutive dashes from D.5 to 5.5 seconds, separated by spaces ranging from 0.5 to A.0 seconds C.Five consecutive dashes from B.5-3.5 seconds, separated by spaces ranging from 0.01 to 0.25 seconds. The combination may not exceed 5 seconds D.None of the above share/E6/6A2220000664000175000017500000000045312527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A222 C Why do headphones usually have high-impedance windings? A.They can usually be operated without an impedance matching transformer B.They represent a closer match to the plate load impedance for the tube delivering necessary driving power than low impedance planes C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2170000664000175000017500000000043212527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A217 A In connecting head telephones directly in the plate circuit of a vacuum tube one should observe the proper polarity: A.To maintain maximum sensitivity in the headphones B.So its current flows opposed to the field strength of the permanent magnet C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1090000664000175000017500000000016412527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A109 B What is the reactance of a 2-henry choke at 3000 Hz? A.5300 ohms B.37,680 ohms C.376,800 ohms D.53,000 ohms share/E6/6A3000000664000175000017500000000027512527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A300 B How would you connect a group of similar cells in a storage battery to obtain the maximum no-bond output voltage? A.In parallel B.In series C.In series/parallel D.None of the above share/E6/6A5830000664000175000017500000000044412527170605011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A583 B After a distress call has been transmitted, every distress-traffic radiotelegram shall contain what symbol in the preamble? A.SOS followed by the call signal B.The distress signal preceding the call and repeated at the beginning of the preamble C.All of the above D.None of the above share/E6/6A2700000664000175000017500000000034112527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A270 D If the polarity is reversed when charging a storage cell: A.No damage in a lead-acid cell unless excessive B.Damage in an Edison-cell C.No damage in an Edison-cell if temperatures below 115 degrees Fahrenheit D.A & C share/E6/6A2360000664000175000017500000000040412527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A236 C Even harmonics may be reduced in the output of an audio frequency amplifier: A.By operating the state push-pull B.In a single tube amplifier, by operating the stage only on the linear part of the tube's characteristic curve C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2470000664000175000017500000000021312527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A247 D Primary cells: A.Can be recharged B.Cannot be recharged C.An attempt to recharge it would not restore the eroded electrode D.B & D share/E6/6A1380000664000175000017500000000047212527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A138 D Factors which determine bios voltage of a vacuum tube: A.Class of operation, plate supply voltage, permissible distortion B.Grid signal magnitude, permissible plate dissipation, desired amplification factor C.The no-signal plate current desired, the desirability of drawing grid current D.All of the above share/E6/6A2210000664000175000017500000000040712527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A221 C How may low impedance (75 ohm) head telephones be connected to the output of a vacuum tube? A.By using an impedance matching transformer in the output stage B.Connect them as a cathode bias resistor in the output stage C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2240000664000175000017500000000040212527170605011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A224 D Why is correct grid bias necessary for audio frequency amplifier? A.To minimize distortion B.To set the operating conditions for determining the class of amplifications C.So as not to exceed the rated plate dissipation of the tube D.All of the above share/E6/6A1170000664000175000017500000000022312527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A117 B The ratio of magnetic flux density to the field strength is known as: A.Residual magnetism B.Permeability C.Reluctance D.None of the above share/E6/6A840000664000175000017500000000020212527170605011150 0ustar jtnjtn6A84 A The wavelength of the period of one complete cycle of a radio wave of 0.000,001 second is: A.300 M B.3000 M C.30 M D.70 cm share/E6/6A5220000664000175000017500000000054312527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A522 D What is indicated if a voltmeter connected between the negative side of a ship's DC line and ground reads the full line voltage? A.It indicates that the voltmeter leads are reversed B.This indicates that the positive side of the line, rather then the negative side is grounded C.The generator terminals should be reversed D.Both B & C are correct share/E6/6A900000664000175000017500000000024312527170605011152 0ustar jtnjtn6A90 C One wave-length is: A.The distance a wave will travel in the time for one cycle B.Centimeter wavelength = 30,000 / frequency MHz C.A and B D.Neither A or B share/E6/6A4710000664000175000017500000000035012527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A471 D To obtain maximum response to weak CW signals with a superheterodyne receiver: A.RF gain control should be fully advanced B.BFO control varied to obtain the clearest tone C.AVC advanced to the best volume D.All of the above share/E6/6A130000664000175000017500000000014312527170605011144 0ustar jtnjtn6A13 C The unit of electrical power is: A.Watt B.Joule per second C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2900000664000175000017500000000026112527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A290 A If a battery has 12.4 V on open circuit and 12.2 V when its charging circuit is closed: A.Could have polarity reversed B.Could be overloaded C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2330000664000175000017500000000033412527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A233 A Why is it necessary to use two tubes in a Class B audio amplifier? A.To prevent the excessive distortion which would result from the use of only one tube in Class B B.To eliminate hum C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3320000664000175000017500000000023612527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A332 C ____ are used in a DC motor to reduce brush sparking without moving the brushes: A.Interpoles B.Commutating poles C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1650000664000175000017500000000024312527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A165 C Plate current flows for less than 180 degrees (about 120 degrees when the grid bias is about twice cutoff value) in what class amplifier? A.A B.B C.C D.AB share/E6/6A1100000664000175000017500000000037512527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A110 B If there is no resistance in either leg of a circuit with an inductance of 5 henrys in parallel with a capacitance of 1 microfarad, what is the equivalent impedance of the parallel network circuit? A.Zero B.Infinite C.Median D.None of the above share/E6/6A5350000664000175000017500000000026212527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A535 D What figure represents the reception pattern of a properly adjusted unilateral radio direction finder? A.A cardioid B.A figure eight C.A heart shaped figure D.Both A & C share/E6/6A2520000664000175000017500000000036512527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A252 D "A", "B", and "C" batteries are alike, but specifically constructed for a particular function. Explain: A."B" battery is for plate and screen power B."C" battery for grid bias voltage C."A" battery for filament power D.All of the above share/E6/6A3790000664000175000017500000000043712527170605011251 0ustar jtnjtn6A379 A What can be done in a Heising modulation system to obtain 100% modulation? A.Use a series resistor between the amplifier and modulator in the DC plate supply B.Nothing needs to be done C.Use a series capacitor between amplifier and modulator in the DC grid supply D.Both A and C share/E6/6A1990000664000175000017500000000043712527170605011251 0ustar jtnjtn6A199 A If the dielectric constants of a capacitor dielectric material between the capacitor plates were changed from 1 to 1: A.The capacitance would be twice its original value B.The capacitance would be half its original value C.The capacitance would decay rapidly D.None of the above share/E6/6A2730000664000175000017500000000036412527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A273 D Distilled water should be added to a lead-acid storage cell: A.To keep the electrolyte 1/4 inch above the to of the plates B.To keep the useful plate area sufficient to maintain the full capacity of the cell C.None of the above D.A & B share/E6/6A4050000664000175000017500000000045312527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A405 C What effect does excessive coupling between the output circuit of an oscillator and an antenna have? A.The effect of cross-modulation of nearby frequencies B.Instability of the oscillator and feedback op-amp C.The oscillator will be very unstable D.Frequency discrimination will be unstable share/E6/6A4690000664000175000017500000000073612527170605011253 0ustar jtnjtn6A469 A A superheterodyne receiver may not successfully be used for reception of frequencies very near the IF frequency: A.Because those near frequencies would pass directly through the IF amplifier and not be greatly affected by the tuning of the RF or oscillator stages B.Because those near frequencies would not pass directly through the IF amplifier C.Because those near frequencies would be greatly affected by the tuning of the RF or oscillator stages D.None of the above share/E6/6A3730000664000175000017500000000020212527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A373 B Modulation occurring in an RF stage other than the final power amplifier: A.High level B.Low level C.Pre-emphasis D.Plate share/E6/6A5070000664000175000017500000000046512527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A507 D With an auto alarm that uses a square-law detector and a mechanical selector what causes the bell to ring? A.Receipt of the true auto-alarm signal, low battery voltage B.Filament circuit open, the 24 V circuit to receiver open C.Battery charger fuse blown, motor stopped or running D.All of the above share/E6/6A20000664000175000017500000000063312527170605011066 0ustar jtnjtn6A2 D Weather information is commonly sent by radio in map form by one-way facsimile transmission. Two common parameters which must be set by the receiving station are: A.Lines-per-inch (LPI), and primary scan direction (PSD) B.Frequency shift (FS), and phase response pattern (PRP) C.Black-mode signal (BMS), and frequency jitter tolerance (FJT) D.Index of cooperation (IOC), and revolutions per minute (RPM) share/E6/6A240000664000175000017500000000030112527170605011142 0ustar jtnjtn6A24 C Decibel is: A.The unit used to express the ratio between two sound power levels B.The unit used to express the ratio between two electrical power levels C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1220000664000175000017500000000044112527170605011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A122 C What will be the effect of a small increase in the number of turns upon the field strength of a single layer solenoid? A.Decrease in field strength if the coil length is increased B.Unchanged if the spacing is reduced to keep the length constant C.Both A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A480000664000175000017500000000027212527170605011157 0ustar jtnjtn6A48 C A positive temperature coefficient means: A.Resistance increases as the temperature increases B.Resistance decreases as the temperature decreases C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A550000664000175000017500000000026612527170605011160 0ustar jtnjtn6A55 A An "harmonic" is: A.A whole multiple of an original frequency B.The heating value of an RF current C.The internal impedance of a power source D.A multiple of the power factor share/E6/6A3120000664000175000017500000000032012527170605011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A312 D If a 500 Hz transformer is connected to a 60 Hz source of the same voltage: A.The primary would draw excessive current B.The transformer would overheat C.The primary might burn out D.All of the above share/E6/6A2830000664000175000017500000000015512527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A283 A What form of energy is stored in a lead-acid storage battery? A.Chemical B.Mechanical C.Heat D.Light share/E6/6A4720000664000175000017500000000025412527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A472 A Most receiver hiss is due to: A.Noise generated in the first detector B.Noise generated in the first AF amplifier C.Faulty regeneration control D.None of the above share/E6/6A3220000664000175000017500000000016112527170605011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A322 A The most common values of chokes range from: A.5 H to 30 H B.30 H-100 H C.1 H to 100 H D.100 H to 1000 H share/E6/6A1030000664000175000017500000000031312527170605011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A103 A What is the resonant frequency of a tuned circuit consisting of a 500 picofarad capacitor, a 150 microfarad tuning coil, and 10 ohms resistance? A.581 kHz B.753 kHz C.498 kHz D.None of the above share/E6/6A4530000664000175000017500000000036012527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A453 C Why suppress RF harmonics in the output of a transmitter? A.To prevent interference from occurring with other radio services B.To restrict the bandwidth of the particular station to the legal limits C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5810000664000175000017500000000026712527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A581 C Explain the use and meaning of the following indicator or prefix "RP" on radiotelegrams: A.Please reply B.Repeat following parts of message C."Reply paid" D.None of the above share/E6/6A4160000664000175000017500000000053412527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A416 A Keying a simple-oscillator type of emergency transmitter may be accomplished by: A.Inserting the key in series with the primary of the high voltage plate transformer B.Inserting the key in parallel with the primary of the high voltage plate transformer C.Inserting the key in series with the final output to the antenna D.None of the above share/E6/6A5490000664000175000017500000000052212527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A549 A During daytime hours, approximately what is the maximum distance in nautical miles from LORAN transmitting stations from which LORAN lines of position can be determined? A.About 700 miles B.During nighttime hours, the maximum distance is increased to about 1800 miles by the use of sky waves C.About 1000 miles D.About 1500 miles share/E6/6A2970000664000175000017500000000034712527170605011250 0ustar jtnjtn6A297 D If the circuit breakers refuse to stay closed when you place the emergency batteries on charge, what is the trouble? A.Internally shorted cells B.Reversed charging polarity C.Grounded circuit connections D.Any of the above share/E6/6A2780000664000175000017500000000020112527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A278 D What may be used to neutralize an acid electrolyte? A.Ammonium hydroxide B.Baking soda C.Washing soda D.All of the above share/E6/6A2530000664000175000017500000000037412527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A253 D The condition of a dry "B" battery may be determined: A.By measuring the voltage under normal load B.By measuring the voltage under no load C.A loss of 20 % of the voltage under normal load indicates that the battery should be replaced D.A & C share/E6/6A4650000664000175000017500000000041212527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A465 D A tuned RF amplifier stage ahead of the mixer stage in a superheterodyne receiver: A.Improves receiver sensitivity, improves image rejection B.Improves selectivity, improves stability C.Improves signal-to-noise ratio, reduced interference D.All of the above share/E6/6A3560000664000175000017500000000031712527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A356 C What is the primary reason for the use of a crystal controlled oscillator for use as a transmitter? A.No cross-modulation B.Increase in gain C.Frequency stability D.Impedance gain and wider bandpass share/E6/6A1530000664000175000017500000000035412527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A153 A If a DC filament supply is used, it is advisable to periodically reverse the polarity of the filament potential: A.To lengthen the life of the filament B.To lengthen the life of the power source C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2890000664000175000017500000000032612527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A289 D Abnormally low input power terminal voltage of a lifeboat radiotelegraph transmitter while in operation could be caused by: A.Reversed polarity B.Excessive overload C.A partially discharged battery D.B & C share/E6/6A800000664000175000017500000000027212527170605011153 0ustar jtnjtn6A80 D If a turn in an inductor is shorted: A.There will be an decrease of induction B.There will be a decrease of Q C.There will be overheating with possible burnout D.All of the above share/E6/6A5620000664000175000017500000000044412527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A562 B What time system shell be used in making log entries with respect to the observance of the international silent period? A.Zulu time according to the twelve hour system B.Greenwich Mean Time according to the 24 hour system C.Zulu time according to the 12 hour time D.None of the above share/E6/6A5530000664000175000017500000000057412527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A553 C In all cases other than those in which the transmitter output must be maintained at a fixed value, what amount of power should be employed for routine communications? A.The maximum amount of power to maintain communications B.The transmitter must be maintained at a fixed value C.The minimum amount of power necessary to ensure reliable communications D.None of the above share/E6/6A3640000664000175000017500000000030712527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A364 A What effect would insufficient radio-frequency excitation have on Class C modulated amplifier output? A.A negative carrier shift B.A positive carrier shift C.Both A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3810000664000175000017500000000032312527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A381 A What value of sinusoidal audio power is required to insure 100% modulation when the DC plate input to a modulated Class C amplifier has an efficiency of 60 % , and is 200 W? A.100 W B.50 W C.25 W D.12 W share/E6/6A1740000664000175000017500000000026312527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A174 A A diode detector ordinarily produces ____ overall distortion of the audio output wave than does a triode detector: A.Lower B.Higher C.Practically the same D.Either A or B share/E6/6A3980000664000175000017500000000050612527170605011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A398 A An RF filter in the plate circuit of a tube detector is sometimes necessary to: A.Prevent RF variations from affecting the following audio stages B.Alter the impedance of the detector load circuit C.Insert RF variations from affecting the audio stages D.To prevent RF variations from affecting the following RF stages share/E6/6A750000664000175000017500000000027512527170605011162 0ustar jtnjtn6A75 C A capacitor's charge is stored: A.Upon the inner surface of the capacitor plates B.As an electrostatic field which exists in the space between the plates C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3710000664000175000017500000000025012527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A371 D The bias of a grid-modulated R-F stage is adjusted: A.Below cut-off frequency B.At grid saturation C.At bias D.1 and half to 3 times plate current cutoff value share/E6/6A1320000664000175000017500000000015112527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A132 A Thoriated tungsten is usually used to make: A.Filaments B.Heaters C.Cathodes D.None of the above share/E6/6A6030000664000175000017500000000053512527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A603 A How often must a radiotelegraph station transmit its call sign when a transmission is maintained for more than 20 minutes in the band 405-525 kHz? A.At 20 minute intervals B.At least every 10 minutes C.At 15 minute intervals unless public correspondence is in progress D.At the beginning and end of each communication with any other station share/E6/6A790000664000175000017500000000024512527170605011163 0ustar jtnjtn6A79 B How many capacitors of 400 volts and 2 microfarad each would be necessary to obtain a combination rated at 1600 volts and 1.5 microfarad? A.10 B.12 C.14 D.16 share/E6/6A620000664000175000017500000000037212527170605011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A62 B If the voltage to a circuit is doubled and the resistance is increased to three times the original value, what will be the final current? A.1/3 the original current B.2/3 the original current C.3 times the original current D.None of the above share/E6/6A570000664000175000017500000000033012527170605011152 0ustar jtnjtn6A57 D When two sine waves of the same frequency do not reach their maximum or minimum values simultaneously: A.A phase difference exists B.A phase difference does not exist C.The sign waves are out of phase D.A & C share/E6/6A2010000664000175000017500000000040412527170605011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A201 D Permanent magnets used in head telephones: A.Place the diaphragms under tension so that the sensitivity of the telephones will be increased B.Improve the frequency response C.Prevents production of second harmonics in the telephones D.All of the above share/E6/6A780000664000175000017500000000024712527170605011164 0ustar jtnjtn6A78 A If capacitors of 3, 5, and 7 microfarad are connected in parallel, what is the total capacitance? A.9 microfarad B.15 microfarad C.10 microfarad D.3 microfarad share/E6/6A2100000664000175000017500000000023212527170605011222 0ustar jtnjtn6A210 A The best suited material for use as an antenna strain insulator exposed to the elements: A.Glazed porcelain B.Glass C.Graphite composite D.Rubber share/E6/6A290000664000175000017500000000023012527170605011150 0ustar jtnjtn6A29 A The formula for finding power in a DC circuit when current and voltage are known: A.P = EI B.P = ( I squared ) R C.PF = W/IE D.None of the above share/E6/6A2500000664000175000017500000000025412527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A250 D A dry cell may be tested: A.Must be tested under normal load condition B.May be tested under no load condition C.May be taken by any conventional voltmeter D.A & C share/E6/6A4950000664000175000017500000000033512527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A495 C By-pass capacitors across the cathode-bias resistors of an RF amplifier: A.Prevent variations of bias during excitation of the amplifier B.Results in better gain of the amplifier stage C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2650000664000175000017500000000014412527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A265 C The average fully charged voltage of a lead-acid cell is: A.1.0 V B.1.56 V C.2.06 V D.2.5 V share/E6/6A1790000664000175000017500000000040312527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A179 C What currents will be indicated by a milliammeter connected between the center top of the filament transformer of a tetrode and negative high voltage? A.Plate current B.Screen grid current C.Combined plate and screen grid currents D.None of the above share/E6/6A3700000664000175000017500000000051312527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A370 C When the first speech-amplifier of a transmitter were overexcited, but the modulation capabilities were not exceeded what would be the effect on the output? A.The waveform would be sawtooth causing undermodulation B.The waveform would be square wave creating cross-modulation C.The output would be distorted D.Both A and C share/E6/6A3850000664000175000017500000000043312527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A385 D A shunt-fed plate circuit of a vacuum tube amplifier has a short circuit of the plate RF choke. What happens? A.The plate tank circuit would be effectively shorted B.The DC plate current would increase, possibly to excess C.No RF output could be expected D.All of the above share/E6/6A5360000664000175000017500000000036512527170605011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A536 C From how many simultaneous directions is a direction finder capable of receiving signals if adjusted to take unilateral bearings through 360 degrees? A.From 360 degrees B.From 180 degrees C.From all but one direction D.None of the above share/E6/6A4480000664000175000017500000000040012527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A448 C Communication at frequencies in the order of 15 kHz are usually accomplished by ground waves, and require generation of ____ power outputs for reliable and continuous operation: A.High power B.Low power C.Extremely high power D.Extremely low power share/E6/6A3650000664000175000017500000000013212527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A365 B The second harmonic of a 380 kHz frequency is: A.1520 kHz B.760 kHz C.190 kHz D.2 share/E6/6A5090000664000175000017500000000040212527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A509 D An open filament on an auto-alarm with a linear detector and an electronic selector will: A.De-energize the restore relay K-105 B.K105 applies voltage to K-100, time delay relay C.K106 causes the bell to ring after about 2 minutes D.All of the above share/E6/6A760000664000175000017500000000057412527170605011165 0ustar jtnjtn6A76 D The voltage drop across an individual capacitor of a group of capacitors connected in series across an AC source is: A.Inversely proportional to the ratio of the capacitance of the capacitor being considered B.Inversely proportional to the total capacitance of the combination C.Directly proportional to the applied voltage across the series combination D.All of the above share/E6/6A3960000664000175000017500000000037512527170605011251 0ustar jtnjtn6A396 A The degree of coupling is varied in a pi-network used to transfer energy from a vacuum tube plate circuit to an antenna: A.By adjusting the series capacitors B.By adjusting the tank capacitors C.By changing the plate voltage D.None of the above share/E6/6A2640000664000175000017500000000043612527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A264 D Decrease in capacity of an Edison-type storage cell can be caused by: A.Frequent overheating, and operating conditions over 115 degrees fahrenheit B.Charging at less than the normal rate C.Adding impure water to the electrolyte, or a weak or aged electrolyte D.All of the above share/E6/6A3490000664000175000017500000000025012527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A349 B What is the line current of a 7 HP motor operating on 120 V at full load, a power factor of 0.8, and 95% efficiency? A.56 A B.57.2 A C.58 A D.None of the above share/E6/6A4620000664000175000017500000000030612527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A462 A Modulation of an RF carrier produces in the plate circuit of the last radio stage of the system: A.High-level modulation B.Low-level modulation C.Medium-level modulation D.None of the above share/E6/6A5140000664000175000017500000000037112527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A514 D Harmonic radiation by a transmitter may be prevented: A.By using a suitable crystal filter B.By using a Faraday shield between the final amplifier and antenna circuit C.By using suitable tuned filters in the transmission line system D.B & C share/E6/6A4780000664000175000017500000000042312527170605011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A478 D Advantages of a stage of RF amplification are: A.Improved sensitivity, improved signal-to-noise ratio B.Improved selectivity, improved signal-to-noise ratio C.Improved signal-to-noise ratio, more efficient and more stable operation of the detector D.All of the above share/E6/6A5900000664000175000017500000000065312527170605011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A590 D What is the license term of the First Class Radiotelegraph Operator License? A.The license is valid for the lifetime of the holder B.A license is valid for a period of ten years form the DOI (date of issuance) C.The five year term license is renewable by retaking updated exam Elements 1 and 3 during the last 90 days before expiration D.The license term is five years and may be renewed indefinitely without retesting share/E6/6A3200000664000175000017500000000017312527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A320 A Voltage regulation is ____ with a high resistance choke: A.Made worse B.Made better C.The same D.None of the above share/E6/6A1010000664000175000017500000000036212527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A101 C How may the Q of a parallel resonant circuit be increased? A.Increasing coupling to the resonant circuit B.Using coil and capacitor supports of special low - loss materials C.Both A and B D.Decreasing coupling to the resonant circuit share/E6/6A4980000664000175000017500000000052612527170605011252 0ustar jtnjtn6A498 B An auxiliary receiving antenna on a ship with a radio direction finder: A.Is mainly a spare antenna B.Enables the radio operator to maintain watch on 500 kHz whether or not the direction finder is in use C.Enables the radio operator to use the direction finder whether or not the communications receiver is in use D.None of the above share/E6/6A5910000664000175000017500000000107312527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A591 B What is a requirement of every commercial operator on duty and in charge of a transmitting system? A.A copy of the Proof-of-Passing Certificate (PPC) must be on display at the transmitter location B.The original license or a photocopy must be posted or in the operator's personal possession and available for inspection C.The FCC Form 756 certifying the operator's qualifications must be readily available at the transmitting system site D.A copy of the operator's license must be supplied to the radio station's supervisor as evidence of technical qualification share/E6/6A1040000664000175000017500000000044312527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A104 A What is voltage regulation as applied to power supplies? A.The ratio of change in voltage between no load and full load to the full-load voltage output B.The ratio of output to input voltage C.Voltage output of the power supply under full load D.The ratio of input to output voltage share/E6/6A1340000664000175000017500000000035512527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A134 B When free electrons in a conductor acquire sufficient energy to leave the conductor and pass into the surrounding space, it is expressed as: A.Secondary emission B.Electron emission C.Primary electron release D.None of the above share/E6/6A5470000664000175000017500000000052312527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A547 A What is the relationship between a master and a slave station in reference to LORAN navigation systems? A.A master station originates the RF pulse which then travels in all directions and is intercepted by the slave station B.The slave station originates the RF pulse C.There must be at least two slave stations D.All of the above share/E6/6A30000664000175000017500000000073312527170605011070 0ustar jtnjtn6A3 A 2182 kHz is the international radiotelephone distress frequency. It is also used for a calling channel. The authorized mode of emission is H3E (single-sideband full carrier). A3E (double-sideband full carrier) is only authorized for equipment: A.Solely intended for distress and safety communications B.Built and sold after the GMDSS implementation date C.Built and sold before the GMDSS implementation date D.Solely intended for ship-to-shore public correspondence share/E6/6A4500000664000175000017500000000037312527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A450 A On an average yearly basis the received Trans-Atlantic signals increased in strength in proportion to the degree of ____. Made on the basis of the 11 year cycle: A.Sun spot activity B.Aurora borealis C.Extratropical Advection D.Perigean tide share/E6/6A4320000664000175000017500000000054112527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A432 C The correct formula for determining the surge impedance of a quarter wavelength matching line is: A.Impedance total equal 0.25 over 1 squared B.Impedance total equal impedance of the antenna times impedance of the line squared over 1 times C.14 C.Impedance zero equal impedance of antenna times impedance of the line squared D.None of the above share/E6/6A5850000664000175000017500000000026212527170605011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A585 B What is the principal port of the United States, on the Pacific coast, at which navigation lines terminate? A.Los Angeles B.San Francisco C.San Diego D.None of the above share/E6/6A2480000664000175000017500000000022312527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A248 D Secondary cells: A.Can be recharged B.Cannot be recharged C.The products of the chemical change are not soluble in the electrolyte D.A & C share/E6/6A3750000664000175000017500000000034112527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A375 C Does grid current flow in a grid-bias modulated stage under modulated conditions? A.Grid current may exist during the positive porions of the AF cycle B.Grid current may cause distortion C.A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2320000664000175000017500000000033012527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A232 A What is the DC plate voltage of a resistance-coupled amplifier state with a plate-supply voltage of 260 V, a plate current of 1 mA, and a plate load resistance of 100,000 ohms? A.160 V B.100 V C.200 V D.60 V share/E6/6A4250000664000175000017500000000045512527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A425 A To reduce the sparking at the contacts of a key used in a radiotelegraph transmitter: A.Connect a suitable key-click filter across the key B.Connect a suitable key-click filter in series with the key C.Connect a suitable high-pass filter across the key D.Increase the contact space of the key share/E6/6A960000664000175000017500000000031312527170605011156 0ustar jtnjtn6A96 C Power factor is defined as: A.The ratio between the resistance and the impedance in a circuit B.The ratio between the true power and the apparent power of a circuit C.Both A&B D.None of the above share/E6/6A730000664000175000017500000000030712527170605011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A73 C Given: Input power to a receiver is 75 watts. How much power does the receiver consume in 24 hours of continuous operation? A.1800 watthours B.1.80 kilowatthours C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1730000664000175000017500000000045512527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A173 D Characteristic of a square law type of vacuum tube detector: A.High sensitivity is provided due to the audio output signal amplitude being proportioned to the square of the radio frequency voltage B.High percentage of second harmonic distortion C.Works on weak signals only D.All of the above share/E6/6A3010000664000175000017500000000026112527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A301 A What current will flow in a 6 V storage battery with an internal resistance of 0.01 ohms, when a 3 W, 6 V lamp is connected? A.0.4995 A B.0.4885 A C.0.5566 A D.0.5795 A share/E6/6A1770000664000175000017500000000054612527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A177 D How would you determine the cathode-bias resistance necessary to provide correct grid bias for an amplifier? A.Bias equals the IR drop across the cathode B.Bias is found by dividing the desired DC bias voltage by the total no-signal cathode current C.For a tetrode or pentode, the screen current must be added to the plate current D.All of the above share/E6/6A1850000664000175000017500000000031312527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A185 C A quartz crystal in a radio transmitter: A.Is used to provide a high degree of master-oscillator frequency stability B.May be the sole tuned circuit in the oscillator C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5230000664000175000017500000000056112527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A523 C Why are copper oxide rectifiers, associated with DC voltmeters to measure AC, unsuitable for the measurement of voltages at radio frequencies? A.Because of the relatively low shunt capacitance of the copper oxide rectifier B.The AC & DC voltages will read low C.Because of the relatively large shunt capacitance of the copper oxide rectifier D.All of the above share/E6/6A4740000664000175000017500000000025712527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A474 A What is the IF of a superheterodyne receiver receiving on 1000 kHz and the mixing oscillator is tuned to 1500 kHz? A.500 kHz B.2500 kHz C.2000 kHz D.None of the above share/E6/6A5100000664000175000017500000000030212527170605011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A510 C The auto-alarm bell rings and the release button stops it: A.There could be reception of a true alarm signal B.There could be reception of a false alarm signal C.A or B D.Neither A or B share/E6/6A4560000664000175000017500000000022612527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A456 D An artificial antenna sometimes used in testing a transmitter: A.Dummy antenna B.Dummy load C.Prevents undesired radiation D.All of the above share/E6/6A2080000664000175000017500000000036512527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A208 D Use of a low pass filter network: A.Ripple filter in power supplies, harmonic suppression filters in antenna systems B.Line noise filters, tone control systems C.Crossover networks, output filters of detector circuits D.All of the above share/E6/6A3130000664000175000017500000000034112527170605011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A313 D A 500 Hz AC plate supply, rectified by a full-wave, unfiltered rectifier circuit. What would the emission be? A.A modulated continuous wave of 500 Hz B.A modulated continuous wave of 1000 Hz C.A-2 D.All of the above share/E6/6A2770000664000175000017500000000023212527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A277 D What may cause sulfation of a lead-acid cell? A.It is a normal process B.Overdischarging C.Local action with improper charging D.All of the above share/E6/6A650000664000175000017500000000023412527170605011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A65 A The total power dissipation capability of two 10 watt, 500 ohm resistors connected in series is: A.20 watts B.10 watts C.5 watts D.None of the above share/E6/6A2390000664000175000017500000000055512527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A239 A An audio-transformer is seldom used as the output device in the plate circuit of a tetrode audio-amplifier stage: A.Because an ordinary transformer cannot supply enough impedance to the plate circuit B.Because an ordinary transformer supplies too much impedance to the plate circuit C.Because an ordinary transformer would be too costly D.None of the above share/E6/6A3150000664000175000017500000000025512527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A315 C Loose laminations in a filter choke: A.Make it impossible to firmly connect the choke in a circuit B.A & C C.Cause a buzzing or chattering sound D.None of the above share/E6/6A4010000664000175000017500000000036312527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A401 A How would you determine the cathode bias resistance necessary to provide correct grid bias for an amplifier? A.Bias is equal to IR drop across the cathode resistance B.Measure with a regular multimeter C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4630000664000175000017500000000030612527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A463 D Basically, am FM receiver is a conventional superheterodyne but differs in: A.The method of detection B.The reduction of sensitivity to amplitude modulation C.De-emphasis D.All of the above share/E6/6A2400000664000175000017500000000041512527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A240 B The chief advantage of Class A audio operation is compared to the other classes of audio-frequency amplifiers: A.Hum currents are in phase B.Low distortion of the output signal C.Tendency for regeneration is increased D.Elimination of cathode bypass capacitors share/E6/6A830000664000175000017500000000027612527170605011162 0ustar jtnjtn6A83 D The formula for determining the wavelength when the frequency is known is: A.Wavelength = 300,000/ f kHz B.Wavelength = 300,000,000/ f Hz C.Wavelength = 300/ f MHz D.All of the above share/E6/6A970000664000175000017500000000027712527170605011170 0ustar jtnjtn6A97 B High or low frequency oscillations occurring in circuits other than the original tank desired output frequencies are: A.Harmonics B.Parasitic oscillations C.Hysteresis D.Eddy currents share/E6/6A5520000664000175000017500000000036012527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A552 A If the velocity of a radio wave is 186,000 statute miles per second, how many nautical miles does a radar pulse travel in one microsecond? A.0.1614 nautical miles B.11614 nautical miles C.0.2014 nautical miles D.2200 nautical miles share/E6/6A540000664000175000017500000000034712527170605011157 0ustar jtnjtn6A54 A When the current sine wave in a circuit reaches its peak value before the voltage wave: A.It is said to have a leading power factor B.It is said to have a lagging power factor C.It is said to be in phase D.None of the above share/E6/6A3390000664000175000017500000000027612527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A339 D What disadvantage is there to a dynamotor? A.Compactness B.Operating efficiency C.It can be operated from batteries D.Its output voltage is dependent on the source voltage stability share/E6/6A2060000664000175000017500000000020312527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A206 D A purplish glow from within a tube indicates: A.A soft tube B.A hard tube C.Air or undesired gases within the tube D.A & C share/E6/6A1260000664000175000017500000000042412527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A126 A Theoretical gain of a tube. The ratio of a small change in plate voltage to give a certain small change in plate current to a change in grid which would cause the same current: A.Amplification factor B.Power factor C.Maximum inverse plate voltage D.None of the above share/E6/6A4840000664000175000017500000000044312527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A484 D Noisy operation of a regenerative, 3-circuit receiver with two stages of AF amplification may be caused by: A.Defective tubes, poor connections B.Defective audio transformers C.Defective grid resistance of grid-capacitor, or defective elements in the power supply D.All of the above share/E6/6A3620000664000175000017500000000057612527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A362 C If a class B linear final R-F amplifier were in saturation and no modulation what would happen when modulated? A.The carrier frequency would override the grid-plate current and the result would be positive shift resulting in amplification B.The Class B linear amplifier only modulates below cut-off C.A condition of negative carrier shift would be the result D.Both A and B share/E6/6A2340000664000175000017500000000037212527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A234 D If the coupling capacitor leaked in a resistance-coupled audio frequency amplifier: A.Excessive plate current would result B.A large value of grid current would result C.There would be extreme distortion, and very low gain D.All of the above share/E6/6A5980000664000175000017500000000066312527170605011255 0ustar jtnjtn6A598 C What is a requirement of all transmitting apparatus used aboard United States vessels? A.Equipment must be approved by the U.S. Coast Guard for maritime mobile use B.Certification is required by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) C.Only equipment that has been type accepted by the FCC for Part 80 operations is authorized D.Programming of all maritime channels must be performed by a licensed Marine Radio Operator share/E6/6A370000664000175000017500000000020012527170605011144 0ustar jtnjtn6A37 D Good insulators at radio frequencies are: A.Pyrex, mica B.Isolantite, steatite, polyethylene C.Rubber, porcelain D.A & B share/E6/6A3330000664000175000017500000000033712527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A333 C A short in the armature coils of a DC motor causes: A.No excessive sparking at the commutator brushes B.No overheating of the motor C.Reduction of speed under load, and excessive armature current D.All of the above share/E6/6A3210000664000175000017500000000034212527170605011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A321 D Electrolyte capacitors are desirable over other types because: A.A large capacitance may be obtained with small physical dimensions B.They have a cathode C.The wet-type electrolytic capacitor is "self-healing" D.A & C share/E6/6A160000664000175000017500000000022112527170605011144 0ustar jtnjtn6A16 B The ratio of current through a conductor to the voltage which produces it is: A.Inductance B.Conductance C.Resistance D.None of the above share/E6/6A5240000664000175000017500000000036412527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A524 C How may the power in a AC circuit be determined? A.The power in an AC circuit may be determined by a wattmeter B.By multiplying the product of the circuit voltage and current by the power factor C.Both answers A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2790000664000175000017500000000034312527170605011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A279 A To prevent corrosion of battery terminals: A.Occasionally clean and coat them with Vaseline or other suitable lubricants B.Use only brass terminals C.Use only stainless steel terminals D.Keep battery on trickles charge share/E6/6A3880000664000175000017500000000025612527170605011250 0ustar jtnjtn6A388 A When the relative amplitudes of the positive and negative modulation peaks are unsymmetrical: A.Carrier shift B.Frequency shift C.Amplifier shift D.None of the above share/E6/6A5770000664000175000017500000000027212527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A577 B While the vessel is in the open sea, how frequently must the specific gravity of the emergency battery be taken? A.Every 12 hours B.Once daily C.Every 48 hours D.Once every week share/E6/6A1440000664000175000017500000000014412527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A144 C The approximate efficiency of a Class C vacuum tube amplifier: A.20%-30% B.60% C.85% D.100% share/E6/6A2270000664000175000017500000000044412527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A227 D What is the main advantage obtained by using two triodes in push-pull in a Class a audio frequency amplifier? A.Increased power output B.Cancellation of even harmonic distortion in the output C.Elimination of DC saturation, elimination of cathode by-pass capacitor D.All of the above share/E6/6A50000664000175000017500000000051712527170605011072 0ustar jtnjtn6A5 D When passing through areas of static charge, high voltages can accumulate on antennas which are insulated from ground. What protects a connected receiver from damage? A.Lightning arresters and suppressors B.Protection diodes on receiver input C.Capacitive coupling and static dissipative circuits D.Any combination of the above share/E6/6A2120000664000175000017500000000026012527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A212 D Why is rosin used as a soldering flux? A.It is noncorrosive B.It allows a perfect soldering bond to be made C.It possesses good insulation qualities D.All of the above share/E6/6A4100000664000175000017500000000020112527170605011220 0ustar jtnjtn6A410 A What would be the dB change in field intensity at a given distance if the power is doubled? A.3 dB B.6 dB C.2 dB D.10 dB share/E6/6A1500000664000175000017500000000042512527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A150 C The cathode of an indirectly heated type of vacuum tube should be maintained at nearly the same potential as the heater circuit: A.To reduce hum pickup into the cathode B.To prevent breakdown of the insulation between the heater and cathode C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A420000664000175000017500000000022112527170605011143 0ustar jtnjtn6A42 A If a resistance to which a constant voltage is applied is halved, what power dissipation will result? A.Doubled B.Halved C.Tripled D.Same share/E6/6A6090000664000175000017500000000033512527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A609 C What is the maximum transmitter power that a ship station may radiate using radiotelegraphy emissions on frequencies below 27500 kHz? A.400 W B.2 kW, unless a passenger ship 5000 gross tons and over C.3 kW D.1 kW share/E6/6A5370000664000175000017500000000024612527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A537 D How is the unilateral effect obtained in a direction finder? A.With a balancing capacitor B.With a compensator C.With insulating material D.None of the above share/E6/6A930000664000175000017500000000024712527170605011161 0ustar jtnjtn6A93 A The term cathode ray usually applies to: A.A fairly high velocity electron beam B.Background noise C.The logarithm gain of an electron beam D.None of the above share/E6/6A6160000664000175000017500000000061612527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A616 B What should a station operator do before making a transmission? A.Check transmitting equipment to be certain it is properly calibrated B.Except for the transmission of distress calls, determine that the frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting C.Ask if the frequency is in use D.Transmit a general notification that the operator wishes to utilize the channel share/E6/6A3280000664000175000017500000000027312527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A328 C Laminated iron is used in armature and field construction to: A.Reduce eddy current losses B.Offer a number of high-resistance paths to Eddy currents C.A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A6040000664000175000017500000000073512527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A604 C When may a public coast station authorized to use high frequency narrow-band direct-printing (NB-DP) establish contact with a ship station using telegraphy? A.Never. Contact may only be established using NB-DP circuits B.When the ship is in excess of 300 gross tons C.When the radio station license reflects authority for this type of operation and harmful interference is avoided D.When it is known that the vessel does not have a selective ringing or calling device share/E6/6A4700000664000175000017500000000035212527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A470 A Some superheterodyne receives employ a crystal-controlled oscillator: A.To insure maximum stability of operation B.To reduce noise generated by a conventional oscillator C.Because it require no shielding D.To control feedback share/E6/6A3570000664000175000017500000000052712527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A357 B What is are the advantages of self excited oscillator and master-oscillator power-amplifier transmitters? A.The master-oscillator has fewer parts than the self-excited and is simpler to construct B.The self-excited oscillator transmitter is simpler to construct and has fewer parts than the master-oscillator C.Either A or B D.Neither share/E6/6A5000000664000175000017500000000051012527170605011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A500 C The center-tap connection in a filament supply transformer: A.Prevents hum voltages from modulating the normal signal B.The voltage change on one side of the filament will be effectively cancelled out by an equal and opposite voltage change at the other side of the filament, yielding no hum C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5200000664000175000017500000000041512527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A520 B What is the purpose of multiplier resistance used with a voltmeter? A.Multiplier resistance is not used with a voltmeter B.To increase the voltage indicating range of the voltmeter C.To decrease the voltage indicating range of the voltmeter D.None of the above share/E6/6A1860000664000175000017500000000022512527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A186 D Advantage of crystal control over tuned circuit oscillators: A.Very high Q B.Compact size C.Excellent frequency stability D.All of the above share/E6/6A4330000664000175000017500000000062612527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A433 A What are the three factors to consider when figuring the surge impedance of a non-resonant transmission line? A.Diameter of the conductor, space between conductors, dielectric constant of insulating material B.Voltage on RF line, diameter of conductors, space between dielectric C.Diameter of shielding, space between dielectric constant, insulating shield around the conductor D.None of the above share/E6/6A5510000664000175000017500000000042212527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A551 D What precautions should an operator or serviceman observe when working with cathode-ray tubes? A.The tube must not strike against any hard surface B.The tube might implode C.Safety goggles and gloves should be worn when handling cathode-ray tubes D.All of the above share/E6/6A940000664000175000017500000000026312527170605011160 0ustar jtnjtn6A94 D Shielding an RF inductance: A.Increases the losses of the inductance B.Lowers the inductance value and the Q C.Increases the coil capacity to the shield D.All of the above share/E6/6A3630000664000175000017500000000030012527170605011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A363 D A class C amplifier: A.Has an output for the entire input signal cycle B.Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input cycle C.Bias is set well beyond cutoff D.Both B and C share/E6/6A10000664000175000017500000000047412527170605011070 0ustar jtnjtn6A1 A SITOR-ARQ is a common mode of data communications in the maritime service. It is a system based on transmission bursts and acknowledgements. What is the baud, and interval between the burst transmissions: A.100 baud, 240 ms interval B.50 baud, 1000 us interval C.200 baud, 10 ms interval D.None of the above share/E6/6A2680000664000175000017500000000024212527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A268 C The charge of a lead-acid storage cell: A.May be determined by hydrometer readings B.By measuring voltage under a heavy load C.A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1310000664000175000017500000000057512527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A131 A What is the primary purpose of the suppressor grid of a pentode? A.Is highly negative with respect to the plate and returns secondary emission to the plate, increasing the permissible gain and the tube efficiency B.Reduces interelectrode capacitance between control grid and plate making plate efficiency about 10% greater than a triode C.Both A & B D.Neither of the above share/E6/6A490000664000175000017500000000040512527170605011156 0ustar jtnjtn6A49 A A liquid which is capable of conducting electricity, but undergoes decomposition while doing so is: A.An electrolyte B.A ferromagnetic material under the influence of a magnetizing force C.Equal to the ohmic resistance of the circuit D.None of the above share/E6/6A3920000664000175000017500000000040212527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A392 A To avoid damage to components what precautions should be observed in tuning a transmitter? A.It should be adjusted at reduced power B.It should be adjusted under normal power C.Plate tank circuits are tuned for maximum DC current D.None of the above share/E6/6A4350000664000175000017500000000023412527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A435 A Adding an inductor in series with an antenna will have what effect on the resonant frequency? A.Decrease B.Increase C.Neutralization D.Equalization share/E6/6A2450000664000175000017500000000021412527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A245 B What factors determine the no-load voltage ratio of a power transformer? A.Power ratio B.Turns ratio C.Voltage ratio D.Power factor share/E6/6A5560000664000175000017500000000041612527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A556 C Why is the clock on a compulsorily equipped ship radiotelegraph station required to have a sweep second hand? A.To be able to accurately time the spaces and dashes of the auto-alarm system B.To accurately time the silent periods C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4120000664000175000017500000000035312527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A412 C What is the term used when the receiving operator may interrupt the transmitting operator at any point during transmission? A.Modulation compandering B.Interruption shift keying C.Break-in operation D.Transmission shift keying share/E6/6A500000664000175000017500000000035412527170605011151 0ustar jtnjtn6A50 A The effective value of an RF current and the heating value of the current are: A.The same B.Effective value divided by two equals the heating value C.Effective value multiplied by two equals the heating value D.None of the above share/E6/6A2260000664000175000017500000000025112527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A226 A A properly operated Class A audio amplifier: A.Produces no serious modification of the input waveform B.Serious distortion is present C.A & B D.All of the above share/E6/6A1680000664000175000017500000000021012527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A168 A A tuned circuit made up of inductance and capacitance is: A.An oscillator B.A neutralizer C.Voltage divider D.None of the above share/E6/6A5250000664000175000017500000000025112527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A525 B The product of the readings of an AC voltmeter and ammeter in an AC circuit is called what? A.Reverse power B.Apparent power C.Current power D.None of the above share/E6/6A3680000664000175000017500000000053412527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A368 A How can an R-F amplifier stage be neutralized? A.Vary the tuning of the plate tank circuit while observing the amp. meter B.Vary the tuning of the plate tank circuit while observing the SWR meter C.Neutralization is done by circuit design either by increasing the input impedance or lowering the inductance value D.Both A and C are correct share/E6/6A2110000664000175000017500000000014412527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A211 D Materials frequently used for relay contacts: A.Tungsten B.Silver C.Gold D.All of the above share/E6/6A5800000664000175000017500000000023312527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A580 D You intercept "CQ CQ WSV TFC"; what does this mean? A.General call to all stations B.Call letter of a coastal station C.Traffic D.All of the above share/E6/6A2070000664000175000017500000000027612527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A207 A Given a solenoid with a resistance of 5 ohms and 0.34 through the winding when 1108 at 60 Hz is applied. What is the impedance? A.367 ohms B.350 ohms C.360 ohms D.None of the above share/E6/6A1150000664000175000017500000000020412527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A115 C The ratio of peak-to-effective voltage values of a sign wave are: A.1.414 to 1 B.1 to 0.707 C.Both A and B D.Neither A or B share/E6/6A4260000664000175000017500000000032212527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A426 A In a self excited oscillator, a swinging antenna: A.Will cause serious frequency instability B.Will cause no noticeable frequency instability C.May cause minor frequency instability D.None of the above share/E6/6A1980000664000175000017500000000030712527170605011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A198 A Increasing the number of plates of a capacitor: A.Will increase the capacitance B.Will decrease the capacitance C.Will have no effect on the capacitance D.Will make the capacitance fluctuate share/E6/6A460000664000175000017500000000037312527170605011157 0ustar jtnjtn6A46 D Direction of flow of DC electricity in a conductor can be determined by: A.A magnetic compass and the left hand rule B.A magnetic compass and the right hand rule C.Connecting an ammeter with marked polarities in series with the circuit D.A & C share/E6/6A5410000664000175000017500000000035212527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A541 B What is indicated by the bearing obtained from the use of a unilateral radio direction finder? A.The direction of another station B.The sense of direction of the originating station C.All bearings are from D.None of the above share/E6/6A1200000664000175000017500000000027612527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A120 A Adding an iron core to an air-core inductance: A.Increases the inductance B.Decreases the inductance C.Does not affect the inductance D.Causes parasitic oscillations in the inductor share/E6/6A740000664000175000017500000000042412527170605011155 0ustar jtnjtn6A74 B The total reactance when two capacitances of equal value are connected in series is: A.The product of the two individual reactances in ohms B.The sum of the two individual reactances in ohms C.The difference of the two individual reactances in ohms D.None of the above share/E6/6A1970000664000175000017500000000044012527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A197 A What effect does a change in the dielectric constant of a capacitor dielectric material have upon the capacitance of a capacitor: A.Capacity varies directly with the dielectric constant B.Capacity may fluctuate wildly C.There is no effect upon the capacitance D.None of the above share/E6/6A2760000664000175000017500000000023112527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A276 D What may cause the plates of a lead-acid call to buckle? A.Excessive sulfation B.Overheating C.Overdischarging of the battery D.All of the above share/E6/6A1960000664000175000017500000000032612527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A196 D When using and storing crystal microphones: A.They should be protected from shock and vibration B.They should be protected from humidity C.They should be protected from high temperatures D.All of the above share/E6/6A4900000664000175000017500000000022412527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A490 D Audio howl may be caused by: A.A "fringe" setting of the regeneration control B.A defective tube C.An open grid resistor D.All of the above share/E6/6A1570000664000175000017500000000024012527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A157 D The gain of a triode audio amplifier is a function of: A.Tube transconduction B.Plate load impedance C.Transformer step-up (if used) D.All of the above share/E6/6A1870000664000175000017500000000042212527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A187 B If the crystal will undergo very small changes in its operating frequency with relatively large temperature variations: A.A high-temperature coefficient crystal B.A low-temperature coefficient crystal C.A constant-temperature coefficient crystal D.None of the above share/E6/6A2410000664000175000017500000000037712527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A241 D Which is not the principle advantage of transformer coupling compared to resistance coupling in audio-frequency amplifiers? A.Greater gain per stage B.Can provide necessary impedance matching C.A & B D.A transformer is expensive, heavy, and bulky share/E6/6A5890000664000175000017500000000100012527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A589 A How does an eligible Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator upgrade his license to First Class? A.By submitting the necessary Proof-of-Passing Certificates (PPC) from a COLEM along with the required fee and Form 756 to the FCC B.By fulfilling the Six Months Service Endorsement requirement C.By presenting a one year radiotelegraph experience certification to a commercial radio operator examination manager D.By complying with the ITU Provision "D" concerning telegraphy operation in the Maritime Service share/E6/6A6150000664000175000017500000000071612527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A615 C What is the order of priority of radiotelegraph communications in the maritime services? A.Alarm, radio-direction finding, and health and welfare communications B.Navigation hazards, meteorological warnings, priority traffic C.Distress calls, and signals, followed by communications preceded by urgency and safety signals D.Government precedence, messages concerning safety of life and protection of property and traffic concerning grave imminent danger share/E6/6A1700000664000175000017500000000026012527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A170 D Cavity resonators are: A.A form of resonant tank circuit B.Consist of a hollow metal cylinder bead on all sides C.Have a very high Q and selectivity D.All of the above share/E6/6A5870000664000175000017500000000120412527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A587 C Under what condition may an eligible person hold a radiotelegraph operator's license and a Marine Radio Operator permit? A.When the planned telegraphy operation will occur aboard ship in international waters and another vessel is licensed for operation on the inland waterways B.When the commercial radio operator is legally eligible for both foreign and domestic employment C.No person may hold any class of radiotelegraph operator's certificate and a Marine Radio Operator Permit D.Commercial radiotelegraphers are required to also hold a Marine Radio Operator Permit when the operation occurs on vessels of less than 1600 gross tons share/E6/6A5010000664000175000017500000000041512527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A501 D A shorted grid capacitor in a three-circuit regenerative receiver would: A.Render the receiver mostly or completely inoperative B.Have no noticeable effect C.Some forms of plate detection might occur but with considerably reduced sensitivity and volume D.A & C share/E6/6A770000664000175000017500000000026012527170605011156 0ustar jtnjtn6A77 B What is the total capacitance of the capacitors of 3, 5, and 7 microfarad connected in series? A.14.79 microfarad B.1.479 microfarad C.15 microfarad D.None of the above share/E6/6A4130000664000175000017500000000043212527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A413 C Which of the following best explains frequency-shift keying? A.The shifting of frequencies by modulating the carrier antenna B.Changing the frequency of the input when the key is depressed C.Changing the frequency of the output when the key is depressed D.None of the above share/E6/6A300000664000175000017500000000027712527170605011153 0ustar jtnjtn6A30 A The prefix " kilo " means: A.To multiply by 1000 whatever quantity follows B.To divide by 1000 whatever quantity follows C.To add 1000 to whatever quantity follows D.None of the above share/E6/6A3660000664000175000017500000000037112527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A366 D Two effects of over-excitation of a Class B amplifier grid circuit are: A.Increased plate efficiency, decreased power output B.Decreased plate efficiency, excessive grid current C.Excessive plate current, excessive distortion D.Both B and C share/E6/6A6100000664000175000017500000000055712527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A610 C Where must ship station logs be kept during a voyage? A.They must be secured in the vessel's strongbox for safekeeping B.In the personal custody of the licensed commercial radio operator C.At the principal radiotelephone operating position or radiotelegraph operating room D.All logs are turned over to the ship's master when the radio operator goes off duty share/E6/6A3400000664000175000017500000000051512527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A340 D Causes of excessive sparking at the brushes of a DC motor or generator include: A.Brushes not properly set at neutral point, dirt on commutator, motor overloaded B.Weak spring tension on brushes, brushes worn, commutator worn eccentric C.High mica-insulation between bars, commutator bars of uneven height D.All of the above share/E6/6A2910000664000175000017500000000027612527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A291 D The tops of lead-acid batteries should be kept dry: A.To prevent slow discharge of the battery B.To prevent terminal overload C.To reduce the formation of terminal corrosion D.A & C share/E6/6A2660000664000175000017500000000031212527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A266 A To increase the power output of a storage cell: A.Low internal resistance is desirable B.High internal resistance is desirable C.Low terminal voltage under load is desirable D.None of the above share/E6/6A2940000664000175000017500000000037712527170605011250 0ustar jtnjtn6A294 C An Edison storage battery should not be charged at less than the manufacturer's specified rate: A.In order that the capacity of the battery shall be maximum after charge B.The chemical reactions of the Edison-type cell C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5060000664000175000017500000000030712527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A506 D The determining factor of the setting of the sensitivity control of an auto-alarm receiver: A.Prevailing static at a given time B.Radio interference at a given time C.Signal strength D.A & B share/E6/6A2820000664000175000017500000000032412527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A282 C What is the effect of low temperature on the operation of a lead-acid storage battery? A.Electrolyte may freeze and split the battery if sg too low B.The capacity is decreased C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4570000664000175000017500000000036412527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A457 D The system producing A-2 emission by a "chopper" may be thought of: A.As a double-keying system B.The automatic "chopper" turns the transmitter on and off at a rapid rate C.The other key is a normal hand operated key D.All of the above share/E6/6A5820000664000175000017500000000031312527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A582 C Upon what band, in addition to the 350 to 515 kHz band must a main receiver on a United States ship be capable of operation? A.600 TO 700 kHz B.1000 TO 1200 kHz C.100 TO 200 kHz D.516 TO 615 kHz share/E6/6A690000664000175000017500000000030112527170605011153 0ustar jtnjtn6A69 A The current through two resistors in series is 3 A. Resistance #1 is 50 ohms, resistance #2 drops 50 V across its terminals. What is the total voltage? A.200 V B.220 V C.110 V D.180 V share/E6/6A1720000664000175000017500000000044312527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A172 D The functioning of a grid-leak detector: A.Depends on the ability of the grid leak and capacitor to follow the average grid current variations which are directly proportioned to the modulation envelope B.Depends on second harmonic distortion C.Very sensitive to weak signals D.A & C share/E6/6A2190000664000175000017500000000024112527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A219 A What turns ratio does a transformer need to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms? A.7.1 to 1 B.7 to 1 C.14 to 1 D.None of the above share/E6/6A2030000664000175000017500000000047112527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A203 D Indications of a defective vacuum tube in a transmitter: A.Gas blow within the tube, excessive plate color due to overheating B.No light from the filament, insufficient plate current, reduced output C.Excessive plate current, possible internal arcing, fluctuating plate or grid current D.All of the above share/E6/6A4180000664000175000017500000000030412527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A418 C When hoisting a shipboard antenna, to avoid damage to the wire and insulators: A.Avoid bending the wire B.Avoid smashing the insulators against metal objects C.A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2710000664000175000017500000000026112527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A271 A You may measure the voltage of a battery under heavy load: A.To determine its condition of charge B.To determine its polarity C.To determine its age D.None of the above share/E6/6A5300000664000175000017500000000042712527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A530 B By what factor must the voltage of an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the peak value? A.The multiplying factor is .414 B.The multiplying factor is A.414 C.The multiplying factor is A.114 D.The multiplying factor is A.141 share/E6/6A5550000664000175000017500000000041512527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A555 C In the transmission of the international Morse code, what are the relative time lengths of dashes, dots? A.Dashes are about four times as long as dots B.Dots are about half the length of dashes C.Dashes are about three times as long as dots D.None of the above share/E6/6A3430000664000175000017500000000024312527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A343 D RF interference may be minimized: A.By the use of brush by-pass capacitors B.Low frequency filters C.Shielding of long connecting leads D.All of the above share/E6/6A5480000664000175000017500000000035612527170605011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A548 D How can the operator of a LORAN receiver on shipboard identify the transmitting stations that are being received? A.By their pulse recurrence rate B.By reference to their frequency of transmission C.None of the above D.Both A & B share/E6/6A1110000664000175000017500000000030312527170605011221 0ustar jtnjtn6A111 C What is the total impedance of a series AC circuit having a resistance of 6 ohms, an inductive reactance of 17 ohms, and zero capacitive reactance? A.15 ohms B.27 ohms C.18 ohms D.5 ohms share/E6/6A530000664000175000017500000000015412527170605011152 0ustar jtnjtn6A53 D What is the ratio of peak to average value of a sine wave? A.1.57 to 1 B.1 to 0.636 C.1 to 1 D.A & B share/E6/6A1050000664000175000017500000000021212527170605011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A105 D An EMF may be generated by sound waves by what principle? A.Electrostatic B.Piezo-electric C.Resistance change D.All of the above share/E6/6A3040000664000175000017500000000041312527170605011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A304 C Advantages of capacitor input and choke-input filters when used with rectifiers: A.Capacitor-input filter provides higher output voltage under reasonably light load conditions B.Choke-input filter offers better voltage regulations C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3420000664000175000017500000000027412527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A342 D Causes of motor-generator bearing overheating include: A.Incorrect kind of lubrication, lack of ventilation B.Constant overload, dirt in bearings C.Misalignment D.All of the above share/E6/6A2040000664000175000017500000000026512527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A204 C The breakdown voltage rating of a capacitor are determined by: A.The type of dielectric material used B.The thickness of the dielectric material C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3020000664000175000017500000000054612527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A302 C The charging rate of a storage cell charged from a fixed voltage source decreases as the charging progresses opposition to the charging voltage? A.Because as cell voltages increase, offering more opposition to the charging voltage B.When the effective charging potential is reduced, the charging current is decreased C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A6140000664000175000017500000000050312527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A614 B What is the minimum radio operator license requirement of a chief radio officer on U.S. passenger ships? A.First or Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator Certificate with six month endorsement B.First Class Radiotelegraph Operator Certificate C.General Radiotelephone Operator License D.Marine Radio Operator Permit share/E6/6A3360000664000175000017500000000052712527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A336 A When increased output is desired from a motor-generator, what is the usual procedure? A.Decrease the resistance after rheostat in series with the generator field B.Increase the resistance of the rheostat in series with the generator field C.Output cannot be easily increased D.Shut down the motor-generator and restart under full load share/E6/6A4070000664000175000017500000000042012527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A407 A When is a transmitter tuned to reduced power? A.The receiver is initially reduced because the receiver is very sensitive B.The receiver is non adjustable in almost all applications C.The receiver has a pre-stage amplifier that self-adjusts D.In the doubler stages share/E6/6A1520000664000175000017500000000026312527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A152 A Use of an AC filament supply is desirable: A.Mostly for practical reasons. It is easily obtainable B.Hum may be introduced into the amplifier C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A150000664000175000017500000000010212527170605011141 0ustar jtnjtn6A15 A The unit of inductance is: A.Henry B.Joule C.Coulomb D.Ohm share/E6/6A230000664000175000017500000000011212527170605011141 0ustar jtnjtn6A23 D The unit of capacitance is: A.Farad B.Microfarad C.Coulomb D.A & B share/E6/6A2140000664000175000017500000000035112527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A214 B Why is an oscillator crystal operated at a constant temperature? A.Just because, stupid! B.To maintain a constant frequency output from the oscillator C.Constant temperature allows easier frequency change D.None of the above share/E6/6A3990000664000175000017500000000045512527170605011253 0ustar jtnjtn6A399 A In an RF amplifier with fixed bias, as the plate circuit is varied from below resonance to above resonance, what will the grid current do? A.The grid current will rise slightly at resonance B.The grid current will dip slightly at resonance C.The grid current will not vary D.None of the above share/E6/6A1070000664000175000017500000000053412527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A107 B Permeability is: A.The magnetic field created by a conductor wound on a laminated core and carrying any electric current B.The ratio of magnetic flux density in a substance to the magnetizing force which produces it C.Polarized molecular alignment in a ferromagnetic material while under the influence of a magnetizing force D.Both A and C share/E6/6A4550000664000175000017500000000041712527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A455 D The follow devices that could be used to indicate oscillation in a crystal oscillator are: A.Plate DC milliammeter, grid DC ammeter, neon bulb B.Thermogalvanometer, wavemeter C.Flashlight bulb on a loop of wire, heterodyne type frequency meter D.All of the above share/E6/6A4020000664000175000017500000000055612527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A402 A What is a method of link coupling between two R-F amplifier stages? A.The coupling together of two circuits which may be separated by a relatively large distance with low-impedance B.The coupling together of two circuits which may be separated by a relatively short distance C.Isolating one R-F amplifier stage by using a closed loop coupler D.Either B or C share/E6/6A980000664000175000017500000000024512527170605011164 0ustar jtnjtn6A98 D What are effects of parasitic oscillations? A.Change of bias B.Reduced efficiency of the amplifier tube C.Distortion of the modulated wave D.All of the above share/E6/6A110000664000175000017500000000023612527170605011145 0ustar jtnjtn6A11 D An electrical potential may be generated by: A.Varying a magnetic field through a circuit B.Chemical action C.Photo-electric action D.All of the above share/E6/6A2350000664000175000017500000000067212527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A235 C A vacuum tube operated Class C audio amplifier is not feasible, either in single or push-pull: A.Since the plate current only flows 120 degrees, even in push-pull, only 2/3 of the cycle is reproduced and the resultant distortion would be unacceptable for audio B.Tank circuits, which replace the missing portions of the cycle, can't be used in an audio amplifier because they only operate on one frequency C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4990000664000175000017500000000037612527170605011256 0ustar jtnjtn6A499 B Feeding back into the control grids of the IF and RF amplifiers a negative DC bias which is proportioned to the average magnitude of the received carrier wave accomplished: A.Rhymed effect B.Automatic volume control C.Neutralization D.Refraction share/E6/6A1410000664000175000017500000000031612527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A141 C What is the effect of incorrect grid bias in a Class A amplifier? A.Distortion of the output waveshape B.Possible excessive plate dissipation if the bias is too low C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A920000664000175000017500000000030312527170605011151 0ustar jtnjtn6A92 D Shock excitation into an L-C circuit is the result of: A.A voltage being momentarily introduced B.The capacitor may be charged C.The inductor may have a voltage induced D.All of the above share/E6/6A2050000664000175000017500000000035512527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A205 D Crystal surfaces should be free of dirt of grease to operate properly: A.Do not touch the faces of the crystal with the fingers B.Clean the faces with soap and water C.Clean the faces with carbon tetrachloride D.All of the above share/E6/6A70000664000175000017500000000060612527170605011073 0ustar jtnjtn6A7 B Modern reserve transmitters are solid-state designs and transmit using only A2 modulation. When measuring transmitter center frequency, what precaution must be taken: A.Antenna must be grounded to suppress spurious side-lobes B.Modulation must be reduced to zero to eliminate sidebands C.Voltage to the PA must be kept at half-value D.Antenna current must be reduced to about 2.5 uA share/E6/6A4870000664000175000017500000000046212527170605011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A487 B How would you reduce or eliminate broadcast signal interference of reception on 500 kHz? A.Use a regenerative receiver without RF amplifier stages B.Use a suitable wavetrap resonated to reject the undesired signals C.Use a crystal detector receiver tuned to the exact frequency D.None of the above share/E6/6A3780000664000175000017500000000032512527170605011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A378 A When a radiotelephone transmitter is 100% modulated by sinusoidal waveform , how much antenna current will be observed? A.22.5 % increase B.22.5 % decrease C.12.25% increase D.No change in antenna current share/E6/6A3470000664000175000017500000000022212527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A347 D The speed of an induction motor is determined: A.By the number of pairs of poles B.By the line frequency C.By the load D.All of the above share/E6/6A5030000664000175000017500000000041612527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A503 D The advantage of using iron cores of special construction in RF transformers and inductance? A.Increase of Q and gain of circuits using such cores B.Increase of selectivity and gain of circuits using such cores C.Increase of Q and selectivity D.All of the above share/E6/6A510000664000175000017500000000022712527170605011151 0ustar jtnjtn6A51 D One horsepower is: A.746 Watts B.Roughly 3/4 kilowatt C.Corresponds to lifting 550 pounds at the rate of one foot per second D.All of the above share/E6/6A4030000664000175000017500000000020412527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A403 B Which type of amplifier circuit is used in a link coupling R-F? A.Push-push B.Push-pull C.Phase splitter D.FM discriminator share/E6/6A1480000664000175000017500000000021212527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A148 A A tungsten filament is operated at ____ temperature than a thoriated tungsten filament: A.A higher B.A lower C.The same D.Unknown share/E6/6A1020000664000175000017500000000033512527170605011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A102 C If L and C in a parallel resonant circuit resonants at 1000 kHz are so varied that their product remains constant, what will be the resulting resonant frequency? A.10,000 kHz B.100 kHz C.1 MHz D.None of the above share/E6/6A6010000664000175000017500000000076212527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A601 B How does a radiotelegraph operator transmit a routine call to another station? A.The letters "CQ" are followed by the call sign of the station called and the call sign of the originating station B.The station is called not more than twice, followed by the word "DE" and the call sign of the calling station not more than twice C.The originating station must obtain permission from the nearest public coast station D.Routine calls are initiated by using the appropriate service abbreviation share/E6/6A170000664000175000017500000000030112527170605011144 0ustar jtnjtn6A17 A The product of the number of turns and the current in amperes used to describe relative magnitude is: A.Ampere turns B.Joules per second C.Push-pull convergence D.Dissipation collection share/E6/6A2810000664000175000017500000000022412527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A281 D Radio equipment on which electrolyte may be used: A.Electrolyte capacitor B.Electrolyte rectifier C.Electrolyte detector D.All of the above share/E6/6A2580000664000175000017500000000031712527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A258 A The negative plate of a lead-acid storage cell: A.Is composed of pure spongy lead B.Is composed of lead peroxide C.Is composed of a compound of pure spongy lead and lead peroxide D.None of the above share/E6/6A2370000664000175000017500000000035512527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A237 A The main advantage of a tuned audio frequency amplifier in a receiver used for the reception of CW: A.A reduction in interference from unwanted signals B.The desired audio beat frequency is attenuates C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1370000664000175000017500000000076612527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A137 B Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a class B amplifier: A.Low plate circuit efficiency, about 25%; practically no grid driving power; plate current flowing for 360 degrees of each cycle; practically no distortion of the output waveshape B.Plate circuit efficiency, about 50-60%; plate current flows slightly more than 180 degrees of each cycle, medium power output C.High efficiency, up to 80%; plate current drawn in bursts; great distortion of output waveshape D.None of the above share/E6/6A4930000664000175000017500000000041312527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A493 A An oscillator in a receiver operating on a frequency near the IF of the receiver: A.Beats with the IF in the second detector to produce an audible note B.May cause audio howl in the receiver C.Increases sensitivity D.May cause noisy operation of the receiver share/E6/6A610000664000175000017500000000022512527170605011150 0ustar jtnjtn6A61 D A 20 ohm resistor with a current of 0.25 A passing through it will dissipate how many watts? A.10 watts B.20 watts C.0.025 watts D.1.25 watts share/E6/6A3580000664000175000017500000000050512527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A358 D The primary function of the power-amplifier stage of a marine radiotelegraph transmitter is: A.To transmit messages concerning the safety and health of the ship personnel B.To transmit messages concerning the weather and safety of upcoming storms C.Both A and B D.To improve the frequency stability of the oscillator share/E6/6A1940000664000175000017500000000032312527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A194 D Transistors may be compared to a conventional triode vacuum tube functionally: A.Emitter corresponds to the cathode B.Collector corresponds to the plate C.Base corresponds to the grid D.All of the above share/E6/6A950000664000175000017500000000030712527170605011160 0ustar jtnjtn6A95 B The tendency of a tank circuit to keep oscillating for a time after the excitation energy has been removed is: A.Push-pull effect B.Flywheel effect C.Polarizing effect D.Parasitic oscillation share/E6/6A1060000664000175000017500000000030412527170605011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A106 D How can you correct power factor in an electrical circuit? A.Inductance is used to correct a leading angle B.Capacitance is used to correct a lagging angle C.Neither A or B D.Both A and B share/E6/6A4470000664000175000017500000000027112527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A447 A Radio frequencies that are useful for long distance communications requiring continuous operation: A.Low frequency B.High frequency C.Very high frequency D.Ultra high frequency share/E6/6A590000664000175000017500000000020312527170605011153 0ustar jtnjtn6A59 A The conductance (G) of a circuit if 6 A flows when 12 VDC is applied is: A.0.5 mho B.1.0 mho C.0.25 mho D.None of the above share/E6/6A280000664000175000017500000000023212527170605011151 0ustar jtnjtn6A28 B The formula for finding power in a DC circuit when current and resistance are known: A.P = IE B.P = ( I Squared) R C.PF = W/IE D.None of the above share/E6/6A5660000664000175000017500000000055412527170605011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A566 D What stations shall be in control of distress traffic? A.Control of the distress traffic shall be with the station first hearing the call B.The control of the distress traffic rests with the mobile station in distress C.With the mobile station which sends the distress call in the event that the station in distress is not able to transmit it D.Both B & C share/E6/6A2560000664000175000017500000000021612527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A256 D Edison type batteries: A.Have plates up nickel B.Have plates of iron C.Have plates of compounds of nickel and iron D.All of the above share/E6/6A3500000664000175000017500000000017312527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A350 A Alternators are usually rated in: A.Volt-amperes output B.Watts C.Amperes D.*** share/E6/6A270000664000175000017500000000025212527170605011152 0ustar jtnjtn6A27 A The formula for determining the power in a DC circuit when the voltage and resistance are known is: A.P = ( E squared) R B.P = EI C.P = ( I squared) R D.PF = W/IE share/E6/6A1840000664000175000017500000000031012527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A184 D When used as an RF amplifier, a pentode vacuum tube: A.Usually does not require neutralization B.Usually requires neutralization C.May require neutralization at ultra-high frequencies D.A & C share/E6/6A1950000664000175000017500000000011412527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A195 C Types of transistors: A.Point-contact B.Junction C.Both A & B D.NPP share/E6/6A4140000664000175000017500000000032212527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A414 C What is one of the advantages frequency-shift keying has over "on-off" keying? A.Increase of transmitter bandwidth B.Decrease of signal-to-noise ratio C.Increase of signal-to-noise ratio D.Both A and C share/E6/6A3080000664000175000017500000000023412527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A308 B The ratio of the frequencies of the output and input circuits of a single-phase full-wave rectifier: A.1 to 1 B.2 to 1 C.1 to 2 D.None of the above share/E6/6A450000664000175000017500000000042312527170605011152 0ustar jtnjtn6A45 D Conductors differ from nonconductors, i.e.: A.There are a large number of free electrons in a good conductor B.There is a small number of free electrons in a non-conductor C.There is an equal amount of free electrons in a good conductor and in a non-conductor D.A & B share/E6/6A5110000664000175000017500000000040612527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A511 D If the auto-alarm bell rings and the release button doesn't stop it: A.Bell relay K-107 could be stuck, or there could be an open filament B.The alarm bell relay circuit ground could be bad C.There could be failure or low line voltage D.All of the above share/E6/6A710000664000175000017500000000027612527170605011157 0ustar jtnjtn6A71 A A circuit passes 3 A. The internal resistance of the source is 2 ohms. The total resistance is 50 ohms. What is the terminal voltage of the source? A.150 V B.100 V C.110 V D.240 V share/E6/6A3800000664000175000017500000000033312527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A380 C A plate choke in a Heising modulator: A.Builds up audio modulating voltages B.Feeds audio modulating voltages to the plate of the RF modulated amplifier to produce plate modulation C.A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1460000664000175000017500000000026212527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A146 B A material flashed by the application of heat after the tube is evacuated that absorbs any gases remaining inside the tube: A.Space charge B.Getter C.Collector D.Emitter share/E6/6A5970000664000175000017500000000106512527170605011251 0ustar jtnjtn6A597 C What answer format is accepted on commercial radiotelegraph license contain? A.The examiner may use any answer format which ascertains that the examinee can comprehend the message transmitted B.Any of the following: one minute solid copy, answering seven out of ten question, fill-in-the-blank, or multiple choice questions C.Examinees are required to receive international Morse code messages by ear for a period of one minute without error D.Examinees must obtain a passing mark of 75% or higher on questions concerning the transmitted telegraphy message share/E6/6A3550000664000175000017500000000040612527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A355 A To provide additional feedback voltage in a crystal oscillator what is sometimes needed? A.An additional plate grid feedback capacitor B.Adding a coupling circuit in series with the plate resistors C.An astable multivibrator D.A monostable multivibrator share/E6/6A180000664000175000017500000000036512527170605011157 0ustar jtnjtn6A18 B The property of a conductor or coil which causes a voltage to be developed across its terminals when the number of magnetic lines of force in the circuit or coil is changed is: A.Capacitance B.Inductance C.Conductance D.None of the above share/E6/6A3890000664000175000017500000000054012527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A389 D What may be used as indicating devices in neutralizing an RF amplifier stage? A.Neon bulb, sensitive wavemeter B.A flashlight bulb connected to a small loop of wire, a sensitive thermocoupler either attached to a small loop of wire C.Amplifier grid current meter, a thermocouple meter connected in series with the plate tank D.All of the above share/E6/6A3760000664000175000017500000000037412527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A376 D What might be the cause of a positive shift in carrier amplitude during modulation? A.Parasitic oscillations, excessive audio drive B.Incorrect tuning of final amplifier C.Insufficient RF excitation, incorrect neutralization D.All of the above share/E6/6A3090000664000175000017500000000032612527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A309 A A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer: A.To improve the power factor B.To improve output voltage regulation C.To rectify the primary windings D.None of the above share/E6/6A5180000664000175000017500000000022312527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A518 A A ____ provides a very high degree of selectivity in a receiver: A.Crystal filter B.Low pass filter C.Bleeder resistor D.By-pass capacitor share/E6/6A390000664000175000017500000000037712527170605011165 0ustar jtnjtn6A39 D The needle of a magnetic compass when placed within a coil carrying an electric current: A.Will tend to become parallel with the axis of the coil B.Will point to the north pole end of the coil C.Will point to the south pole end of the coil D.A & B share/E6/6A1470000664000175000017500000000017712527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A147 B What types of vacuum tube filaments are reactivated: A.Barium berylliate B.Thoriated tungsten C.Nickel D.Thorium oxide share/E6/6A2460000664000175000017500000000030512527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A246 A The turns ratio of a transformer varies: A.As the square root of the impedance ratio B.As the square of the impedance ratio C.As one-half the impedance ratio D.As twice the impedance ratio share/E6/6A1270000664000175000017500000000021212527170605011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A127 D Effectiveness of the grid in causing changes of plate current: A.Transconductance B.Mutual conductance C.Plate resistance D.A & B share/E6/6A5710000664000175000017500000000027512527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A571 C While a vessel is at sea, how frequently must the auto-alarm be tested? A.At least once ever 6 hours B.At least once ever 12 hours C.At least once ever 24 hours D.None of the above share/E6/6A4060000664000175000017500000000033712527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A406 C How is power output of a transmitter adjusted? A.It should radiate the minimum power necessary to insure reliable communications B.It may be controlled by varying the plate supply C.Both A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4200000664000175000017500000000037212527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A420 A Field intensity is: A.Directly proportional to the antenna current B.Inversely proportional to the antenna current C.Directly proportional to the square of the antenna current D.Directly proportional to the square root of the antenna current share/E6/6A4830000664000175000017500000000062612527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A483 D Some components of a three-circuit regenerative circuit tested in troubleshooting: A.All tubes, power supply voltage, continuity of coils B.Proper contacting of each position of tapped switches, pigtail connections, shorted variable capacitor C.Grid leak for open circuit, grid capacitor for short, audio transformer for continuity, jacks & cords, antenna and ground connections D.All of the above share/E6/6A4240000664000175000017500000000025512527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A424 D Effects of dirty or salt-encrusted insulation are: A.Erratic readings of antenna current B.Increased corona discharge C.Decreased radiation power D.All of the above share/E6/6A350000664000175000017500000000023312527170605011150 0ustar jtnjtn6A35 A Halving the cross-sectional area of a conductor will: A.Double the resistance B.Half the resistance C.Not affect the resistance D.None of the above share/E6/6A60000664000175000017500000000067712527170605011102 0ustar jtnjtn6A6 B Vertical shipboard antennas for use in the MF band (410-525 kHz) are often fitted with top-hat loading sections. What is the purpose of these structures? A.Provides aerodynamic compensation for stress during high winds B.Permits a physically short antenna to appear electrically longer C.Improves the near-field radiated pattern at the expense of the far-field pattern D.Prevents salt build-up on antennas from shunting RF energy to ground share/E6/6A4450000664000175000017500000000067012527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A445 C What is meant by the term polarization of a radio wave? A.Electromagnetic waves penetrate conductors because of eddy currents B.Electromagnetically charged waves cross the zero axis in perpendicular patterns causing polarization to appear C.The polarization of a radio wave is determined by the direction of the electromagnetic wave plane D.The polarization of a radio wave is determined by the direction of the magnetic wave plane share/E6/6A4820000664000175000017500000000024212527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A482 D Low sensitivity of a 3 circuit regenerative receiver might be caused by: A.Faulty tube B.Out of phase feedback C.Insufficient feedback D.All of the above share/E6/6A3290000664000175000017500000000025312527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A329 B The ____ of a DC motor periodically change the armature coils to maintain one direction of rotation: A.Field coils B.Connector C.Brushes D.Auxiliary speed control share/E6/6A2440000664000175000017500000000024212527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A244 A A transformer has a primary voltage of 100, primary turns = 200, and secondary turns = 40. What is the secondary voltage? A.20 V B.240 V C.140 V D.340 V share/E6/6A4880000664000175000017500000000046312527170605011251 0ustar jtnjtn6A488 C To adjust a regenerative receiver for maximum sensitivity: A.The station is tuned in with the receiver in the oscillating condition B.Slowly back the regeneration control off until the receiver just breaks out of oscillation and is also below the fringe howl point C.First A then B D.First B then A share/E6/6A600000664000175000017500000000017212527170605011150 0ustar jtnjtn6A60 A Two 10 W, 500 ohm resistors in parallel will dissipate how many watts? A.20 watts B.10 watts C.30 watts D.40 watts share/E6/6A1580000664000175000017500000000036012527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A158 C "Load" on a vacuum tube commonly refers to: A.The impedance through which plate current flows to produce a useful output B.Increases as the load impedance approaches the internal plate impedance in value C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4810000664000175000017500000000044212527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A481 A A regenerative, oscillating-detector receives directly coupled to an antenna: A.May radiate energy that can beat with other carrier frequencies and cause heterodyning interference in a number of receivers B.Cannot radiate energy C.Radiates extremely high energy D.None of the above share/E6/6A4400000664000175000017500000000040612527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A440 D Which antenna system has the ability to discriminate between various directions of receiving or transmitting? A.1/4 stub bi-directional B.Multi-band Marconi 1/2 wave C.1/2 wavelength Yagi perpendicular polarized antenna D.Single element vertical antenna share/E6/6A1760000664000175000017500000000037212527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A176 A Why is a center top usually provided for vacuum tube plate and grid return circuits when and AC filament supply is used? A.To prevent hum voltage from modulating the normal signals B.To allow more filament current C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5130000664000175000017500000000030112527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A513 A Unused portions of inductances in receivers are ____ to reduce any losses that might occur in these unused windings: A.Shorted B.Removed from the circuit C.Insulated D.Straightened out share/E6/6A4280000664000175000017500000000043312527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A428 D Instruments used to indicate various DC currents and voltages in a transmitter may be protected against damage to stray RF by: A.Insufficient grid blocking bias is applied to the grid when the key is open B.Shorted bias resistor C.Shorted key-click filter D.All of the above share/E6/6A4580000664000175000017500000000046312527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A458 A Advantages of high-frequency radio communication: A.The upper frequencies are substantially free of atmospheric interference, small antennas permit efficient mobile operation B.Man-made noises are no problem, reflections may easily occur from buildings and other objects C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1140000664000175000017500000000031212527170605011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A114 A For protection of personnel handling a transmitter: A.Ground all exposed metal parts B.Transmitter is equipped to shunt grounded faults C.Discontinue operating on high power D.None of the above share/E6/6A2150000664000175000017500000000017612527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A215 D The advantage of a single-button carbon microphone: A.High output voltage B.Sensitivity C.Low cost D.All of the above share/E6/6A4670000664000175000017500000000026612527170605011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A467 A An incoming signal causing image interference is ____ the IF above or below the frequency to which the receiver is tuned: A.Twice B.Three times C.Half of D.Three quarters of share/E6/6A4150000664000175000017500000000054212527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A415 A Code speed or number of words per minute transmitted have what effect if any on the bandwidth of emission of a radiotelegraph transmitter? A.It does have an effect. Bandwidth increases as the code speed is increased B.No effect. Bandwidth decreases as the code speed is increased C.Signal strength increases as the speed increases D.Both A & C share/E6/6A1610000664000175000017500000000027512527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A161 A Occurs when plate current equals electron emission for any given filament or cathode temperature: A.Plate saturation B.Electron saturation C.Filament saturation D.None of the above share/E6/6A1510000664000175000017500000000050112527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A151 D Transmitting tube filaments should be maintained at recommended voltages: A.To realize the greatest life-expectancy B.If the filament voltage is too low, the emission will be reduced and operation of the circuit may be adversely affected C.If the voltage is too high, the filament may burn out D.All of the above share/E6/6A5650000664000175000017500000000047412527170605011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A565 A What transmission should precede the transmission of the distress call? A.The distress call, when sent in radiotelegraph on 500 kHz shall as a general rule, be immediately preceded by the auto-alarm signal B.SOS should be sent three times C.The words "MAY DAY" should be sent three times D.None of the above share/E6/6A1630000664000175000017500000000025312527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A163 A Lack of requirement for neutralizing, except at ultra high frequencies, is an advantage of a tetrode over ____: A.A Triode B.A Pentode C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1920000664000175000017500000000033012527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A192 B Two dissimilar metals joined together and producing a current between them when the junction is heated is: A.A point contact type transistor B.A thermocouple C.A junction contact type transistor D.A solenoid share/E6/6A4750000664000175000017500000000054512527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A475 D Image response may be minimized in a superheterodyne receiver: A.By using one or more tuned RF stages ahead of the mixer B.By choosing a suitable IF (such that the image frequency will fall within the receiver's operating range) C.By choosing a suitable IF (such that the image frequency will fall outside of the receiver's operating range) D.A & C share/E6/6A4790000664000175000017500000000040012527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A479 D Disadvantages of a stage of RF amplification are: A.A power audio amplifier would be needed to operate a loudspeaker B.An RF amplifier requires additional tuned circuits and tuning elements C.Shielding will probably be necessary D.All of the above share/E6/6A4600000664000175000017500000000024212527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A460 B The relationship between the antenna current and radiated power of an antenna: A.P=I2 X R B.P=I2 X radiated resistance C.No relationship exists D.P=E x I share/E6/6A410000664000175000017500000000022012527170605011141 0ustar jtnjtn6A41 A The sum of all voltage drops around a simple DC circuit, including the source, is: A.Zero B.Insignificant C.Infinite D.None of the above share/E6/6A4090000664000175000017500000000036612527170605011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A409 C What is a self rectified circuit? A.Provides a tone frequency for F3F emissions B.An op-amp circuit that provides a feed-back to the input C.Provides a tone frequency for A-2 emissions D.A self oscillating frequency discriminator circuit share/E6/6A4380000664000175000017500000000050412527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A438 B To operate on a lower resonant frequency on an available Marconi antenna which would be the correct procedure? A.Add a capacitor in series with the antenna B.Add an inductor in series with the antenna C.Add a screen grid bypass capacitor parallel to the antenna trap D.Add an RF choke across the feed line to ground share/E6/6A5990000664000175000017500000000074412527170605011256 0ustar jtnjtn6A599 C What happens to a lower grade of Commercial Radiotelegraph License when a licensee qualifies for a higher grade? A.The lower grade is allowed to expire and may not be renewed B.The Second or Third Class Radiotelegraph license is modified to a higher class C.The lower grade is canceled. Only one unexpired radiotelegraph operator's certificate may be held at the same time D.Licensees are permitted to hold any number of radiotelegraph operator certificates at the same time share/E6/6A4370000664000175000017500000000040212527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A437 D The radiated wavelength of a Hertzian antenna is: A.1/2 the physical length of the modulated coaxial B.1/4 the physical length of the modulated RF line C.1/2 the physical length of the antenna D.Approximately twice the physical length of the antenna share/E6/6A5040000664000175000017500000000036012527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A504 A The auto alarm receiver is tuned to ____ but is able to respond to signals from ____ to ____ (+/- 12.5 kHz) A.500 kHz, 487.5 kHz, 512.5 kHz B.500 kHz, 485.0 kHz, 515 kHz C.500 kHz, 490.00 kHz, 510 kHz D.500 kHz, 470.00 kHz, 530 kHz share/E6/6A5600000664000175000017500000000037112527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A560 D How frequently must an entry be made in a ship radiotelegraph log while a radio watch is being maintained? A.At least every 15 minutes B.This is in addition to the entries referring to silent periods C.At least every 30 minutes D.Both A & B share/E6/6A5460000664000175000017500000000040612527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A546 D In determining a "fix" position by a marine LORAN system, what is the minimum number of land transmitters involved? A.A master & a slave station B.1 slave station C.2 slave stations & 1 master station D.Four, or two pairs of "master and "slave" stations share/E6/6A3070000664000175000017500000000031512527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A307 C Bleeder resistors are used in power supplies: A.To improve the output voltage regulation B.They also discharge the filter capacitor when the power is turned off C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3690000664000175000017500000000052112527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A369 B What is the purpose of a speech amplifier in connection with the modulator of a transmitter? A.Used to raise the gain of signal after filtering B.To raise the signal-to-noise ratio and the output voltage of microphones C.To feed the mixer where signal-to-noise ratio is raised D.To pre-amp the weaker of the two signals received share/E6/6A3910000664000175000017500000000036112527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A391 A If a 1500 kHz radio wave is modulated by a 2000 Hz sine wave tone, what frequencies does the modulated wave contain? A.1500 kHz , 1502 kHz , 1498 kHz B.1500 MHz , 1502 MHz , 1498 MHz C.1500 Hz , 1502 Hz , 1498 Hz D.None of the above share/E6/6A5940000664000175000017500000000122412527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A594 A How does an applicant qualify for a Third Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate? A.By passing the appropriate written examinations and receiving by ear code groups and plain text for a period of one minute without error at the appropriate speed B.Applicant must send and receive radiotelegraphy at the prescribed speed and be at least 21 years old C.By the successful completion of radiotelegraphy Elements 1 and 2 plus written examinations on radio law, telegraphy practices and transmitter maintenance D.By passing a written examination on radio law, electronic fundamentals and radiotelegraph practices plus a telegraphy receiving examination share/E6/6A5930000664000175000017500000000125512527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A593 C What examination requirements are necessary to obtain a Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate? A.Written Element 1 (radio law), Element 3 (electronic fundamentals), Element 5 (radiotelegraph operations) and sending/receiving 16/20 words per minute B.Telegraphy Element 1 (sending/receiving 16 code groups per minute) and Telegraphy Element 2 (16 code groups and 20 words per minute text.) C.Successful completion of written test Elements 1, 5 and 6 on basic radio law and operating practices plus telegraphy Elements 1 and 2 D.Successful completion of written test Elements 1, 3, 5 and 6 on basic radio law and operating practices plus telegraphy Elements 1 and B share/E6/6A4270000664000175000017500000000032212527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A427 A What may be observed as the antenna circuit is brought into resonance about the plate current of the final amplifier? A.It will increase B.It will decrease C.It will remain constant D.None of the above share/E6/6A1620000664000175000017500000000032212527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A162 B The most desirable factor in the choice of a vacuum tube for a voltage amplifier: A.A low value of transconductance B.A high value of transconductance C.High output tube capacitance D.None of the above share/E6/6A1690000664000175000017500000000030712527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A169 B Some radio-frequency amplifiers must be neutralized: A.To maintain linear operation B.To prevent sustained oscillations from occurring in the amplifier C.Sustain feedback D.None of the above share/E6/6A5760000664000175000017500000000054012527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A576 D If you receive a distress call signed by a call signal composed of five letters, could you determine the type of craft which transmitted the signal? A.Five letter call signals are assigned to aircraft stations B.Three letter call signals are assigned to land stations C.Four letter call signals are assigned to ship stations D.All of the above share/E6/6A3140000664000175000017500000000056412527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A314 A The purpose of an air gap in a filter choke coil core. Which is the incorrect answer? A.To decrease the effective inductance for the AC component of current by increasing the DC saturation B.To increase the effective inductance for the AC component of current by decreasing the DC saturation C.The inductance of the coil in general's decreased D.All of the above share/E6/6A6060000664000175000017500000000073112527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A606 A Who may install, maintain or adjust radiotelephone transmitters which radiate less than 50 watts carrier power? A.Anyone under the immediate supervision and responsibility of a person holding a first of second class radiotelegraph or general radiotelephone operator license B.Only a properly licensed radiotelephone operator C.Any holder of a marine radio operator permit or higher D.Only persons holding an operator certificate containing a ship radar endorsement share/E6/6A1660000664000175000017500000000035012527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A166 A Tubes operated as Class C amplifiers are not suited for audio-frequency amplifiers: A.Because of excessive distortion B.Because of current requirement C.Because of reduced life expectancy of the filament D.None of the above share/E6/6A3530000664000175000017500000000043312527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A353 C What effect will high coupling between the plate and grid circuits of a quartz-crystal oscillator have? A.The grid to plate capacitance will be destroyed B.The oscillation will be higher because of higher Q C.Overheating of the crystal and possible breakage D.Overmodulation share/E6/6A630000664000175000017500000000025612527170605011156 0ustar jtnjtn6A63 A If a vacuum tube with a filament rating of 0.25 A and 5 V is operated from a 6 volt battery, what value of resistor is necessary? A.4 ohms B.5 ohms C.10 ohms D.2 ohms share/E6/6A3450000664000175000017500000000020712527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A345 A A 3 HP 100 V DC motor is 85% efficient when developing its rated output. What is the current? A.23.93 A B.25 A C.20 A D.8.5 A share/E6/6A1250000664000175000017500000000024312527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A125 B A tube similar to a triode with the addition of a spirally wound screen grid between the plate and control grid is a: A.Diode B.Tetrode C.Pentode D.Triode share/E6/6A4540000664000175000017500000000027312527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A454 A A wavetrap in a receiver: A.Prevents the effects of any undesired output of the receiver B.Generates desired frequencies in the output of the receiver C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4940000664000175000017500000000024112527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A494 A Generally used to prevent any undesired frequencies from appearing in the output of a receiver: A.Wave trap B.Wave guide C.Ripple filter D.Tarody screen share/E6/6A2000000664000175000017500000000023512527170605011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A200 D Contacts which slide together on opening and closing: A.Are butt joined B.Are known as self-wiping C.Keep the contacts clean by their action D.B & C share/E6/6A2800000664000175000017500000000030412527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A280 D Why should there be ventilation to the room housing a large group of storage cells? A.To prevent gas accumulation B.To prevent overheating C.To prevent the terminals from shorting D.A & B share/E6/6A5210000664000175000017500000000047712527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A521 B What is the purpose of a shunt as used with an ammeter? A.To permit a decrease in the indicating range of the meter B.To permit an increase in the indicating range of the meter which is almost inversely proportional to the resistance of the shunt C.A shunt should not be used with a ammeter D.None of the above share/E6/6A440000664000175000017500000000021212527170605011145 0ustar jtnjtn6A44 A A minute subdivision of matter having the smallest known unit of negative electrical charge is: A.Electron B.Ion C.Gilbert D.Joule share/E6/6A220000664000175000017500000000013112527170605011141 0ustar jtnjtn6A22 A The unit of AC impedance in a circuit is: A.Ohm B.Mho C.Joule D.None of the above share/E6/6A4920000664000175000017500000000053312527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A492 C In the case of an open secondary winding in a coupling transformer causing no signal in the first AF stage, satisfactory repair could be made by: A.Replacing the transformer B.Disconnecting the secondary winding and changing the coupling system to impedance coupling with a grid resistor and coupling capacitor C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4770000664000175000017500000000064612527170605011252 0ustar jtnjtn6A477 D A regenerative receiver's operation is: A.An incoming RF carrier is coupled into the tuned-grid circuit and applied to the grid B.It is then amplified in the usual manner. A controllable portion of the plate signal is coupled back into the grid circuit C.The coupled back signal is in phase with the original signal thus amplifying it and providing a greater output signal in the plate circuit D.All of the above share/E6/6A5690000664000175000017500000000035512527170605011251 0ustar jtnjtn6A569 C When the auto-alarm bell rings, what should the operator do? A.Proceed immediately to the radio room and press the reset button B.If the bell stops, the operator should listen for further signals C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1400000664000175000017500000000034312527170605011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A140 A The DC bias in a Class A amplifier: A.Usually is negative as measured at the grid with respect to cathode B.Usually is positive as measured at the grid with respect to cathode C.Cannot be determined D.None of the above share/E6/6A3340000664000175000017500000000035512527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A334 B The motor-field rheostat should be ____ when starting a DC motor generator set: A.Minimum resistance in the armature circuit B.Minimum resistance in the field circuit C.Maximum resistance in the field circuit D.None of the above share/E6/6A3030000664000175000017500000000036312527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A303 C The principal function of the filter in a power supply: A.To remove the variations in amplitude of the rectifier output B.To provide a relatively unvarying DC voltage for use in the various circuits C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1330000664000175000017500000000037012527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A133 C In what types of circuits do beam power vacuum tubes find application? A.As audio amplifier in the output and power stages of circuits having low to moderately high output ratings B.As an RF power amplifier C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1540000664000175000017500000000047312527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A154 D Bias voltage on the grid of an AF amplifier tube: A.Determines the operating conditions of the tube B.The correct value is essential for undistorted Class A output C.In power amplifiers the plate current must be limited to safe value not to exceed the rated plate dissipation of the tube D.All of the above share/E6/6A6000000664000175000017500000000072212527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A600 A What is an operating control requirement of a ship station using telegraphy? A.The ship station must be capable of automatically changing from telegraphy transmission to telegraph reception B.A ship station control operator must stand watch on emergency channels at all times C.Only a licensed First Class Radiotelegraph Operator may operate a ship station D.The ship station must be capable of changing from one radio channel to another within five seconds share/E6/6A5330000664000175000017500000000043412527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A533 A What is the reception pattern of a vertical antenna? A.It has minimum radiation or reception vertically B.A vertical Jackson antenna has a pattern which is nondirectional with regard to all compass points C.It has maximum radiation or reception vertically D.None of the above share/E6/6A1820000664000175000017500000000024712527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A182 C A power detector may be operated: A.As a square law detector B.As a linear detector C.As either a square law detector or a linear detector D.None of the above share/E6/6A3060000664000175000017500000000050612527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A306 A Part of the secondary winding of a transmitters power transformer is accidentally shorted. What should be the immediate effect? A.The current would rise to an excessive value and trip the circuit breaker B.The short would burn the transformer C.The current in the secondary winding would decrease D.None of the above share/E6/6A4680000664000175000017500000000026512527170605011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A468 A A superheterodyne receiver is adjusted to 2738 kHz. The IF is 475 kHz. What is the grid circuit of the second detector tuned to? A.475 kHz B.950 kHz C.2263 kHz D.3213 kHz share/E6/6A2130000664000175000017500000000016012527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A213 A What substance is the most widely used in crystal oscillators? A.Quartz B.Galena C.Silicon D.Tourmaline share/E6/6A2880000664000175000017500000000034012527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A288 A If a receiver storage A battery could not be kept charged, and maintain the required watch period, what should you do? A.Increase the charging rate B.Get a new battery C.Discontinue the required watch period D.B & C share/E6/6A4610000664000175000017500000000017512527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A461 D Iron compound cylinders found in inductances: A.Increase Q B.Increase selectivity C.Increase gain D.All of the above share/E6/6A2690000664000175000017500000000017012527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A269 D Sulfation: A.Reduces terminal voltage B.Increases internal resistance C.Reduces power output D.All of the above share/E6/6A6050000664000175000017500000000076412527170605011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A605 C Which operator is authorized to make equipment adjustments at maritime radio stations which may affect transmitter operation? A.The holder of a marine radio operator permit or higher class license B.The holder of a restricted radiotelephone operator permit when the radiated power is less than 100 watts C.Only the holders of a first or second class radiotelegraph of the general radiotelephone operator's license D.The holder of a GMDSS radio operator or higher class radiotelephone license share/E6/6A2570000664000175000017500000000024212527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A257 D The electrolyte of a lead-acid storage cell: A.Concentrated sulfuric acid B.Dilute sulfuric acid C.Has a specific gravity about 1.3 fully charged D.B & C share/E6/6A820000664000175000017500000000035112527170605011153 0ustar jtnjtn6A82 C The formula for determining the resonant frequency of a circuit when the inductance and capacitance are known is: A.f = 1/(2 pi times the square root of LC) B.f = 0.159/(the square root of LC) C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2310000664000175000017500000000046712527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A231 A Why is a push-pull audio frequency amplifier preferable to a single-tube stage? A.When compared with a single-tube stage, power output is doubled B.When compared with a single-tube stage, power output is the same C.When compared with a single-tube stage, power output is cut in half D.None of the above share/E6/6A2420000664000175000017500000000021112527170605011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A242 D Efficiency of a power transformer is determined by: A.Eddy current losses B.Hysteresis losses C.Copper losses D.All of the above share/E6/6A2550000664000175000017500000000026012527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A255 A A means of comparing the weight of a volume of liquid with the same volume of distilled water: A.Specific gravity B.Specific mass C.Specific volume D.None of the above share/E6/6A2980000664000175000017500000000026512527170605011250 0ustar jtnjtn6A298 C Heat developed within a storage cell under charge or discharge conditions is caused by: A.I2R losses B.Energy transfer due to chemical reactions C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4040000664000175000017500000000035212527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A404 C An advantage of link coupling between RF amplifier stages is: A.The flexibility of mechanical construction possible B.Reduction of tube capacitance effects on the L/C ratio of the tank circuits C.Both A and B D.Neither A or B share/E6/6A100000664000175000017500000000045212527170605011144 0ustar jtnjtn6A10 D Factors which determine the amplitude of the voltage induced in a conductor which is cutting magnetic lines of force: A.Flux density B.Velocity that the conductor cuts the magnetic lines of force C.The angle at which the conductor cuts through the magnetic lines of force D.All of the above share/E6/6A5380000664000175000017500000000050412527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A538 C What is the function of the balancing capacitor in a direction finder? A.To maximize "antenna effect" and so obtain a sharper null point indication of direction B.To reduce the noise factor in the first IF C.To minimize "antenna effect" and so obtain a sharper null point indication of direction D.None of the above share/E6/6A1600000664000175000017500000000031712527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A160 A The maximum power that can be safely and continuously dissipated in heat on the plate: A.Maximum plate dissipation B.Maximum power dissipation C.Continuous plate dissipation D.Plate heat dissipation share/E6/6A3770000664000175000017500000000035412527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A377 B For 100% modulation, DC power input to the modulated RF amplifier should: A.Be the same as the AC power from the modulation B.Be 1/2 the AC power from the modulation C.Be 1/4 the AC power from the modulation D.None of the above share/E6/6A4430000664000175000017500000000026712527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A443 C What modulation is contained in static and lightning radio waves? A.All odd harmonic frequencies B.All even harmonic frequencies C.Amplitude modulation D.Frequency modulation share/E6/6A1710000664000175000017500000000022012527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A171 D The diode detector: A.Is square law on weak signals B.Is practically linear on strong signals C.Is square law on strong signals D.A & B share/E6/6A4490000664000175000017500000000020212527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A449 C Frequencies with substantially line propagations: A.VHF, UHF, microwave B.About 50-30,000 MHz C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4230000664000175000017500000000052712527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A423 C A master-oscillator power-amplifier transmitter has been operating normally. The antenna ammeter suddenly reads zero. All filaments are burning and plate and grid meters read normal currents and voltages. What happened? A.A shorted antenna ammeter B.An open connection in the remote reading meter C.Both a and b D.None of the above share/E6/6A4210000664000175000017500000000042512527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A421 A What point on a shipboard antenna system displays the maximum potential? A.The end of the antenna furthest from the transmission line connections B.The end of the antenna closest to the transmission line connections C.Near the center of the antenna D.None of the above share/E6/6A660000664000175000017500000000024212527170605011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A66 A What is the total power dissipation capability of two 10 watt 500 ohm resistors connected in parallel? A.20 watts B.40 watts C.5 watts D.None of the above share/E6/6A5260000664000175000017500000000055412527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A526 B Does an AC ammeter indicate peak, average, or effective values of current? A.The conventional AC ammeter is calibrated to indicate effective (TRM) values of current B.The conventional AC ammeter is calibrated to indicate effective (RMS) values of current C.An AC ammeter indicates peak values of current D.An AC ammeter indicates average values of current share/E6/6A3410000664000175000017500000000033412527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A341 D By-pass capacitors are often connected across the brushes of a high-voltage DC generator: A.To regulate the voltage B.To protect the generator winding from high voltage surges C.To reduce RF interference D.B & C share/E6/6A4420000664000175000017500000000070312527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A442 D A vertical loop antenna has a: A.Omni-directional pattern which is maximum in the directions of the plane of the loop, and minimum in the directions broadside to the loop B.Non-directional with regard to compass points C.Has minimum radiation or reception in the direction of the ends of the antenna D.Has a bi-directional pattern which is maximum in the direction of the plane of the loop, and minimum in the directions broadside to the loop share/E6/6A5950000664000175000017500000000051212527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A595 C What examination credit is accorded Amateur Extra Class operators? A.20 code groups and 25 text words per minute B.Amateur radio operators are not eligible for commercial radio operator examination credit C.Commercial radio operator telegraphy Elements 1 and 2 D.Written Element 1, basic radio law and operating practices share/E6/6A5290000664000175000017500000000036712527170605011250 0ustar jtnjtn6A529 A By what factor must the voltage of an ac circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the average voltage value? A.By the factor of 0.9 B.By the factor of 9.0 C.By the factor of A.0 D.By the factor of B.0 share/E6/6A890000664000175000017500000000033312527170605011162 0ustar jtnjtn6A89 A The total inductance of two coils in series without any mutual coupling is: A.The sum of the individual inductances B.The product of the individual inductances divided by their sum C.Infinite D.None of the above share/E6/6A5780000664000175000017500000000034712527170605011252 0ustar jtnjtn6A578 D How frequently must the quantity of fuel in the supply tank for use with an oil or gas driven emergency generator be checked while the vessel is in the open sea? A.Once a week B.Every 12 hours C.Every 48 hours D.Once daily share/E6/6A2990000664000175000017500000000027612527170605011253 0ustar jtnjtn6A299 A How would you connect a group of similar cells in a storage battery to obtain the maximum zero resistance current? A.In parallel B.In series C.In series/parallel D.None of the above share/E6/6A2740000664000175000017500000000034012527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A274 D Local action in a lead-acid storage cell: A.Causes a slow discharge in the cell B.Forms a very hard sulfate on the plates C.May be reduced by trickle charging when the battery is not in actual use D.All of the above share/E6/6A1780000664000175000017500000000030212527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A178 A Given the following vacuum tube constants: Gp = 1000 V, Ip = 150 mA, Ig = 10 mA, Grid leaks = 5000 ohms. What would be the grid bias voltage? A.50 V B.100 V C.25 V D.None of the above share/E6/6A3170000664000175000017500000000034712527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A317 C Why should the case of a high-voltage transformer be grounded? A.To protect personnel handling the equipment from shock B.To prevent high static voltages building up between the case and grounds C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A520000664000175000017500000000031512527170605011150 0ustar jtnjtn6A52 C What factors determine the heat generated in a conductor? A.It is directly proportional to the resistance B.It is directly proportional to the square of the current C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5570000664000175000017500000000046312527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A557 C Between what points on a ship, compulsorily equipped with a radiotelegraph installation, is a reliable intercommunication system required? A.Between the forward bridge and the radio room B.Between the radio room and engineering C.Between the radio room and the navigation bridge D.None of the above share/E6/6A2430000664000175000017500000000045112527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A243 D The ratios of primary and secondary currents in a power transformer: A.Are approximately in inverse ratio to the turns ratio B.Is to some extent affected by the diameter of the primary and secondary wire C.The current ratio is in inverse proportion to the voltage ratio D.All of the above share/E6/6A860000664000175000017500000000032112527170605011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A86 D What is the total impedance of a parallel capacitor and inductor with equal values of reactance? A.Infinite total reactance B.Zero total reactance C.Parallel impedance is resistive and infinite D.B & C share/E6/6A1360000664000175000017500000000076612527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A136 A Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a class A amplifier: A.Low plate circuit efficiency, about 25%; practically no grid driving power; plate current flowing for 360 degrees of each cycle; practically no distortion of the output waveshape B.Plate circuit efficiency, about 50-60%; plate current flows slightly more than 180 degrees of each cycle, medium power output C.High efficiency, up to 80%; plate current drawn in bursts; great distortion of output waveshape D.None of the above share/E6/6A80000664000175000017500000000020612527170605011070 0ustar jtnjtn6A8 D Voltage may be expressed by what other expression? A.Difference of potential B.IF drop C.Electromotive force D.All of the above share/E6/6A4340000664000175000017500000000025512527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A434 C If the output frequency after passing through three doubler stages is 16,800 kHz, give the crystal frequency of a transmitter: A.2160 kHz B.2 GHz C.2110 kHz D.2 kHz share/E6/6A720000664000175000017500000000032312527170605011151 0ustar jtnjtn6A72 A A relay coil has 500 ohms resistance, and operates on 125 mA. What value of resistance should be connected in series with it to operate from 110 VDC? A.380 ohms B.400 ohms C.200 ohms D.None of the above share/E6/6A3310000664000175000017500000000042012527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A331 A When the field of a shunt-wound DC motor opens while the machine is operating under no load: A.The motor would race, and if unchoked, might destroy itself B.The motor would quit running without damage C.The motor would burn out the field coils D.None of the above share/E6/6A5700000664000175000017500000000026112527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A570 A What space of time should elapse between the transmission of the international auto-alarm signal and the distress call? A.2 minutes B.4 minutes C.5 minutes D.10 minutes share/E6/6A3480000664000175000017500000000021612527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A348 A The speed of a DC series motor is determined: A.By the load B.By the number of pairs of poles C.By the commutator D.None of the above share/E6/6A3600000664000175000017500000000022512527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A360 C Which class of amplifier is used in the final amplifier stage for maximum plate efficiency? A.Class A B.Class B C.Class C D.Filtered Class D share/E6/6A880000664000175000017500000000050512527170605011162 0ustar jtnjtn6A88 D What is the total reactance of a series AC circuit, with no resistance and equal inductance and capacitive reactances? A.The two reactances cancel being equal and opposite B.Net impedance is purely resistive and contains no reactive component C.The total reactance is zero at the resonant frequency D.All of the above share/E6/6A1390000664000175000017500000000025412527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A139 A In the usual Class A amplifier: A.There is no grid current B.Plate current flows slightly more than 180 degrees of each cycle C.Biased to twice D.None of the above share/E6/6A3100000664000175000017500000000033012527170605011222 0ustar jtnjtn6A310 A What is the maximum allowable secondary voltage of a transformer used as a center-tapped full-wave rectifier with tubes having a peak inverse voltage rating of 10,000 V? A.7070 V B.14140 V C.10000 V D.5000 V share/E6/6A3270000664000175000017500000000021412527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A327 D A compound-wound DC motor: A.Has constant speed under changing load conditions B.Low starting torque C.High starting torque D.A & B share/E6/6A2590000664000175000017500000000031712527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A259 B The positive plate of a lead-acid storage cell: A.Is composed of pure spongy lead B.Is composed of lead peroxide C.Is composed of a compound of pure spongy lead and lead peroxide D.None of the above share/E6/6A3230000664000175000017500000000055012527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A323 D The power transformer and rectifier of a radio receiver are designed to supply a plate voltage of 250 V when operating from a 110 V 60 Hz supply, if the transformer is connected to 110 VDC what will happen? A.The secondary would burn out B.The primary would overheat and burn out C.The circuit breaker would open to protect the circuit D.Either A or B share/E6/6A810000664000175000017500000000044212527170605011153 0ustar jtnjtn6A81 A The relationship between the number of turns and the inductance of a coil may be expressed by: A.The inductance varies approximately as the square of the number of turns B.The inductance varies approximately as the square root of the number of turns C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4290000664000175000017500000000055112527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A429 D In a radiotelegraph transmitter with a DC generator plate voltage source, an AC generator filament supply, and grid-bias keying, what could be wrong when the emission continues with the key contacts open? A.Insufficient grid blocking bias is applied to the grid when the key is open B.Shorted bias resistor C.Shorted key-click filter D.All of the above share/E6/6A5280000664000175000017500000000025112527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A528 C How may the range of a thermocouple ammeter be increased? A.By using a current transformer B.By using a capacitor shunt C.Both A & B D.By using a resistor shunt share/E6/6A1350000664000175000017500000000031212527170605011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A135 B The emission of electrons from a material due to the impact of high-velocity electrons on its surface is: A.Primary electron emission B.Secondary emission C.Mimetic emission D.None of the above share/E6/6A3510000664000175000017500000000035012527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A351 C What conditions must be met before two AC generators can be operated in parallel? A.Output voltages must be equal, frequencies must match B.Phase rotation, and relative phase positions must match C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A6070000664000175000017500000000070012527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A607 D Who may program authorized frequency channels into a transmitter or transceiver used in the maritime service? A.Any person who has the authorization of the station licensee or ship's master B.A licensed marine radio operator or higher C.A person holding a restricted radiotelephone operator permit or higher D.Only persons holding a first or second class radiotelegraph operator's certificate or a general radiotelephone operator's license share/E6/6A2840000664000175000017500000000017112527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A284 C How may polarity of a storage battery be determined? A.Voltmeter B.Salt water method C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A910000664000175000017500000000046512527170605011161 0ustar jtnjtn6A91 A In an AC circuit, a series inductance acting alone: A.Causes the current to lag the applied voltage by 90 degrees B.Causes the current to lead the applied voltage by 90 degrees C.Causes the current to lag the applied voltage by 45 degrees D.Causes the current to lead the applied voltage by 45 degrees share/E6/6A4860000664000175000017500000000053212527170605011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A486 A How would you adjust a regenerative receiver without RF amplifier stages to receive radiotelegraph signals through interference? A.Provide the maximum selectivity and gain at the incoming signal frequency B.Increase the degree of coupling between the antenna and grid coils C.Provide the minimum possible regeneration D.None of the above share/E6/6A4590000664000175000017500000000042412527170605011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A459 D Transmitters that employ variometers rather than variable capacitors as tuning elements do so because of: A.The size of required variable capacitors in the medium frequency band B.There is no such thing as a variometer! C.Variometers can be relatively compact D.A & C share/E6/6A1300000664000175000017500000000053012527170605011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A130 C What is the primary purpose of the screen grid of the tetrode? A.Reduces the grid to plate capacitance, making it unnecessary to neutralize RF amplifiers except at very high frequencies B.Makes the plate current substantially independent of plate voltage, permitting much higher values of amplification C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5320000664000175000017500000000070512527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A532 D What is the directional reception pattern of a loop antenna? A.A vertical loop antenna has a bidirectional pattern which is maximum in the directions in the plane of the loop, and minimum in the directions broadside to the loop B.A horizontal loop antenna is nondirectional along the plane of the loop. It has minimum radiation or reception vertically C.A horizontal loop antenna is directional along the plane of the loop antenna D.Both A & B share/E6/6A5020000664000175000017500000000044312527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A502 C The first detector in a superheterodyne receiver: A.Acts as a mixer, providing the action which produces the desired intermediate frequency B.The first detector must be operated on the non linear portion of its characteristic to provide the proper action C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4390000664000175000017500000000044012527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A439 D By reducing the physical length of a Hertzian antenna what are the results? A.The resonant frequency will be reduced B.The signal on a nearby frequency will be saturated upon modulation C.The antenna trap is reduced causing cross modulation D.The resonant frequency will increase share/E6/6A3840000664000175000017500000000041212527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A384 D A series-fed plate circuit of a vacuum tube amplifier has a short circuit of the plate bypass capacitor. What happened? A.It would short out the power supply B.It would remove the plate voltage C.It would possibly damage the power supply D.All of the above share/E6/6A2020000664000175000017500000000041512527170605011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A202 A Emergency repairs to an inductance coil having burned or charred insulation: A.Are generally impractical, short of rewinding the coil with good wire B.Are always practical if repaired by coating the bad turns with insulating varnish C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5450000664000175000017500000000040612527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A545 C How should a radar set be adjusted by the operator to reduce "sea return"? A.Rotate the antenna for a deep null B.Reduce the gain control C.The operator should manually adjust the "suppressor" control or sensitivity time control, STC D.None of the above share/E6/6A4910000664000175000017500000000051012527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A491 D If signals are heard with headphones in the detector plate circuit of a receiver, but none are heard with headphones in the first AF stage plate circuit, what might be the cause? A.Open winding of the coupling transformer B.Defective coupling capacitor, improper operating potentials C.Defective tube D.All of the above share/E6/6A3260000664000175000017500000000023712527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A326 B This partially counteracts the line voltage and so limits the armature current in a DC motor: A.EMF B.Counter EMF C.Opposition EMF D.None of the above share/E6/6A210000664000175000017500000000026212527170605011145 0ustar jtnjtn6A21 D Resistance is: A.The quantity which determines power loss or dissipation B.The factor of proportionality between voltage and current C.Measured in ohms D.All of the above share/E6/6A3590000664000175000017500000000042612527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A359 C The buffer amplifier stage of a transmitter: A.To hold any discriminator signals until verified by the varactor diode circuits B.Buffers any signals that may have been imposed upon the carrier signal C.To improve the frequency stability of the oscillator D.Both A and C share/E6/6A5640000664000175000017500000000047712527170605011251 0ustar jtnjtn6A564 C Describe how a distress call should be made: A.The distress call should be made three times B.SOS should be called twice C.The distress call shall include the distress signal transmitted three times, the word DE, and the call signal of the mobile station in distress transmitted three times D.None of the above share/E6/6A6080000664000175000017500000000033112527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A608 A What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of a high frequency radiotelegraphy signal, emission A1A, in the maritime service? A.0.4 kHz B.0.2 kHz C.Minimum necessary to complete necessary communications D.1 kHz share/E6/6A2600000664000175000017500000000041512527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A260 D The chemical composition of the electrolyte in an Edison-type storage cell: A.Is contained in a nickel-plated sheet steel tank B.Has a specific gravity of about 1.200 C.Is a 21% solution of potassium and lithium hydroxides in distilled water D.All of the above share/E6/6A5750000664000175000017500000000047412527170605011250 0ustar jtnjtn6A575 C With what type(s) of emission and upon what frequency should a transmitter be adjusted to transmit a distress call? A.The distress wave of 600 kHz and type C emission B.The distress wave of 400 kHz and type C emission C.The international distress wave of 500 kHz / type A-2 OR B emission D.None of the above share/E6/6A3860000664000175000017500000000026612527170605011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A386 A The total bandwidth of a transmitter using A-2 emission with a modulating frequency of 800 Hz and a carrier frequency of 500 kHz is: A.1600 Hz B.1.6 kHz C.800 kHz D.1000 kHz share/E6/6A4970000664000175000017500000000035612527170605011252 0ustar jtnjtn6A497 D Minimizes transfer of harmonic frequencies between two inductively coupled circuits: A.*** B.Induces magnetic shielding between two coils C.Transfers energy between two coils D.None of the above share/E6/6A4300000664000175000017500000000055012527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A430 A A station has an assigned frequency of 8000 kHz and a frequency tolerance of plus or minus 0.04%. The oscillator operates at 1/8th of the input. What is the maximum permitted deviation of the oscillation frequency in Hz, which will not exceed the tolerance? A.Plus or minus 400 Hz B.Plus or minus 320 Hz C.Plus or minus 800 Hz D.Plus or minus 640 Hz share/E6/6A5720000664000175000017500000000035412527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A572 B Upon hearing an SOS, what should an operator do? A.Should repeat the SOS to all traffic B.Immediately cease all transmissions capable of interfering with the distress traffic C.Contact the vessel in distress D.None of the above share/E6/6A1230000664000175000017500000000032512527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A123 C Can a transformer be used with direct current? A.In general, no B.If the DC current is periodically interrupted it would be possible to use an original DC voltage source C.Both A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1120000664000175000017500000000032012527170605011221 0ustar jtnjtn6A112 B The total impedance of a series AC circuit with an inductive reactance of 24 ohms, a resistance of 16 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 16 ohms is: A.20 ohms B.16 ohms C.10 ohms D.None of the above share/E6/6A1430000664000175000017500000000014412527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A143 B The approximate efficiency of a Class B vacuum tube amplifier: A.20%-30% B.60% C.85% D.100% share/E6/6A5150000664000175000017500000000042112527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A515 A The keying circuit of the ships transmitter is disconnected: A.When the auto-alarm antenna switch is placed in the auto-alarm operating position B.When the auto-alarm antenna switch is placed in the auto-alarm off position C.Manually as desired D.None of the above share/E6/6A5190000664000175000017500000000044312527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A519 C The D'Arsonval type meter consists of: A.A permanent magnet, a movable coil with pointer attached rotating in jewel bearing B.A movable coil with pointer attached rotating in jewel bearings, and two spiral springs (one on each side of the removable coil) C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5440000664000175000017500000000040312527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A544 B Approximately at what speed does the antenna of a navigational radar rotate? A.At speeds ranging from about 6 to 19 RPM B.At speeds ranging from about 6 to 15 RPM C.At speeds ranging from about 15 to 30 RPM D.At speeds ranging from about 20 to 40 RPM share/E6/6A3740000664000175000017500000000024312527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A374 C The efficiency of a grid-bias modulated stage should be: A.Maximum at complete modulation B.Minimum at zero modulation C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1550000664000175000017500000000035612527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A155 C The screen grid in a vacuum tube: A.Makes it unnecessary to neutralize RF amplifiers except at very high frequencies, B.Makes it possible to obtain much higher values of amplification than with triodes C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5390000664000175000017500000000045012527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A539 B What is indicated by the bearing obtained from the use of a bilateral radio direction finder? A.A line of direction which passes through two stations B.A line of direction which passes through the originating station C.A line of direction can read in either direction D.None of the above share/E6/6A330000664000175000017500000000034112527170605011146 0ustar jtnjtn6A33 A The prefix " meg " means: A.Multiply by 1,000,000 whatever quantity follows B.Multiply by 100,000 whatever quantity follows C.Multiply by 1,000 whatever quantity follows D.Divide by 1,000,000 whatever quantity follows share/E6/6A3300000664000175000017500000000031512527170605011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A330 A The speed of a series DC motor may increase and destroy the motor by centrifugal action: A.When operated without a load B.When operated on AC C.When operated under varying load D.None of the above share/E6/6A90000664000175000017500000000016112527170605011071 0ustar jtnjtn6A9 D Amperage may also be known by: A.Electron flow B.Electron drift C.Electric current flow D.All of the above share/E6/6A250000664000175000017500000000022612527170605011151 0ustar jtnjtn6A25 C What factors determine the charge stored in a capacitor? A.Capacitance of the capacitor B.The applied voltage C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3670000664000175000017500000000046512527170605011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A367 D Three main factors to consider about grid-leak in a vacuum tube transmitter: A.The value of grid leak current and grid leak anode to grid B.The value of grid leak resistance and duration of time the grid current is flowing C.Internal resistance of the tube between the grid and cathode D.Both B and C share/E6/6A1800000664000175000017500000000033712527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A180 A A dynatron oscillator is a ____ which depends upon the negative resistance characteristic of a tetrode tube for its operation: A.Tuned circuit operation B.Diode detector C.Magnetron oscillator D.Meystron oscillator share/E6/6A1640000664000175000017500000000100412527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A164 C Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a Class C amplifier: A.Low plate circuit efficiency, about 25%; practically no grid driving power; plate current flowing for 360 degrees of each cycle; practically no distortion of the output waveshape B.Plate circuit efficiency, about 50-60%; plate current flows slightly more than 180 degrees of each cycle; medium power output C.High plate circuit efficiency, up to 80%; plate current drawn in bursts; great distortion of output waveshape D.None of the above share/E6/6A3190000664000175000017500000000026412527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A319 C Full wave rectification has ____ than half-wave: A.Better output voltage regulation B.Smaller filter components for a given ripple percentage C.A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A430000664000175000017500000000040112527170605011144 0ustar jtnjtn6A43 D The diameter of a conductor six inches long is doubled, what will be the effect on the resistance? A.One-fourth the original value B.One-half the original value C.The resistance varies inversely with the cross-sectional area of the conductor D.A & C share/E6/6A1290000664000175000017500000000030712527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A129 A What is the primary purpose of the control grid of the triode? A.To provide a means of obtaining amplification B.To neutralize RF amplifiers C.Blocks passage of electrons D.None of the above share/E6/6A5880000664000175000017500000000116112527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A588 C How does a First Class Radiotelegraph Operator renew an unexpired license? A.Renewal document indicating license serial number must be forwarded to the FCC during the last 90 days of the license term B.Application is made to the nearest Commercial Operator Licensing Examination Manager (COLEM) during the final six months of the license term C.By submitting Form 756, current license copy, and appropriate fee to the FCC during the last year of the five year license term D.A current Radio telegraphy Proficiency Testimonial (RPT) obtained from the ship's master must be attached to the renewal application Form 739 share/E6/6A400000664000175000017500000000014612527170605011147 0ustar jtnjtn6A40 A Electrical resistance is measured with: A.An ohmmeter B.A wattmeter C.An Ammeter D.A voltmeter share/E6/6A1560000664000175000017500000000035012527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A156 D The suppressor grid in a multielement vacuum tube: A.Is highly negative with respect to the plate B.Returns secondary electrons to the plate C.Increases the permissible gain and the efficiency of the tube D.All of the above share/E6/6A6120000664000175000017500000000107112527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A612 B What is the antenna requirement aboard a survival craft equipped with a non-portable radiotelegraph installation? A.The minimum lifeboat antenna requirement is an HF half-wave dipole capable of efficiently tuning distress frequencies B.The antenna must be single wire inverted L type of maximum practicable length and height above the waterline C.The antenna must be tested at least once during each voyage and a minimum of once a week on longer voyages D.The antenna must be located a minimum of 8 meters above the waterline to insure the safety of passengers share/E6/6A1930000664000175000017500000000022412527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A193 D Waveguides: A.A type of transmission line B.Hollow rectangular or circular pipe C.Fine application as transmission lines D.All of the above share/E6/6A1240000664000175000017500000000017712527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A124 A A tube containing either a filament or cathode structure, grid, and a plate is a: A.Triode B.Tetrode C.Pentode D.Diode share/E6/6A2870000664000175000017500000000053412527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A287 C What capacity in amperes of storage battery is required to operate a 50 W emergency transmitter for 6 hr.? Assume a continuous transmitter load of 70% of the key-locked demand of 40 A, and an emergency light load of 1.5 A. A.A battery rated greater than 177 amperhours B.A battery rated at least 177 amperhours C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1590000664000175000017500000000027512527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A159 A A case in which the grid is held at an excessively negative value for a period of time thereby cutting off plate current: A.Blocked grid B.Blocked plate C.Motorboating D.Tuned grid share/E6/6A3110000664000175000017500000000036312527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A311 D If a 60 Hz transformer is connected to a 120 Hz source of the same voltage: A.The impedance of the transformers would be greater B.The current would be reduced C.There would be a decrease in power delivered to the load D.All the above share/E6/6A3240000664000175000017500000000031512527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A324 A A shunt-wound DC motor: A.Has a practically constant speed under widely varying load conditions B.Has poor speed regulation under varying load conditions C.High starting torque D.None of the above share/E6/6A5860000664000175000017500000000021212527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A586 B In what city is the major telecommunication center of the United States located? A.Houston B.New York City C.Washington D.Chicago share/E6/6A4640000664000175000017500000000036112527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A464 A A form of regenerative receiver in which the detector breaks into and out of oscillation at a rate above audibility: A.Superregenerative receiver B.Superheterodyne receiver C.Discriminator receiver D.Detuned radio frequency receiver share/E6/6A1420000664000175000017500000000014412527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A142 A The approximate efficiency of a Class A vacuum tube amplifier: A.20%-30% B.60% C.85% D.100% share/E6/6A640000664000175000017500000000024712527170605011157 0ustar jtnjtn6A64 A The minimum power dissipation rating of a resistor of 20,000 ohms across a potential of 500 V should be: A.25 watts B.12.5 watts C.15 watts D.None of the above share/E6/6A1810000664000175000017500000000022312527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A181 D Materials which can be used as crystal detectors: A.Silicon, galena B.Carborundum, iron pyrites C.Silicon, iron pyrites D.All of the above share/E6/6A3950000664000175000017500000000030512527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A395 A The disadvantage of using a self-excited oscillator type of transmitter for shipboard service: A.Frequency instability B.Parasitic oscillations C.Violent sound intensities D.Large capacity share/E6/6A5630000664000175000017500000000022012527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A563 C What is the international radiotelegraph distress frequency for stations in the mobile service? A.300 kHz B.400 kHz C.500 kHz D.600 kHz share/E6/6A2180000664000175000017500000000022312527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A218 A What should the plate current do in the operation of a Class B audio amplifier? A.Fluctuate B.Remain Steady C.Increase D.None of the above share/E6/6A200000664000175000017500000000040012527170605011136 0ustar jtnjtn6A20 A C = capacity in farads. Q = the measure of the quantity of charge of electricity in Coulombs. E = the applied voltage. So Q = CE: A.Determines the quantity of charge in a capacitor B.Determines the Q of a circuit C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1160000664000175000017500000000023612527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A116 A The opposition to the creation of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is known as: A.Reluctance B.Hysteresis C.Permeability D.Eddy currents share/E6/6A4730000664000175000017500000000035112527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A473 A High IF frequencies in a superheterodyne receiver: A.Reduce image frequency response B.Increases image frequency response C.Places the image frequency as close as possible to the normal received frequency D.None of the above share/E6/6A3830000664000175000017500000000045212527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A383 D If a transmitter is adjusted for maximum power for telegraph, what must be done to be amplitude modulated? A.The plate voltage must be reduced B.The plate voltage must be increased C.Tubes would have to dissipate 1.5 times as much power if the plate voltage were not reduced D.Both A and C share/E6/6A2510000664000175000017500000000025112527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A251 D In the usual type dry cell: A.The negative electrode is made of zinc B.The positive electrode is made of carbon C.The negative electrode is made of zinc D.A & B share/E6/6A320000664000175000017500000000025212527170605011146 0ustar jtnjtn6A32 A The factor by which the product of volts and amperes must be multiplied to obtain true power is: A.Power factor B.Apparent power C.Phase angle D.None of the above share/E6/6A3460000664000175000017500000000021012527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A346 D The speed of a synchronous motor is determined: A.By the number of pairs of poles B.By the line frequency C.By the load D.A & B share/E6/6A3350000664000175000017500000000035712527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A335 D If a motor generator fails to start when the start button is depressed, the trouble may be: A.Blown fuse or tripped circuit breaker B.Open armature or motor-field rheostat C.Broken connections, defective brushes D.All of the above share/E6/6A140000664000175000017500000000010012527170605011136 0ustar jtnjtn6A14 B The unit of conductance is: A.Ohm B.Mho C.Henry D.Ampere share/E6/6A310000664000175000017500000000033612527170605011150 0ustar jtnjtn6A31 A The prefix " micro " means: A.Divide by 1,000,000 whatever quantity follows B.Multiply by 1,000,000 whatever quantity follows C.Add 1,000,000 to whatever quantity follows D.Divide by 1,000 whatever quantity follows share/E6/6A5730000664000175000017500000000037412527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A573 C What is the purpose of an auto-alarm signal keying device on a compulsorily equipped ship? A.To automatically produce Morse code B.To automatically send an SOS signal C.To automatically produce the correct auto-alarm signal D.None of the above share/E6/6A1000000664000175000017500000000044312527170605011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A100 B To double the resonant frequency of a resonant circuit: A.Make C one third of its original value B.Make L and C both half their original values C.Decreasing the value of both L and C in any proportion so that their product will be one-half of the original values D.None of the above share/E6/6A5340000664000175000017500000000052712527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A534 A What is the principal function of a vertical sense antenna associated with a unilateral radio direction finder? A.To determine from which direction the signal is coming B.A vertical sense antenna is not associated with a radio direction finder C.Unilateral radio direction finders are associated with loop antennas D.None of the above share/E6/6A2380000664000175000017500000000036712527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A238 A Decoupling networks in the plate circuit of a multistage audio amplifier: A.Prevents oscillations from occurring in the amplifier B.Result in oscillations in the amplifier C.Allow variable oscillations in the amplifier D.None of the above share/E6/6A2720000664000175000017500000000037212527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A272 A If the voltage of some cells in a battery are found to be reversed, what is indicated? A.Polarity was reversed while charging B.Polarity was doubled while charging C.Polarity has no influence of charging D.Polarity was correct while charging share/E6/6A5170000664000175000017500000000052612527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A517 C If a vacuum tube in the only RF stages of your receiver burned out, make a temporary repair by: A.Remove its tube and connect a small (about 0.001 microfarad) capacitor between the control grid and plate connections B.Connect the antenna to the control grid of the stage following the one which was burned out C.Either A or B D.A & B share/E6/6A2670000664000175000017500000000033412527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A267 C The condition of charge of an Edison cell can be determined: A.By reading the terminal voltage under load B.By checking the voltage against a standard discharge curve C.Both A & B D.Checking the specific gravity share/E6/6A3930000664000175000017500000000075312527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A393 A A transmitter has a master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, and final amplifier. In what order should the circuit be adjusted in putting the transmitter in operation? A.Master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, final amplifier, antenna circuit B.Antenna circuit, master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, final amplifier C.Final amplifier, antenna circuit, master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier D.Master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, antenna circuit, final amplifier share/E6/6A5840000664000175000017500000000046712527170605011252 0ustar jtnjtn6A584 A For how long a period of continuous operation should the emergency power supply of a compulsorily equipped ship station be capable of energizing the emergency radiotelegraph installation? A.At least 6 consecutive hours B.At least 12 hours C.At least 24 consecutive hours D.At least 48 consecutive hours share/E6/6A3180000664000175000017500000000030212527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A318 A When connecting electrolytic capacitors in series: A.Observe the polarity marked on the component B.There is no polarity to observe C.Connect anode to anode D.Connect cathode to cathode share/E6/6A2620000664000175000017500000000022612527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A262 B The positive plate of an Edison-type storage cell is: A.Finely powdered pure iron B.Green oxide of nickel C.Lithium oxide D.None of the above share/E6/6A2280000664000175000017500000000030012527170605011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A228 A What is the maximum permissible RMS value of audio voltage which can be applied to the grid of a Class A audio amplifier which has a grid bias of 10 V? A.7.07 V B.8 V C.10 V D.14.14 V share/E6/6A2750000664000175000017500000000035612527170605011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A275 D To maintain a group of storage cells in good operating condition: A.Observe correct charge and discharge rates B.Overcharge about once a month to remove sulfation C.Keep all terminal corrections clean and tight D.All of the above share/E6/6A6110000664000175000017500000000063012527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A611 D How often must compulsory radiotelegraph installations on passenger vessels be inspected? A.When the vessel is placed in service and every 2 years thereafter B.At least every 3 years when the ship is within 75 miles of an FCC field office C.The ship's master is responsible for completion of the Annual Equipment Verification Report D.Equipment inspections are required at least once every 12 months share/E6/6A2610000664000175000017500000000023012527170605011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A261 A The negative plate of an Edison-type storage cell is: A.Finely powdered pure iron B.Green oxide of nickel C.Potassium oxide D.None of the above share/E6/6A5670000664000175000017500000000041712527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A567 A During what periods must a distress message be repeated following the initial transmission? A.Until an answer is received, especially during the silent periods B.Must repeated every 15 minutes C.Must be repeated every 5 minutes D.Must be repeated every 3 minutes share/E6/6A340000664000175000017500000000017712527170605011156 0ustar jtnjtn6A34 D Factors which influence the resistance of a conductor: A.Cross-sectional area B.Length C.Temperature D.All of the above share/E6/6A5160000664000175000017500000000041312527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A516 A Normal undistorted modulation is indicated by: A.An increase in antenna current without carrier shift B.A decrease in antenna current without carrier shift C.An increase in antenna current with carrier shift D.A decrease in antenna current with carrier shift share/E6/6A190000664000175000017500000000024312527170605011153 0ustar jtnjtn6A19 A The charge of electricity which passes a given point in one second when a current of one ampere is flowing is: A.Coulomb B.Joule C.Watt D.None of the above share/E6/6A1890000664000175000017500000000051312527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A189 D "The temperature coefficient of an x-cut crystal is negative": A.The operating frequency of the crystal will decrease as the temperature decreases B.The operating frequency of the crystal will decrease as the temperature increases C.The operating frequency of the crystal will increase as the temperature decreases D.B & C share/E6/6A700000664000175000017500000000047612527170605011160 0ustar jtnjtn6A70 A An 18 ohm and a 15 ohm resistor are connected in parallel; a 36 ohm resistor is connected in series with this combination; a 22 ohm resistor is connected in parallel with this total combination. The total current is 5 A. What current is flowing in the 15 ohm resistor? A.0.908 A B.1.000 A C.1.908 A D.0.809 A share/E6/6A2920000664000175000017500000000023612527170605011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A292 C When lead-acid cells are subject to low temperatures they should: A.To prevent freezing B.To provide the maximum capacity C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A560000664000175000017500000000050612527170605011156 0ustar jtnjtn6A56 A Assuming a power source to have a fixed value of internal impedance, maximum power will be transferred to the load when: A.The load impedance equals the internal impedance of the source B.The load impedance is higher than the source impedance C.The load impedance is lower than the source impedance D.None of the above share/E6/6A3440000664000175000017500000000056012527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A344 A Emery cloth should never be used to clean the commutator of a motor or generator: A.Because it contains particles which may lodge between commutator segments and cause short circuits B.Because it may polish the commutator too smooth for good brush contact C.Because it may decrease the insulating quality of its mica between the interpoles D.None of the above share/E6/6A1280000664000175000017500000000046512527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A128 A The maximum negative anode voltage with respect to the cathode. It equals the DC voltage at the input to the plus the peak AC voltage applied during the nonconducting portion of the cycle of operation of the tube: A.Maximum inverse plate voltage B.Mutual conductance C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1190000664000175000017500000000044212527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A119 A The direction of electron flow through a coil and the manner of winding the turns: A.Influence the direction of magnetic line of force generated by an electromagnet B.Are determined by the left-hand status rule C.Are determined by the diameter of the wire and length D.Both A and C share/E6/6A5680000664000175000017500000000026212527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A568 A For how long must mobile stations listen after hearing an urgency signal? A.For at least 5 minutes B.For at least 30 minutes C.For at least 3 minutes D.None of the above share/E6/6A5500000664000175000017500000000041212527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A550 A What is the purpose of blinking in a loran navigational system? A.To warn the receiving operator that difficulty exists at the transmitting stations? B.To warn the operator that the system is in use C.The loran system needs to be aligned D.None of the above share/E6/6A5740000664000175000017500000000040712527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A574 C On a United States vessel equipped with an approved auto-alarm, where is the control button which silences the warning bells located? A.On the navigation bridge B.In main engineering control C.In the main radiotelegraph operating room D.None of the above share/E6/6A990000664000175000017500000000030612527170605011163 0ustar jtnjtn6A99 D The velocity of propagation of radio frequency waves in free space is: A.300,000 meters / second B.186,284 miles / second C.The same as the velocity of light in free space D.All of the above share/E6/6A5420000664000175000017500000000027512527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A542 C Within what frequency band limits do all United States marine radio beacon stations operate? A.From 280 to 385 kHz B.From 162 to 385 kHz C.From 285 to 315 kHz D.From 300 to 465 kHz share/E6/6A3820000664000175000017500000000037412527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A382 C What would be the antenna current when a transmitter has an antenna current of 8 amp, under A -1, even if it is 100% modulated by sinusoidal modulation? A.9.8 amp B.The antenna current will increase by 22.5% C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5120000664000175000017500000000045512527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A512 A If the vacuum tube heater in an approved auto-alarm system burns out: A.A pair of contacts close and energize the bell relay B.A pair on contacts open and energize the ball relay C.A pair of contacts close and de-energize the bell relay D.A pair of contacts open and deenergize the bell relay share/E6/6A2250000664000175000017500000000033512527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A225 A When a tube is used as a Class B amplifier what portion of the excitation voltage cycle does plate current flow? A.Slightly more than 180 degrees B.Slightly less than 180 degrees C.360 degrees D.None of the above share/E6/6A1880000664000175000017500000000050512527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A188 A A separate source of power is sometimes desirable for crystal-oscillator units in a transmitter: A.To prevent dynamic instability of the crystal oscillator B.To prevent thermocoupling of the crystal oscillator C.To prevent overtuning of the crystal oscillator D.To cause dynamic instability of the crystal oscillator share/E6/6A1210000664000175000017500000000013012527170605011220 0ustar jtnjtn6A121 D Electromagnets are used in: A.loudspeakers B.meters C.motors D.All of the above share/E6/6A5430000664000175000017500000000026112527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A543 C In what part of the RF spectrum do marine radar systems operate? A.In the order of 10,000 MHz or 3000 MHz B.Wavelength of 3 cm or 10 cm C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4850000664000175000017500000000055712527170605011252 0ustar jtnjtn6A485 C How could you test a regenerative receiver to determine if the detector is oscillating? A.Touch a finger on grounded wire to the grid circuit. You will hear a "plop" if the circuit was oscillating B.Vary the regeneration control to its maximum limits. You will hear a "plop" as the circuit goes in and out of oscillation C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3720000664000175000017500000000052612527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A372 B Given the following: (1) audio power for 100% modulation equals 50% of DC input power to RF modulated amplifier, (2) load presented to the modulated tube consists of the DC plate impedance of the modulated amplifier, (3) constant grid excitation voltage, very lot distortion, what type of modulation? A.Grid B.Plate C.Cathode D.Anode share/E6/6A2290000664000175000017500000000042212527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A229 D Distortion in a Class A amplifier can be caused by: A.Insufficient plate and screen potentials, incorrect grid bias defective rube B.Leaky or shorted input coupling capacitor C.Excessive anokutyde if grid signal, incorrect value of load impedance D.All of the above share/E6/6A1080000664000175000017500000000036212527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A108 C The time in seconds for a capacitor to attain 63.2 % of the applied voltage across its terminals is: A.Twice the natural period of oscillation of the circuit B.Varactance C.Time constant D.Equal to the ohmic resistance of the circuit share/E6/6A2160000664000175000017500000000023712527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A216 D A carbon microphone should not be: A.Jarred while in operation B.Tapped while in operation C.Subjected to violent sound intensities D.All of the above share/E6/6A850000664000175000017500000000036112527170605011157 0ustar jtnjtn6A85 B The efficiency of a radio device is: A.The ratio of the power input to the power output B.The ratio of the useful power output to the power input C.The ratio of the minimum power output to the maximum power output D.None of the above share/E6/6A5580000664000175000017500000000055512527170605011251 0ustar jtnjtn6A558 B Are there any age requirements that a person must meet before he can be issued a radiotelegraph operator license? A.At least 18 years of age for a second class license B.At least 21 years of age for a first class license C.Persons under 21 now holding a radiotelegraph first class license may renew same without regard to age requirement D.All of the above share/E6/6A2630000664000175000017500000000014412527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A263 A The average fully-charged voltage of an Edison storage cell is: A.1.2 V B.1.5 V C.2 V D.1 V share/E6/6A4310000664000175000017500000000045312527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A431 A A transmitter operating on 5000 kHz uses a 1000 kHz crystal with a tempered coefficient of - 4 Hz/MHz/0 degrees centigrade. What is the change in the output frequency of the transmitter if the temperature increases 6 degrees centigrade? A.499.88 kHz B.5000.12 kHz C.4120.0 kHz D.5120.0 kHz share/E6/6A870000664000175000017500000000033312527170605011160 0ustar jtnjtn6A87 A The total inductance of two coils in parallel without any mutual coupling is: A.Equal to the product of the two inductances divided by their sum B.The sum of the individual inductances C.Zero D.None of the above share/E6/6A3250000664000175000017500000000021512527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A325 D A series DC motor has: A.Maximum torque at low speed B.Quick starting C.Poor speed regulation under varying loads D.All of the above share/E6/6A5270000664000175000017500000000022412527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A527 C What types of meters may be used to measure RF currents? A.The hot wire ammeter B.The thermocouple ammeter C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A40000664000175000017500000000055612527170605011074 0ustar jtnjtn6A4 D Ship's power is generated as 3-phase and is ungrounded. On a delta-wound transformer with 120 VAC line-to-line secondary, what is the voltmeter reading from line to ground: A.Approx 67 volts for a normal balanced system with no faults B.0 VAC for a system with that phase faulted to ground C.120 VAC when another phase is faulted to ground D.Any of the above share/E6/6A3370000664000175000017500000000027512527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A337 D A dynamotor is: A.A combination motor-generator which utilizes a common field winding B.Usually run by battery power C.A higher efficiency than a motor-generator D.All of the above share/E6/6A4460000664000175000017500000000021412527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A446 C What are the lowest frequencies used in radio communication today? A.SSB voice B.Double-sideband FM voice C.15 kHz D.1 kHz to 5 kHz share/E6/6A4110000664000175000017500000000040312527170605011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A411 C Keying can be accomplished at various points in a radiotelegraph transmitter. Some are: A.At the primary of power transformer, at filament centertap, at screen grid circuit B.At the control grid circuit, at the DC supply C.A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A580000664000175000017500000000040612527170605011157 0ustar jtnjtn6A58 C Which method may be used to obtain more than one value of voltage from a fixed DC source? A.Use a resistance type voltage divider B.Connect voltage regulator tubes of suitable values and tap off the desired output voltage C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2090000664000175000017500000000033612527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A209 B A special type of power supply filter choke whose inductance is inversely proportioned to values of DC within specified limits is: A.Smoothing choke B.Swinging choke C.Radio frequency choke D.Audio frequency choke share/E6/6A6020000664000175000017500000000073312527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A602 B What is the proper procedure to conduct a radiotelegraph equipment test? A.By transmitting "EI" on the test frequency as a warning that a test transmission is about to be made B.Sending a series of "VVV" followed by the call sign of the testing station at about 10 words-per-minute C.The test transmission may not proceed until all stations on frequency have signalled their consent D.The nearest public or private coast station must be notified of an impending test share/E6/6A1450000664000175000017500000000032312527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A145 B A charge due to the accumulation of negative electrons because the plate potential cannot attract all of the electrons leaving the emitter: A.Getter B.Space charge C.Plate saturation D.None of the above share/E6/6A4440000664000175000017500000000026712527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A444 A The difference between a Hertz and Marconi antenna is: A.The physical length B.The positioning of the capacitor feed traps C.The grounding of RF shielding D.None of the above share/E6/6A4190000664000175000017500000000026112527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A419 A If a field strength is 100 microvolts per meter at 100 miles, what is the field strength at 200 miles? A.50 microvolts B.10 microvolts C.200 microvolts D.150 microvolts share/E6/6A1670000664000175000017500000000032012527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A167 D Low plate current may be caused by: A.Low filament emission and voltage B.Excessive bias value, shorted screen by-pass capacitor C.Open grid circuit, low screen grid supply voltage D.All of the above share/E6/6A4760000664000175000017500000000031412527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A476 D In a tuned RF receiver the heterodyne method, over the autodyne reception, has: A.Great sensitivity B.More stable operation of the circuit C.Wider control of the beat-frequency D.All of the above share/E6/6A4660000664000175000017500000000024112527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A466 A What is the "mixer" tube in the superheterodyne receiver? A.The first detector B.The second detector C.The beat frequency oscillator D.None of the above share/E6/6A1830000664000175000017500000000024112527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A183 A Used to multiply the fundamental frequency by two: A.Frequency doubler B.Harmonic generator with a suitable resonant circuit C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2300000664000175000017500000000036212527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A230 D Vacuum tubes operating as Class A amplifiers may be used as: A.Audio power amplifiers, audio voltage amplifiers, microphones amplifiers, line amplifiers B.Oscilloscope amplifiers, modulators C.Phonograph amplifiers D.All of the above share/E6/6A4220000664000175000017500000000024212527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A422 D A defective vacuum tube in a transmitter may be indicated by: A.Gas glow within the tube B.No light from the filament C.Reduced output D.All of the above share/E6/6A4800000664000175000017500000000036512527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A480 A The sensitivity of a 3 circuit receiver is controlled by: A.The setting of the regeneration control B.The setting of the audio frequency control C.The setting of the radio frequency control D.The setting of the beat frequency oscillator share/E6/6A5080000664000175000017500000000042612527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A508 D Intermittent ringing of the bells of an auto alarm with a linear detector and an electronic selector could be caused by: A.An intermittent vacuum tube filament B.Fluctuating line voltage C.Faulty contacts or relay adjustment of warning relay receiver D.All of the above share/E6/6A5960000664000175000017500000000071312527170605011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A596 D What must every examination for the code portion of a radiotelegraph license contain? A.Applicants for Commercial Radiotelegraph licenses must be examined using a message format that they are likely to receive aboard ship B.Both a telegraphy sending and a receiving distress signals C.The proper transmission of radiotelegraph distress signals D.All alphabet letters, all numerals, period, comma, question mark, slant mark and prosigns AR, BT, and SK share/E6/6A5540000664000175000017500000000035012527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A554 D What is the definition of a "station open to public service"? A.A station which handles public correspondence B.Paid or toll messages C.Radiotelephone facilities for the general public at prescribed rates D.All of the above share/E6/6A3540000664000175000017500000000034612527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A354 B The operation of a dynatron oscillator depends on what? A.The positive emission from the anode B.The secondary emission from the anode C.Cathode being in saturation D.Positive resistance characteristic of the tetrode tube share/E6/6A2850000664000175000017500000000035712527170605011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A285 A A battery with a terminal voltage of 12.5 V is to be trickle-charged at a 0.5 A rate. What resistance should be connected in series with the battery to charge from a 110 V line? A.195 ohms B.300 ohms C.95 ohms D.None of the above share/E6/6A4520000664000175000017500000000030212527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A452 C Harmonic radiation from a transmitter may cause interference: A.Where the fundamental signal cannot be heard because of "skip" B.In other shipboard equipment C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A6130000664000175000017500000000050612527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A613 C What document is issued after a radio station inspection aboard a large ship that is not a passenger vessel? A.Great Lakes Radio Agreement surety authorization B.International Maritime Organization safety permit C.Cargo ship safety radiotelegraphy or radiotelephony certificate D.Safety Convention radio certification share/E6/6A5790000664000175000017500000000026412527170605011251 0ustar jtnjtn6A579 D While a vessel is in port, how frequently should the emergency equipment be tested? A.Once a day B.Once a week C.Once a month D.Only when the vessel is ready to leave port share/E6/6A1130000664000175000017500000000030412527170605011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A113 D Essentials for making a good solder connection are: A.Bright, clean parts B.Plenty of heat with the minimum amount of solder used C.Discontinue operating on high power D.None of the above share/E6/6A4000000664000175000017500000000032012527170605011221 0ustar jtnjtn6A400 A In a self-biased RF amplifier stage: plate voltage is 1250 V, plate current 150 ma, grid current 15 ma, grid-leak resistance of 4000 ohms, what is the operating grid bias? A.60 V B.30 V C.90 V D.50 V share/E6/6A3520000664000175000017500000000021312527170605011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A352 A The voltage of an alternator will: A.Decrease under load B.Increase under load C.Load has no effect on voltage D.None of the above share/E6/6A2200000664000175000017500000000014512527170605011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A220 C What microphones have a high impedance output? A.Crystal B.Dynamic C.Any D.None of the above share/E6/6A3050000664000175000017500000000046512527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A305 A A high-resistance fixed resistor is shunted across each unit of a high voltage series capacitor bank in the power-supply filter circuit to: A.Insure that the correct voltage appears across each unit B.Discharge the capacitors C.Does not insure the correct voltage across each unit D.None of the above share/E6/6A1750000664000175000017500000000030112527170605011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A175 D Operating conditions for determining that a tube is being used as a power detector: A.Bias at about cutoff B.High input grid resistance C.Plate circuit rectification D.All of the above share/E6/6A4960000664000175000017500000000030312527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A496 D In general, shielding between RF amplifier stages: A.Prevents electromagnetic coupling B.Prevents electrostatic coupling C.Improves the overall stability of a receiver D.All of the above share/E6/6A3160000664000175000017500000000024612527170605011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A316 D Poor regulation in a power supply may be caused by: A.No bleeder resistance B.High resistance filter chokes C.Insufficient filter capacity D.All of the above share/E6/6A4170000664000175000017500000000061612527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A417 D The plate current of the final RF amplifier in a transmitter increases and radiation decreases, if the antenna circuit is in good order, what could be the cause? A.Neutralization may have been upset B.The plate circuit may have been detuned, bias may have been lost C.Grid excitation may have decreased, there may be a faulty tube, or there may be parasitic oscillations D.All of the above share/E6/6A3610000664000175000017500000000022712527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A361 B What class of amplifier is used as linear in order not to distort the modulation components? A.Class A B.Class B C.Class C D.None of the above share/E6/6A1180000664000175000017500000000027112527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A118 B The magnetic force which remains in a substance after the original magnetizing force has been removed is known as: A.Reluctance B.Residual magnetism C.Permeability D.Hysteresis share/E6/6A360000664000175000017500000000031212527170605011147 0ustar jtnjtn6A36 B Name four conducting materials in order of their conductivity. A.Gold, silver, copper, platinum B.Silver, gold, zinc, platinum C.Silver, copper, zinc, aluminum D.Aluminum, zinc, copper, platinum share/E6/6A4510000664000175000017500000000035212527170605011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A451 D Harmonic radiation is: A.Radiation occurring on frequencies that are whole multiples of the original frequency B.Is always higher than the fundamental frequency C.Reduced by proper tuning of the transmitter D.All of the above share/E6/6A680000664000175000017500000000023112527170605011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A68 D What is the total resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of a 10 ohm branch and a 25 ohm branch? A.@ ohms B.10.3 ohms C.7.0 ohms D.7.14 ohms share/E6/6A2490000664000175000017500000000024212527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A249 B The formation of hydrogen gas around the positive electrode of a primary cell is: A.Depolarization B.Polarization C.Manganese dioxide D.None of the above share/E6/6A1900000664000175000017500000000040412527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A190 C If you apply DC voltage to the opposite plane surfaces of a quartz crystal: A.The crystal plate will always undergo a physical distortion B.The crystal might crack under the strain of displacement caused by too much voltage C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5920000664000175000017500000000063412527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A592 C What is the experience requirement of a First Class Radiotelegrapher? A.The applicant must have been employed as a radio operator on board a United States ship for at least six months B.The operator must have held a Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate for at least six months C.The applicant must have a background of sending or receiving radiotelegraph messages for one year D.Both A & B share/E6/6A260000664000175000017500000000021012527170605011143 0ustar jtnjtn6A26 D Ohm's law for AC circuits when I = amperes, E = volts, Z = impedance in volts is: A.I = E/Z B.E = IZ C.Z= Z/I D.All of the above share/E6/6A5610000664000175000017500000000044712527170605011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A561 C At what time(s) are routine transmissions forbidden in the bands of 480 to 515 kHz? A.Routine transmissions are forbidden in 480 to 515 kHz B.480 to 515 kHz are out of the marine radio band C.Routine transmissions are forbidden during the international silent period D.None of the above share/E6/6A4360000664000175000017500000000023012527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A436 B Adding a capacitor in series with an antenna will have what effect on resonant frequency? A.Decrease B.Increase C.Neutralization D.Equalization share/E6/6A2230000664000175000017500000000025112527170605011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A223 D A "choke" coil: A.Offers a relatively high impedance to AC currents B.Has a high "Q" (low RF losses) C.Offers a low resistance to DC currents D.All of the above share/E6/6A3380000664000175000017500000000034412527170605011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A338 C Output voltage of a dynamotor may be regulated: A.Only by changing the speed of the motor B.A series resistance in the output line could be used to reduce the available output voltage C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1910000664000175000017500000000052012527170605011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A191 D "The temperature coefficient of a y-cut crystal is positive" means: A.The operating frequency of the crystal will decrease as the temperature decreases B.The operating frequency of the crystal will increase as the temperature increases C.The operating frequency of the crystal will decrease as the temperature increases D.A & B share/E6/6A4410000664000175000017500000000034312527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A441 B Given the current and resistance of the base of a Marconi antenna, what would be the formula for determining the power? A.P = watts x amps B.P = amps. squared x resistance C.P = current x resistance D.None of the above share/E6/6A5400000664000175000017500000000042612527170605011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A540 C On shipboard what factors may effect the accuracy of a direction finder after it has been properly installed, calibrated? A.A received wave which has been bent by night effect B.By any changing of the position of nearby metallic objects C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3970000664000175000017500000000045112527170605011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A397 A In order of selectivity, the best receivers are: A.Superheterodyne, tuned radio frequency, superregenerative B.Tuned radio-frequency, superheterodyne, superregenerative C.Superregenerative, tuned radio-frequency, superheterodyne D.Tuned radio frequency, superregenerative, superheterodyne share/E6/6A4080000664000175000017500000000033512527170605011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A408 D What is meant by split tuning? A.An effect resulting from excessive coupling between two tuned circuits which are at the same frequency B.Also known as double hump C.Also known as critical coupling D.Both A and B share/E6/6A2960000664000175000017500000000031512527170605011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A296 A What care should be taken with selecting water to add to a storage cell? A.It should be chemically pure or distilled B.It should be only sea water C.Tap water is as good as any D.None of the above share/E6/6A380000664000175000017500000000024612527170605011157 0ustar jtnjtn6A38 A A resistance across which a constant voltage is applied is doubled. What power dissipation will result? A.One half B.One fourth C.Doubled D.None of the above share/E6/6A120000664000175000017500000000012312527170605011141 0ustar jtnjtn6A12 D Ohm's law is stated as: A.E = IR B.I = E / R C.R = E / I D.All of the above share/E6/6A2540000664000175000017500000000014312527170605011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A254 A Spare "B" batteries should be stored: A.In a dry place B.In a hot place C.Anywhere D.A & C share/E6/6A3870000664000175000017500000000045512527170605011250 0ustar jtnjtn6A387 A Given a vacuum tube of the following characteristics: plate voltage 1000 V, plate current 127 ma, filament current 5.4 amp, mutual conductance 8000 microvolts, and amplification factor of 25. What is the correct volume of negative grid bias for Class B amplifier? A.40 V B.50 V C.30 V D.60 V share/fccexam0000775000175000017500000001641512527730620011701 0ustar jtnjtn#!/bin/sh # study FCC commercial exam question pools # Copyright (C) 2012-2015 John Nogatch # dir where question pools reside? INSTALLDIR="$(dirname "$(readlink -f $0)")" # default html viewer? if [ -n "${HTML_VIEWER+xxx}" ]; then if type "${HTML_VIEWER}" > /dev/null 2>&1; then echo "user specified \$HTML_VIEWER: ${HTML_VIEWER}" else echo "user specified \$HTML_VIEWER: ${HTML_VIEWER} is not executable" HTML_VIEWER="" # this allows questions w/ figs to be supressed fi else HTML_VIEWER="xdg-open" # find default browser fi # dir to keep user's unanswered questions USERDIR=~/.fccexam # create user dir, if needed if [ ! -d "${USERDIR}" ]; then echo "creating ${USERDIR}" mkdir "${USERDIR}" if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then echo "unable to create ${USERDIR} directory" sleep 3 exit 1 fi fi # go to user dir so that question names are accessible cd ${USERDIR} if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then echo "unable to access ${USERDIR} directory" sleep 3 exit 1 fi # if no questions remain... ls ${USERDIR}/* >> /dev/null 2>&1 if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then # check argument for various license names, default to showing usage, version, brief help POOL=`echo $1 | tr [:lower:] [:upper:]` case "${POOL}" in "1" | "3" | "5" | "6" | "7" | "7R" | "8" | "9" ) ;; "T1" | "T2" | "T3" | "GROL" | "GROL+" | "MROP" | "GMDSS" | "GMDSS+" | "RGMDSS" ) ;; "Q" | *) echo "usage: fccexam {1|3|5|6|7|7R|8|9|T1|T2|T3|GROL|GROL+|MROP|GMDSS|GMDSS+|RGMDSS}"; echo "fccexam version 1.0.5"; echo "fccexam is an interactive study guide for USA FCC commercial radio examinations."; echo "question pool choices:"; echo " 1 Basic radio law and operating practice" echo " 3 Electronics fundamentals and techniques of radio transmitters and receivers" echo " 5 Radiotelegraph Operating Procedure" echo " 6 Advanced Radiotelegraph" echo " 7 GMDSS Radio Operating Practices" echo " 7R Restricted GMDSS Radio Operating Practices" echo " 8 Ship Radar Techniques" echo " 9 GMDSS Radio Maintenance Practices and Procedures" echo " T1 First Class Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 5, 6."; echo " T2 Second Class Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 5, 6."; echo " T3 Third Class Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 5."; echo " GROL General Radiotelephone Operator License: elements 1, 3."; echo " GROL+ General Radiotelephone Operator License + Radar: elements 1, 3, 8."; echo " MROP Marine Radio Operator Permit: element 1."; echo " GMDSS Global Maritime Distress Safety System Radio Operator: elements 1, 7."; echo " GMDSS+ GMDSS Radio Maintainer + Radar: elements 1, 7, 8, 9."; echo " RGMDSS Restricted GMDSS Radio Operator: elements 1, 7R."; echo "Questions are chosen randomly from the selected pool."; echo "Incorrect answers cause the question to be asked again later."; echo "Licenses are issued by the FCC, but exams are conducted by COLEM Examiners." echo "For more information about FCC commercial radio licensing:" echo " http://wireless.fcc.gov/commoperators/index.htm?job=home"; if [ "${POOL}" != "Q" ]; then sleep 3 exit 1; fi; POOL="Q" while [ $POOL = "Q" ]:; do # read -p "Which pool? ..." POOL; (Debian: read with option other than -r) echo -n "Which pool? {1,3,5,6,7,7R,8,9,T1,T2,T3,GROL,GROL+,MROP,GMDSS,GMDSS+,RGMDSS} " ; read POOL; POOL=`echo ${POOL} | tr [:lower:] [:upper:]` case "$POOL" in "1" | "3" | "5" | "6" | "7" | "7R" | "8" | "9" ) ;; "T1" | "T2" | "T3" | "GROL" | "GROL+" | "MROP" | "GMDSS" | "GMDSS+" | "RGMDSS" ) ;; * ) POOL="Q";; esac; done esac # load the questions case ${POOL} in "1" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .;; "3" ) echo "reloading element 3"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E3/* .;; "5" ) echo "reloading element 5"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E5/* .;; "6" ) echo "reloading element 6"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E6/* .;; "7" ) echo "reloading element 7"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7/* .;; "7R" ) echo "reloading element 7R"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7R/* .;; "8" ) echo "reloading element 8"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E8/* .;; "9" ) echo "reloading element 9"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E9/* .;; "T1" | "T2" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 5"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E5/* .; echo "reloading element 6"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E6/* .;; "T3" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 5"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E5/* .;; "GROL" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 3"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E3/* .;; "GROL+" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 3"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E3/* .; echo "reloading element 8"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E8/* .;; "MROP" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .;; "GMDSS" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 7"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7/* .;; "GMDSS+" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 7"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7/* .; echo "reloading element 8"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E8/* .; echo "reloading element 9"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E9/* .;; "RGMDSS" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 7R"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7R/* .;; "" | * ) echo "POOL variable was not set correctly"; sleep 3; exit 1;; esac else echo "resuming remaining questions ( to discard previous session, rm ~/.fccexam/* )" fi # if element 3, 8 questions are present, display figures for i in 3 8; do ls ${USERDIR}/${i}* >> /dev/null 2>&1 if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then # no HTML_VIEWER available? if [ "${HTML_VIEWER}" = "" ]; then echo "no HTML_VIEWER to display element ${i} figures" else # bring up diagrams for this element ${HTML_VIEWER} ${INSTALLDIR}/E${i}.html 2>/dev/null & if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then echo "${HTML_VIEWER} failed to display element ${i} figures" fi fi fi done # report how many questions remain ls * | wc | awk '{print $1 " questions remain in this pool\n"}' while :; do # random choice from remaining questions Q=`shuf -n 1 -e *` # exit if no more questions if [ "${Q}" = "*" ]; then echo "question pool completed" sleep 3 break fi # if question still exists (might be stale name from old pool)... if [ -e "${Q}" ]; then # no png viewer? if [ -z "${HTML_VIEWER}" ]; then # question references figure? egrep '[Ff]igure ' "${Q}" >> /dev/null if [ $? = 0 ]; then echo "question ${Q} refers to a figure" rm "${Q}" continue fi fi # ...ask the question awk -f "${INSTALLDIR}"/ask.awk "${Q}" else echo "question ${Q} is not found" fi case $? in # if correct, remove the question 0) rm "${Q}";; # check for quit or EOF 2) break;; esac done exit 0 # end of fccexam share/element8.txt0000664000175000017500000023324312527171774012640 0ustar jtnjtnFCC Commercial Element 8 Question Pool (approved 25 June 2009) Subelement A – RADAR Principles – 10 Key Topics – 10 Exam Questions – 8 Drawings Key Topic 1 – Marine RADAR Systems 8-1A1 Choose the most correct statement containing the parameters which control the size of the target echo. A. Transmitted power, antenna effective area, transmit and receive losses, RADAR cross section of the target, range to target. B. Height of antenna, power radiated, size of target, receiver gain, pulse width. C. Power radiated, antenna gain, size of target, shape of target, pulse width, receiver gain. D. Magnetron gain, antenna gain, size of target, range to target, wave-guide loss. 8-1A2 Which of the following has NO effect on the maximum range capability? A. Carrier frequency. B. Recovery time. C. Pulse repetition frequency. D. Receiver sensitivity. 8-1A3 What type of transmitter power is measured over a period of time? A. Average. B. Peak. C. Reciprocal. D. Return. 8-1A4 What RADAR component controls timing throughout the system? A. Power supply. B. Indicator. C. Synchronizer. D. Receiver. 8-1A5 Which of the following components allows the use of a single antenna for both transmitting and receiving? A. Mixer. B. Duplexer. C. Synchronizer. D. Modulator. 8-1A6 The sweep frequency of a RADAR indicator is determined by what parameter? A. Carrier frequency. B. Pulse width. C. Duty cycle. D. Pulse repetition frequency. Answer Key: 8-1A1: A 8-1A2: B 8-1A3: A 8-1A4: C 8-1A5: B 8-1A6: D Key Topic 2 – Distance and Time 8-2A1 A radio wave will travel a distance of three nautical miles in: A. 6.17 microseconds. B. 37.0 microseconds. C. 22.76 microseconds. D. 18.51 microseconds. 8-2A2 One RADAR mile is how many microseconds? A. 6.2 B. 528.0 C. 12.34 D. 0.186 8-2A3 RADAR range is measured by the constant: A. 150 meters per microsecond. B. 150 yards per microsecond. C. 300 yards per microsecond. D. 18.6 miles per microsecond. 8-2A4 If a target is 5 miles away, how long does it take for the RADAR echo to be received back at the antenna? A. 51.4 microseconds. B. 123 microseconds. C. 30.75 microseconds. D. 61.7 microseconds. 8-2A5 How long would it take for a RADAR pulse to travel to a target 10 nautical miles away and return to the RADAR receiver? A. 12.34 microseconds. B. 1.234 microseconds. C. 123.4 microseconds. D. 10 microseconds. 8-2A6 What is the distance in nautical miles to a target if it takes 308.5 microseconds for the RADAR pulse to travel from the RADAR antenna to the target and back. A. 12.5 nautical miles. B. 25 nautical miles. C. 50 nautical miles. D. 2.5 nautical miles. Answer Key: 8-2A1: D 8-2A2: C 8-2A3: A 8-2A4: D 8-2A5: C 8-2A6: B Key Topic 3 – Frequency and Wavelength 8-3A1 Frequencies generally used for marine RADAR are in the ___ part of the radio spectrum. A. UHF B. EHF C. SHF D. VHF 8-3A2 Practical RADAR operation requires the use of microwave frequencies so that: A. Stronger target echoes will be produced. B. Ground clutter interference will be minimized. C. Interference to other communication systems will be eliminated. D. Non-directional antennas can be used for both transmitting and receiving. 8-3A3 An S-band RADAR operates in which frequency band? A. 1 - 2 GHz. B. 4 - 8 GHz. C. 8 - 12 GHz. D. 2 - 4 GHz. 8-3A4 A RADAR operating at a frequency of 3 GHz has a wavelength of approximately: A. 1 centimeter. B. 10 centimeters. C. 3 centimeters. D. 30 centimeters. 8-3A5 The major advantage of an S-band RADAR over an X-band RADAR is: A. It is less affected by weather conditions. B. It has greater bearing resolution. C. It is mechanically less complex. D. It has greater power output. 8-3A6 An X band RADAR operates in which frequency band? A. 1 - 2 GHz. B. 2 - 4 GHz. C. 4 - 8 GHz. D. 8 - 12 GHz. Answer Key: 8-3A1: C 8-3A2: A 8-3A3: D 8-3A4: B 8-3A5: A 8-3A6: D Key Topic 4 – Power, Pulse Width, PRR 8-4A1 A pulse RADAR has a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 400 Hz, a pulse width of 1 microsecond, and a peak power of 100 kilowatts. The average power of the RADAR transmitter is: A. 25 watts. B. 40 watts. C. 250 watts. D. 400 watts. 8-4A2 A shipboard RADAR transmitter has a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 1,000 Hz, a pulse width of 0.5 microseconds, peak power of 150 KW, and a minimum range of 75 meters. Its duty cycle is: A. 0.5 B. 0.05 C. 0.005 D. 0.0005 8-4A3 A pulse RADAR transmits a 0.5 microsecond RF pulse with a peak power of 100 kilowatts every 1600 microseconds. This RADAR has: A. An average power of 31.25 watts. B. A PRF of 3,200. C. A maximum range of 480 kilometers. D. A duty cycle of 3.125 percent. 8-4A4 If a RADAR transmitter has a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 900 Hz, a pulse width of 0.5 microseconds and a peak power of 15 kilowatts, what is its average power output? A. 15 kilowatts. B. 13.5 watts. C. 6.75 watts. D. 166.67 watts. 8-4A5 What is the average power if the RADAR set has a PRF of 1000 Hz, a pulse width of 1 microsecond, and a peak power rating of 100 kilowatts? A. 10 watts. B. 100 watts. C. 1,000 watts. D. None of these. 8-4A6 A search RADAR has a pulse width of 1.0 microsecond, a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 900 Hz, and an average power of 18 watts. The unit’s peak power is: A. 200 kilowatts. B. 180 kilowatts. C. 20 kilowatts. D. 2 kilowatts. Answer Key: 8-4A1: B 8-4A2: D 8-4A3: A 8-4A4: C 8-4A5: B 8-4A6: C Key Topic 5 – Range, Pulse Width, PRF 8-5A1 For a range of 5 nautical miles, the RADAR pulse repetition frequency should be: A. 16.2 Hz or more. B. 16.2 MHz or less. C. 1.62 kHz or more. D. 16.2 kHz or less. 8-5A2 For a range of 100 nautical miles, the RADAR pulse repetition frequency should be: A. 8.1 kHz or less. B. 810 Hz or less. C. 8.1 kHz or more. D. 81 kHz or more. 8-5A3 The minimum range of a RADAR is determined by: A. The frequency of the RADAR transmitter. B. The pulse repetition rate. C. The transmitted pulse width. D. The pulse repetition frequency. 8-5A4 Short range RADARs would most likely transmit: A. Narrow pulses at a fast rate. B. Narrow pulses at a slow rate. C. Wide pulses at a fast rate. D. Wide pulses at a slow rate. 8-5A5 For a range of 30 nautical miles, the RADAR pulse repetition frequency should be: A. 0.27 kHz or less. B. 2.7 kHz or less. C. 27 kHz or more. D. 2.7 Hz or more. 8-5A6 For a range of 10 nautical miles, the RADAR pulse repetition frequency (PRF) should be: A. Approximately 8.1 kHz or less. B. 900 Hz. C. 18.1 kHz or more. D. 120.3 microseconds. Answer Key: 8-5A1: D 8-5A2: B 8-5A3: C 8-5A4: A 8-5A5: B 8-5A6: A Key Topic 6: Pulse Width - Pulse Repetition Rates 8-6A1 If the PRF is 2500 Hz, what is the PRI? A. 40 microseconds. B. 400 microseconds. C. 250 microseconds. D. 800 microseconds. 8-6A2 If the pulse repetition frequency (PRF) is 2000 Hz, what is the pulse repetition interval (PRI)? A. 0.05 seconds. B. 0.005 seconds. C. 0.0005 seconds. D. 0.00005 seconds. 8-6A3 The pulse repetition rate (PRR) refers to: A. The reciprocal of the duty cycle. B. The pulse rate of the local oscillator tube. C. The pulse rate of the klystron. D. The pulse rate of the magnetron. 8-6A4 If the RADAR unit has a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 2000 Hz and a pulse width of 0.05 microseconds, what is the duty cycle? A. 0.0001 B. 0.0005 C. 0.05 D. 0.001 8-6A5 Small targets are best detected by: A. Short pulses transmitted at a fast rate. B. Using J band frequencies. C. Using a long pulse width with high output power. D. All of these answers are correct. 8-6A6 What is the relationship between pulse repetition rate and pulse width? A. Higher PRR with wider pulse width. B. The pulse repetition rate does not change with the pulse width. C. The pulse width does not change with the pulse repetition rate. D. Lower PRR with wider pulse width. Answer Key: 8-6A1: B 8-6A2: C 8-6A3: D 8-6A4: A 8-6A5: C 8-6A6: D Key Topic 7 – Components-1 8-7A1 What component of a RADAR receiver is represented by block 46 in Fig. 8A1? A. The ATR box. B. The TR box. C. The RF Attenuator. D. The Crystal Detector. 8-7A2 A basic sample-and-hold circuit contains: A. An analog switch and an amplifier. B. An analog switch, a capacitor, and an amplifier. C. An analog multiplexer and a capacitor. D. An analog switch, a capacitor, amplifiers and input and output buffers. 8-7A3 When comparing a TTL and a CMOS NAND gate: A. Both have active pull-up characteristics. B. Both have three output states. C. Both have comparable input power sourcing. D. Both employ Schmitt diodes for increased speed capabilities. 8-7A4 Silicon crystals: A. Are very sensitive to static electric charges. B. Should be wrapped in lead foil for storage. C. Tolerate very low currents. D. All of these. 8-7A5 Which is typical current for a silicon crystal used in a RADAR mixer or detector circuit? A. 3 mA B. 15 mA C. 50 mA D. 100 mA 8-7A6 What component of a RADAR receiver is represented by block 47 in Fig. 8A1? A. The ATR box. B. The TR box. C. The RF Attenuator. D. The Crystal Detector. Answer Key: 8-7A1: B 8-7A2: D 8-7A3: A 8-7A4: D 8-7A5: A 8-7A6: C Key Topic 8 – Components-2 8-8A1 The basic frequency determining element in a Gunn oscillator is: A. The power supply voltage. B. The type of semiconductor used. C. The resonant cavity. D. The loading of the oscillator by the mixer. 8-8A2 Which of the following is not a method of analog-to-digital conversion? A. Delta-sigma conversion. B. Dynamic-range conversion. C. Switched-capacitor conversion. D. Dual-slope integration. 8-8A3 When comparing TTL and CMOS logic families, which of the following is true: A. CMOS logic requires a supply voltage of 5 volts +/- 20%, whereas TTL logic requires 5 volts +/- 5%. B. Unused inputs should be tied high or low as necessary especially in the CMOS family. C. At higher operating frequencies, CMOS circuits consume almost as much power as TTL circuits. D. When a CMOS input is held low, it sources current into whatever it drives. 8-8A4 The primary operating frequency of a reflex klystron is controlled by the: A. Dimensions of the resonant cavity. B. Level of voltage on the control grid. C. Voltage applied to the cavity grids. D. Voltage applied to the repeller plate. 8-8A5 A Gunn diode oscillator takes advantage of what effect? A. Negative resistance. B. Avalanche transit time. C. Bulk-effect. D. Negative resistance and bulk-effect. 8-8A6 Fine adjustments of a reflex klystron are accomplished by: A. Adjusting the flexible wall of the cavity. B. Varying the repeller voltage. C. Adjusting the AFC control system. D. Varying the cavity grid potential. Answer Key: 8-8A1: C 8-8A2: B 8-8A3: C 8-8A4: A 8-8A5: D 8-8A6: B Key Topic 9 – Circuits-1 8-9A1 Blocking oscillators operate on the formula of: A. T = R x C. B. I = E/R. C. By using the receiver’s AGC. D. None of the above are correct. 8-9A2 The block diagram of a typical RADAR system microprocessor is shown in Fig. 8A2. Choose the most correct statement regarding this system. A. The ALU is used for address decoding. B. The Memory and I/O communicate with peripherals. C. The control unit executes arithmetic manipulations. D. The internal bus is used simultaneously by all units. 8-9A3 The phantastron circuit is capable of: A. Stabilizing the magnetron. B. Preventing saturation of the RADAR receiver. C. Being used to control repeller voltage in the AFC system. D. Developing a linear ramp voltage when triggered by an external source. 8-9A4 The block diagram of a typical RADAR system microprocessor is shown in Fig. 8A2. Choose the most correct statement regarding this system. A. The ALU executes arithmetic manipulations. B. The ALU is used for address decoding. C. General registers are used for arithmetic manipulations. D. Address pointers are contained in the control unit. 8-9A5 In the Line-Driver/Coax/Line-receiver circuit shown in Fig. 8A3, what component is represented by the blank box marked "X"? A. 25-ohm resistor. B. 51-ohm resistor. C. 10-microhm inductor. D. 20-microhm inductor. 8-9A6 Choose the most correct statement: A. The magnetron anode is a low voltage circuit. B. The anode of the magnetron carries high voltage. C. The filament of the magnetron carries dangerous voltages. D. The magnetron filament is a low voltage circuit. Answer Key: 8-9A1: A 8-9A2: B 8-9A3: D 8-9A4: A 8-9A5: B 8-9A6: C Key Topic 10 – Circuits-2 8-10A1 In the circuit shown in Fig. 8A4, U5 pins 1 and 4 are high and both are in the reset state. Assume one clock cycle occurs of Clk A followed by one cycle of Clk B. What are the output states of the two D-type flip flops? A. Pin 5 low, Pin 9 low. B. Pin 5 high, Pin 9 low. C. Pin 5 low, Pin 9 high. D. Pin 5 high, Pin 9 high. 8-10A2 If more light strikes the photodiode in Fig. 8A5, there will be: A. Less diode current. B. No change in diode current. C. More diode current. D. There is wrong polarity on the diode. 8-10A3 In the circuit shown in Fig. 8A6, which of the following is true? A. With A and B high, Q1 is saturated and Q2 is off. B. With either A or B low, Q1 is saturated and Q2 is off. C. With A and B low, Q2 is on and Q4 is off. D. With either A or B low, Q1 is off and Q2 is on. 8-10A4 What is the correct value of RS in Fig. 8A7, if the voltage across the LED is 1.9 Volts with 5 Volts applied and If max equals 40 milliamps? A. 4,700 ohms. B. 155 ohms. C. 77 ohms. D. 10,000 ohms. 8-10A5 The block diagram of a typical RADAR system microprocessor is shown in Fig. 8A2. Choose the most correct statement regarding this system. A. The ALU is used for address decoding. B. General registers are used for arithmetic manipulations. C. The control unit executes arithmetic manipulations. D. Address pointers are contained in the general registers. 8-10A6 You are troubleshooting a component on a printed circuit board in a RADAR system while referencing the Truth Table in Fig. 8A8. What kind of integrated circuit is the component? A. D-type Flip-Flop, 3-State, Inverting. B. Q-type Flip-Flop, Non-Inverting. C. Q-type Directional Shift Register, Dual. D. D to Q Convertor, 2-State. Answer Key: 8-10A1: D 8-10A2: C 8-10A3: B 8-10A4: C 8-10A5: D 8-10A6: A Subelement B – Transmitting Systems – 8 Key Topics – 8 Exam Questions Key Topic 11 – Transmitting Systems 8-11B1 The magnetron is used to: A. Generate the output signal at the proper operating frequency. B. Determine the shape and width of the transmitted pulses. C. Modulate the pulse signal. D. Determine the pulse repetition rate. 8-11B2 The purpose of the modulator is to: A. Transmit the high voltage pulses to the antenna. B. Provide high voltage pulses of the proper shape and width to the magnetron. C. Adjust the pulse repetition rate. D. Tune the Magnetron to the proper frequency. 8-11B3 Which of the following statements about most modern RADAR transmitter power supplies is false? A. High voltage supplies may produce voltages in excess of 5,000 volts AC. B. There are usually separate low voltage and high voltage supplies. C. Low voltage supplies use switching circuits to deliver multiple voltages. D. Low voltage supplies may supply both AC and DC voltages. 8-11B4 The purpose of the Pulse Forming Network is to: A. Act as a low pass filter. B. Act as a high pass filter. C. Produce a pulse of the correct width. D. Regulate the pulse repetition rate. 8-11B5 The purpose of the Synchronizer is to: A. Generate the modulating pulse to the magnetron. B. Generate a timing signal that establishes the pulse repetition rate. C. Insure that the TR tube conducts at the proper time. D. Control the pulse width. 8-11B6 Which of the following is not part of the transmitting system? A. Magnetron. B. Modulator. C. Pulse Forming Network. D. Klystron. Answer Key: 8-11B1: A 8-11B2: B 8-11B3: A 8-11B4: C 8-11B5: B 8-11B6: D Key Topic 12 – Magnetrons 8-12B1 High voltage is applied to what element of the magnetron? A. The waveguide. B. The anode. C. The plate cap. D. The cathode. 8-12B2 The characteristic of the magnetron output pulse that relates to accurate range measurement is its: A. Amplitude. B. Decay time. C. Rise time. D. Duration. 8-12B3 What device is used as a transmitter in a marine RADAR system? A. Magnetron. B. Klystron. C. Beam-powered pentode. D. Thyratron. 8-12B4 The magnetron is: A. A type of diode that requires an internal magnetic field. B. A triode that requires an external magnetic field. C. Used as the local oscillator in the RADAR unit. D. A type of diode that requires an external magnetic field. 8-12B5 A negative voltage is commonly applied to the magnetron cathode rather than a positive voltage to the magnetron anode because: A. The cathode must be made neutral to force electrons into the drift area. B. A positive voltage would tend to nullify or weaken the magnetic field. C. The anode can be operated at ground potential for safety reasons. D. The cavities might not be shock-excited into oscillation by a positive voltage. 8-12B6 The anode of a magnetron is normally maintained at ground potential: A. Because it operates more efficiently that way. B. For safety purposes. C. Never. It must be highly positive to attract the electrons. D. Because greater peak-power ratings can be achieved. Answer Key: 8-12B1: D 8-12B2: C 8-12B3: A 8-12B4: D 8-12B5: C 8-12B6: B Key Topic 13 – Modulation 8-13B1 In a solid-state RADAR modulator, the duration of the transmitted pulse is determined by: A. The thyratron. B. The magnetron voltage. C. The pulse forming network. D. The trigger pulse. 8-13B2 The modulation frequency of most RADAR systems is between: A. 60 and 500 Hz. B. 3000 and 6000 Hz. C. 1500 and 7500 Hz. D. 1000 and 3000 Hz. 8-13B3 A shipboard RADAR uses a PFN driving a magnetron cathode through a step-up transformer. This results in which type of modulation? A. Frequency modulation. B. Amplitude modulation. C. Continuous Wave (CW) modulation. D. Pulse modulation. 8-13B4 In a pulse modulated magnetron what device determines the shape and width of the pulse? A. Pulse Forming Network. B. Thyratron. C. LC parallel circuit. D. Dimensions of the magnetron cavity. 8-13B5 What device(s) may act as the modulator of a RADAR system? A. Magnetron. B. Klystron. C. Video amplifier. D. Thyratron or a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR). 8-13B6 The purpose of a modulator in the transmitter section of a RADAR is to: A. Improve bearing resolution. B. Provide the correct waveform to the transmitter. C. Prevent sea return. D. Control magnetron power output. Answer Key: 8-13B1: C 8-13B2: A 8-13B3: D 8-13B4: A 8-13B5: D 8-13B6: B Key Topic 14 – Pulse Forming Networks Modulation 8-14B1 The pulse developed by the modulator may have an amplitude greater than the supply voltage. This is possible by: A. Using a voltage multiplier circuit. B. Employing a resonant charging choke. C. Discharging a capacitor through an inductor. D. Discharging two capacitors in series and combining their charges. 8-14B2 Pulse transformers and pulse-forming networks are commonly used to shape the microwave energy burst RADAR transmitter. The switching devices most often used in such pulse-forming circuits are: A. Power MOSFETS and Triacs. B. Switching transistors. C. Thyratrons and BJT’s. D. SCR’s and Thyratrons. 8-14B3 The purpose of the pulse-forming network is to: A. Determine the width of the modulating pulses. B. Determine the pulse repetition rate. C. Act as a high pass filter. D. Act as a log pass filter. 8-14B4 The shape and duration of the high-voltage pulse delivered to the magnetron is established by: A. An RC network in the keyer stage. B. The duration of the modulator input trigger. C. An artificial delay line. D. The time required to saturate the pulse transformer. 8-14B5 Pulse-forming networks are usually composed of the following: A. Series capacitors and shunt inductors. B. Series inductors and shunt capacitors. C. Resonant circuit with an inductor and capacitor. D. None of the above. 8-14B6 An artificial transmission line is used for: A. The transmission of RADAR pulses. B. Testing the RADAR unit, when actual targets are not available. C. Determining the shape and duration of pulses. D. Testing the delay time for artificial targets. Answer Key: 8-14B1: B 8-14B2: D 8-14B3: A 8-14B4: C 8-14B5: B 8-14B6: C Key Topic 15 – TR - ATR - Circulators - Directional Couplers-1 8-15B1 The ferrite material in a circulator is used as a(an): A. Electric switch. B. Saturated reactor. C. Loading element. D. Phase shifter. 8-15B2 In a circular resonant cavity with flat ends, the E-field and the H-field form with specific relationships. The: A. E-lines are parallel to the top and bottom walls. B. E-lines are perpendicular to the end walls. C. H-lines are perpendicular to the side walls. D. H-lines are circular to the end walls. 8-15B3 A ferrite circulator is most commonly used in what portion of a RADAR system? A. The antenna. B. The modulator. C. The duplexer. D. The receiver. 8-15B4 A circulator provides what function in the RF section of a RADAR system? A. It replaces the TR cell and functions as a duplexer. B. It cools the magnetron by forcing a flow of circulating air. C. It permits tests to be made to the thyristors while in use. D. It transmits antenna position to the indicator during operation. 8-15B5 A directional coupler has an attenuation of -30 db. A measurement of 100 milliwatts at the coupler indicates the power of the line is: A. 10 watts. B. 100 watts. C. 1,000 watts. D. 10,000 watts. 8-15B6 What is the purpose or function of the RADAR duplexer/circulator? A. An electronic switch that allows the use of one antenna for both transmission and reception. B. A coupling device that is used in the transition from a rectangular waveguide to a circular waveguide. C. A modified length of waveguide used to sample a portion of the transmitted energy for testing purposes. D. A dual section coupling device that allows the use of a magnetron as a transmitter. Answer Key: 8-15B1: D 8-15B2: B 8-15B3: C 8-15B4: A 8-15B5: B 8-15B6: A Key Topic 16 – TR - ATR - Circulators - Directional Couplers-2 8-16B1 The ATR box: A. Protects the receiver from strong RADAR signals. B. Prevents the received signal from entering the transmitter. C. Turns off the receiver when the transmitter is on. D. All of the above. 8-16B2 When a pulse RADAR is radiating, which elements in the TR box are energized? A. The TR tube only. B. The ATR tube only. C. Both the TR and ATR tubes. D. Neither the TR nor ATR tubes. 8-16B3 The TR box: A. Prevents the received signal from entering the transmitter. B. Protects the receiver from the strong RADAR pulses. C. Turns off the receiver when the transmitter is on. D. Protects the receiver from the strong RADAR pulses and mutes the receiver when the transmitter is on. 8-16B4 What device is located between the magnetron and the mixer and prevents received signals from entering the magnetron? A. The ATR tube. B. The TR tube. C. The RF Attenuator. D. A resonant cavity. 8-16B5 A keep-alive voltage is applied to: A. The crystal detector. B. The ATR tube. C. The TR tube. D. The magnetron. 8-16B6 A DC keep-alive potential: A. Is applied to a TR tube to make it more sensitive. B. Partially ionizes the gas in a TR tube, making it very sensitive to transmitter pulses. C. Fully ionizes the gas in a TR tube. D. Is applied to a TR tube to make it more sensitive and partially ionizes the gas in a TR tube. Answer Key: 8-16B1: B 8-16B2: C 8-16B3: D 8-16B4: A 8-16B5: C 8-16B6: D Key Topic 17 – Timer - Trigger - Synchronizer Circuits 8-17B1 What RADAR circuit determines the pulse repetition rate (PRR)? A. Discriminator. B. Timer (synchronizer circuit). C. Artificial transmission line. D. Pulse-rate-indicator circuit. 8-17B2 The triggering section is also known as the: A. PFN. B. Timer circuit. C. Blocking oscillator. D. Synchronizer. 8-17B3 Operation of any RADAR system begins in the: A. Triggering section. B. Magnetron. C. AFC. D. PFN. 8-17B4 The timer circuit: A. Determines the pulse repetition rate (PRR). B. Determines range markers. C. Provides blanking and unblanking signals for the CRT. D. All of the above 8-17B5 Pulse RADARs require precise timing for their operation. Which type circuit below might best be used to provide these accurate timing pulses? A. Single-swing blocking oscillator. B. AFC controlled sinewave oscillator. C. Non-symmetrical astable multivibrator. D. Triggered flip-flop type multivibrator. 8-17B6 Unblanking pulses are produced by the timer circuit. Where are they sent? A. IF amplifiers. B. Mixer. C. CRT. D. Discriminator. Answer Key: 8-17B1: B 8-17B2: D 8-17B3: A 8-17B4: D 8-17B5: A 8-17B6: C Key Topic 18 – Power Supplies 8-18B1 An advantage of resonant charging is that it: A. Eliminates the need for a reverse current diode. B. Guarantees perfectly square output pulses. C. Reduces the high-voltage power supply requirements. D. Maintains a constant magnetron output frequency. 8-18B2 The characteristics of a field-effect transistor (FET) used in a modern RADAR switching power supply can be compared as follows: A. “On” state compares to a bipolar transistor. “Off” state compares to a 1-Megohm resistor. B. “On” state compares to a pure resistor. “Off” state compares to a mechanical relay. C. “On” state compares to an low resistance inductor. “Off” state compares to a 10-Megohm resistor. D. “On” state compares to a resistor. “Off” state compares to a capacitor. 8-18B3 A pulse-width modulator in a switching power supply is used to: A. Provide the reference voltage for the regulator. B. Vary the frequency of the switching regulator to control the output voltage. C. Vary the duty cycle of the regulator switch to control the output voltage. D. Compare the reference voltage with the output voltage sample and produce an error voltage. 8-18B4 In a fixed-frequency switching power supply, the pulse width of the switching circuit will increase when: A. The load impedance decreases. B. The load current decreases. C. The output voltage increases. D. The input voltage increases. 8-18B5 A major consideration for the use of a switching regulator power supply over a linear regulator is: A. The switching regulator has better regulation. B. The linear regulator does not require a transformer to step down AC line voltages to a usable level. C. The switching regulator can be used in nearly all applications requiring regulated voltage. D. The overall efficiency of a switching regulator is much higher than a linear power supply. 8-18B6 Which of the following characteristics are true of a power MOSFET used in a RADAR switching supply? A. Low input impedance; failure mode can be gate punch-through. B. High input impedance; failure mode can be gate punch-through. C. High input impedance; failure mode can be thermal runaway. D. Low input impedance; failure mode can be gate breakdown. Answer Key: 8-18B1: C 8-18B2: B 8-18B3: C 8-18B4: A 8-18B5: D 8-18B6: B Subelement C – Receiving Systems – 10 Key Topics – 10 Exam Questions – 4 Drawings Key Topic 19 – Receiving Systems 8-19C1 Which of the following statements is true? A. The front end of the receiver does not provide any amplification to the RADAR signal. B. The mixer provides a gain of at least 6 db. C. The I.F. amplifier is always a high gain, narrow bandwidth amplifier. D. None of the above. 8-19C2 Logarithmic receivers: A. Can’t be damaged. B. Can’t be saturated. C. Should not be used in RADAR systems. D. Have low sensitivity. 8-19C3 RADAR receivers are similar to: A. FM receivers. B. HF receivers. C. T.V. receivers. D. Microwave receivers. 8-19C4 What section of the receiving system sends signals to the display system? A. Video amplifier. B. Audio amplifier. C. I.F. Amplifier. D. Resolver. 8-19C5 What is the main difference between an analog and a digital receiver? A. Special amplification circuitry. B. The presence of decision circuitry to distinguish between “on” and “off” signal levels. C. An AGC stage is not required in a digital receiver. D. Digital receivers produce no distortion. 8-19C6 In a RADAR receiver, the RF power amplifier: A. Is high gain. B. Is low gain. C. Does not exist. D. Requires wide bandwidth. Answer Key: 8-19C1: A 8-19C2: B 8-19C3: D 8-19C4: A 8-19C5: B 8-19C6: C Key Topic 20 – Mixers 8-20C1 The diagram in Fig. 8C9 shows a simplified RADAR mixer circuit using a crystal diode as the first detector. What is the output of the circuit when no echoes are being received? A. 60 MHz CW. B. 4095 MHz CW. C. 4155 MHz CW. D. No output is developed. 8-20C2 In the receive mode, frequency conversion is generally accomplished by a: A. Tunable wave-guide section. B. Pentagrid converter. C. Crystal diode. D. Ferrite device. 8-20C3 An RF mixer has what purpose in a RADAR system? A. Mixes the CW transmitter output to form pulsed waves. B. Converts a low-level signal to a different frequency. C. Prevents microwave oscillations from reaching the antenna. D. Combines audio tones with RF to produce the RADAR signal. 8-20C4 In a RADAR unit, the mixer uses a: A. Pentagrid converter tube. B. Field-effect transistor. C. Silicon crystal or PIN diode. D. Microwave transistor. 8-20C5 What component of a RADAR receiver is represented by block 49 in Fig. 8A1? A. Discriminator. B. IF amplifier. C. Klystron. D. Crystal detector (the mixer). 8-20C6 In a RADAR unit, the mixer uses: A. PIN diodes and silicon crystals. B. PIN diodes. C. Boettcher crystals. D. Silicon crystals. Answer Key: 8-20C1: D 8-20C2: C 8-20C3: B 8-20C4: C 8-20C5: D 8-20C6: A Key Topic 21 – Local Oscillators 8-21C1 The error voltage from the discriminator is applied to the: A. Repeller (reflector) of the klystron. B. Grids of the IF amplifier. C. Grids of the RF amplifiers. D. Magnetron. 8-21C2 In a RADAR unit, the local oscillator is a: A. Hydrogen Thyratron. B. Klystron. C. Pentagrid converter tube. D. Reactance tube modulator. 8-21C3 What component of a RADAR receiver is represented by block 48 in Fig. 8A1? A. Klystron (local oscillator). B. Discriminator. C. IF amplifier. D. Crystal detector. 8-21C4 What device(s) could be used as the local oscillator in a RADAR receiver? A. Thyratron B. Klystron C. Klystron and a Gunn Diode D. Gunn diode 8-21C5 The klystron local oscillator is constantly kept on frequency by: A. Constant manual adjustments. B. The Automatic Frequency Control circuit. C. A feedback loop from the crystal detector. D. A feedback loop from the TR box. 8-21C6 How may the frequency of the klystron be varied? A. Small changes can be made by adjusting the anode voltage. B. Large changes can be made by adjusting the frequency. C. By changing the phasing of the buncher grids D. Small changes can be made by adjusting the repeller voltage and large changes can be made by adjusting the size of the resonant cavity. Answer Key: 8-21C1: A 8-21C2: B 8-21C3: A 8-21C4: C 8-21C5: B 8-21C6: D Key Topic 22 – Amplifiers 8-22C1 Overcoupling in a RADAR receiver will cause? A. Improved target returns. B. Increase the range of the IAGC. C. Decrease noise. D. Oscillations. 8-22C2 The usual intermediate frequency of a shipboard RADAR unit is: A. 455 kHz. B. 10.7 MHz. C. 30 or 60 MHz. D. 120 MHz. 8-22C3 The I.F. Amplifier bandwidth is: A. Wide for short ranges and narrow for long ranges. B. Wide for long ranges and narrow for short ranges. C. Constant for all ranges. D. Adjustable from the control panel. 8-22C4 A logarithmic IF amplifier is preferable to a linear IF amplifier in a RADAR receiver because it: A. Has higher gain. B. Is more easily aligned. C. Has a lower noise figure. D. Has a greater dynamic range. 8-22C5 The high-gain IF amplifiers in a RADAR receiver may amplify a 2 microvolt input signal to an output level of 2 volts. This amount of amplification represents a gain of: A. 60 db. B. 100 db. C. 120 db. D. 1,000 db. 8-22C6 In a RADAR receiver AGC and IAGC can vary between: A. 10 and 15 db. B. 20 and 40 db. C. 30 and 60 db. D. 5 and 30 db. Answer Key: 8-22C1: D 8-22C2: C 8-22C3: A 8-22C4: D 8-22C5: C 8-22C6: B Key Topic 23 – Detectors - Video Amplifiers 8-23C1 Which of the following statements is correct? A. The video amplifier is located between the mixer and the I.F. amplifier. B. The video amplifier operates between 60 MHz and 120 Mhz. C. The video amplifier is located between the I.F. amplifier and the display system. D. The video amplifier is located between the local oscillator and the mixer. 8-23C2 Video amplifiers in pulse RADAR receivers must have a broad bandwidth because: A. Weak pulses must be amplified. B. High frequency sine waves must be amplified. C. The RADARs operate at PRFs above 100. D. The pulses produced are normally too wide for video amplification. 8-23C3 In video amplifiers, compensation for the input and output stage capacitances must be accomplished to prevent distorting the video pulses. This compensation is normally accomplished by connecting: A. Inductors in parallel with both the input and output capacitances. B. Resistances in parallel with both the input and output capacitances. C. An inductor in parallel with the input capacitance and an inductor in series with the output capacitance. D. An inductor in series with the input capacitance and an inductor in parallel with the output capacitance. 8-23C4 Which of the following signals is not usually an input to the video amplifier? A. Resolver. B. Range. C. Brilliance. D. Contrast. 8-23C5 Which of the following signals are usually an input to the video amplifier? A. Range. B. Brilliance. C. Contrast. D. All of the above. 8-23C6 The video (second) detector in a pulse modulated RADAR system would most likely use a/an: A. Discriminator detector. B. Diode detector. C. Ratio detector. D. Infinite impedance detector. Answer Key: 8-23C1: C 8-23C2: A 8-23C3: D 8-23C4: A 8-23C5: D 8-23C6: B Key Topic 24 – Automatic Frequency Control - AFC 8-24C1 The AFC system is used to: A. Control the frequency of the magnetron. B. Control the frequency of the klystron. C. Control the receiver gain. D. Control the frequency of the incoming pulses. 8-24C2 A circuit used to develop AFC voltage in a RADAR receiver is called the: A. Peak detector. B. Crystal mixer. C. Second detector. D. Discriminator. 8-24C3 In the AFC system, the discriminator compares the frequencies of the: A. Magnetron and klystron. B. PRR generator and magnetron. C. Magnetron and crystal detector. D. Magnetron and video amplifier. 8-24C4 An AFC system keeps the receiver tuned to the transmitted signal by varying the frequency of the: A. Magnetron. B. IF amplifier stage. C. Local oscillator. D. Cavity duplexer. 8-24C5 A RADAR transmitter is operating on 3.0 GHz and the reflex klystron local oscillator, operating at 3.060 GHz, develops a 60 MHz IF. If the magnetron drifts higher in frequency, the AFC system must cause the klystron repeller plate to become: A. More positive. B. More negative. C. Less positive. D. Less negative. 8-24C6 What component is block 50 in Fig. 8A1? A. IF amplifier. B. AFC amplifier. C. Discriminator. D. Crystal detector. Answer Key: 8-24C1: B 8-24C2: D 8-24C3: A 8-24C4: C 8-24C5: B 8-24C6: C Key Topic 25 – Sea Clutter - STC 8-25C1 The STC circuit is used to: A. Increase receiver stability. B. Increase receiver sensitivity. C. Increase receiver selectivity. D. Decrease sea return on a RADAR receiver. 8-25C2 The STC circuit: A. Increases the sensitivity of the receiver for close targets. B. Decreases sea return on the PPI scope. C. Helps to increase the bearing resolution of targets. D. Increases sea return on the PPI scope. 8-25C3 Sea return is: A. Sea water that gets into the antenna system. B. The return echo from a target at sea. C. The reflection of RADAR signals from nearby waves. D. None of the above. 8-25C4 Sea clutter on the RADAR scope cannot be effectively reduced using front panel controls. What circuit would you suspect is faulty? A. Sensitivity Time Control (STC) circuit. B. False Target Eliminator (FTE) circuit. C. Fast Time Constant (FTC) circuit. D. Intermediate Frequency (IF) circuit. 8-25C5 What circuit controls the suppression of sea clutter? A. EBL circuit. B. STC circuit. C. Local oscillator. D. Audio amplifier. 8-25C6 The sensitivity time control (STC) circuit: A. Decreases the sensitivity of the receiver for close objects. B. Increases the sensitivity of the receiver for close objects. C. Increases the sensitivity of the receiver for distant objects. D. Decreases the sensitivity of the transmitter for close objects. Answer Key: 8-25C1: D 8-25C2: B 8-25C3: C 8-25C4: A 8-25C5: B 8-25C6: A Key Topic 26 – Power Supplies 8-26C1 Prior to making “power-on” measurements on a switching power supply, you should be familiar with the supply because of the following: A. You need to know where the filter capacitors are so they can be discharged. B. If it does not use a line isolation transformer you may destroy the supply with grounded test equipment. C. It is not possible to cause a component failure by using ungrounded test equipment. D. So that measurements can be made without referring to the schematic. 8-26C2 A constant frequency switching power supply regulator with an input voltage of 165 volts DC, and a switching frequency of 20 kHz, has an “ON” time of 27 microseconds when supplying 1 ampere to its load. What is the output voltage across the load? A. It cannot be determined with the information given. B. 305.55 volts DC. C. 89.1 volts DC. D. 165 volts DC. 8-26C3 The circuit shown in Fig. 8C10 is the output of a switching power supply. Measuring from the junction of CR6, CR7 and L1 to ground with an oscilloscope, what waveform would you expect to see? A. Filtered DC. B. Pulsating DC at line frequency. C. AC at line frequency. D. Pulsating DC much higher than line frequency. 8-26C4 With regard to the comparator shown in Fig. 8C11, the input is a sinusoid. Nominal high level output of the comparator is 4.5 volts. Choose the most correct statement regarding the input and output. A. The leading edge of the output waveform occurs 180 degrees after positive zero crossing of the input waveform. B. The rising edge of the output waveform trails the positive zero crossing of the input waveform by 45 degrees. C. The rising edge of the output waveform trails the negative zero crossing of the input waveform by 45 degrees. D. The rising edge of the output waveform trails the positive peak of the input waveform by 45 degrees. 8-26C5 When monitoring the gate voltage of a power MOSFET in the switching power supply of a modern RADAR, you would expect to see the gate voltage change from “low” to “high” by how much? A. 1 volt to 2 volts. B. 300 microvolts to 700 microvolts. C. Greater than 2 volts. D. 1.0 volt to 20.0 volts. 8-26C6 The nominal output high of the comparator shown in Fig. 8C11 is 4.5 volts. Choose the most correct statement which describes the trip points. A. Upper trip point is 4.5 volts. Lower trip point is approximately 0 volts. B. Upper trip point is 2.5 volts. Lower trip point is approximately 2.0 volts. C. Upper trip point is 900 microvolts. Lower trip point is approximately 0 volts. D. Upper trip point is +1.285 volts. Lower trip point is -1.285 volts. Answer Key: 8-26C1: B 8-26C2: C 8-26C3: D 8-26C4: A 8-26C5: C 8-26C6: D Key Topic 27 – Interference Issues 8-27C1 One of the best methods of reducing noise in a RADAR receiver is? A. Changing the frequency. B. Isolation. C. Replacing the resonant cavity. D. Changing the IF strip. 8-27C2 The primary cause of noise in a RADAR receiver can be attributed to: A. Electrical causes. B. Atmospheric changes. C. Poor grounding. D. Thermal noise caused by RADAR receiver components. 8-27C3 Noise can appear on the LCD as: A. Erratic video and sharp changes in intensity. B. Black spots on the screen. C. Changes in bearings. D. None of the above. 8-27C4 RADAR interference on a communications receiver appears as: A. A varying tone. B. Static. C. A hissing tone. D. A steady tone. 8-27C5 In a RADAR receiver the most common types of interference are? A. Weather and sea return. B. Sea return and thermal. C. Weather and electrical. D. Jamming and electrical. 8-27C6 Noise can: A. Mask larger targets. B. Change bearings. C. Mask small targets. D. Increase RADAR transmitter interference. Answer Key: 8-27C1: B 8-27C2: D 8-27C3: A 8-27C4: D 8-27C5: A 8-27C6: C Key Topic 28 – Miscellaneous 8-28C1 The purpose of the discriminator circuit in a RADAR set is to: A. Discriminate against nearby objects. B. Discriminate against two objects with very similar bearings. C. Generate a corrective voltage for controlling the frequency of the klystron local oscillator. D. Demodulate or remove the intelligence from the FM signal. 8-28C2 The MTI circuit: A. Acts as a mixer in a RADAR receiver. B. Is a filter, which blocks out stationary targets, allowing only moving targets to be detected. C. Is used to monitor transmitter interference. D. Will pick up targets, which are not in motion. 8-28C3 Where is a RF attenuator used in a RADAR unit? A. Between the antenna and the receiver. B. Between the magnetron and the antenna. C. Between the magnetron and the AFC section of the receiver. D. Between the AFC section and the klystron. 8-28C4 The condition known as "glint" refers to a shifting of clutter with each RADAR pulse and can be caused by a: A. Improperly functioning MTI filter. B. Memory failure. C. Low AFC voltage. D. Interference from electrical equipment. 8-28C5 An ion discharge (TR) cell is used to: A. Protect the transmitter from high SWRs. B. Lower the noise figure of the receiver. C. Tune the local oscillator of the RADAR receiver. D. Protect the receiver mixer during the transmit pulse. 8-28C6 When the receiver employs an MTI circuit: A. The receiver gain increases with time. B. Only moving targets will be displayed. C. The receiver AGC circuits are disabled. D. Ground clutter will be free of “rabbits.” Answer Key: 8-28C1: C 8-28C2: B 8-28C3: C 8-28C4: A 8-28C5: D 8-28C6: B Subelement D – Display & Control Systems - 10 Key Topics – 10 Exam Questions Key Topic 29 – Displays 8-29D1 Modern liquid crystal displays have a pixel count of: A. Greater than 200 pixels per inch. B. Greater than 50 pixels per inch. C. Can have no more than 125 pixels per inch. D. Can implement 1,000 pixels per inch. 8-29D2 Voltages used in CRT anode circuits are in what range of value? A. 0.5-10 mV. B. 10-50 kV. C. 20-50 mV. D. 200-1000 V. 8-29D3 The purpose of the aquadag coating on the CRT is: A. To protect the electrons from strong electric fields. B. To act as a second anode. C. To attract secondary emissions from the CRT screen. D. All of the above 8-29D4 LCD patterns are formed when: A. Current passes through the crystal causing them to align. B. When voltage is reduced to the raster scan display. C. When the deflection coils are resonant. D. When the ships antenna’s bearing is true North. 8-29D5 In a raster-type display, the electron beam is scanned: A. From the center of the display to the outer edges. B. Horizontally and vertically across the CRT face. C. In a rotating pattern which follows the antenna position. D. From one specified X-Y coordinate to the next. 8-29D6 Select the statement, which is most correct regarding a raster scan display. A. Raster displays are the same as conventional T.V. receivers. B. The scan rate for a RADAR system is 30 frames per second. C. Raster scanning is controlled by clock pulses and requires an address bus. D. Raster scanning is not used in RADAR systems. Answer Key: 8-29D1: A 8-29D2: B 8-29D3: D 8-29D4: A 8-29D5: B 8-29D6: C Key Topic 30 – Video Amplifiers and Sweep Circuits 8-30D1 What are the usual input signals to the video amplifier? A. Low level video. B. Fixed range rings. C. Variable range rings. D. All of the above. 8-30D2 Which of the following would not normally be an input to the video amplifier? A. Fixed range rings. B. Variable range rings. C. Resolver signal. D. Low level video. 8-30D3 The purpose of the sweep amplifier is to: A. Increase the power of the video amplifier. B. Drive the CRT deflection coils. C. Drive the resolver coils. D. All of the above. 8-30D4 How many deflection coils are driven by the sweep amplifier? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1 8-30D5 The main purpose of the sweep generator is to provide: A. Antenna information. B. Range rings. C. Composite video to the cathode of the CRT. D. The drive signal to the sweep amplifier. 8-30D6 The main purpose of the video amplifier is to provide: A. Composite video to the cathode of the CRT. B. Resolver signals C. Antenna X and Y signals. D. Provide the drive signal to the sweep amplifier. Answer Key: 8-30D1: D 8-30D2: C 8-30D3: B 8-30D4: C 8-30D5: D 8-30D6: A Key Topic 31 – Timing Circuits 8-31D1 Timing circuits are used to provide what function? A. Develop synchronizing pulses for the transmitter system. B. Synchronize the antenna and display system. C. Adjust the sea return. D. Control the North Up presentation. 8-31D2 The circuit that develops timing signals is called the: A. Resolver. B. Synchronizer. C. Pulse forming network. D. Video amplifier. 8-31D3 Which of the following functions is not affected by the timing circuit? A. Resolver output. B. Pulse repetition frequency. C. Sweep drive. D. Modulation. 8-31D4 The synchronizer primarily affects the following circuit or function: A. Mixer. B. Receiver. C. Modulator. D. I.F. Amplifier. 8-31D5 The output from the synchronizer usually consists of a: A. Sine wave. B. Pulse or square wave. C. Triangle wave. D. None of the above. 8-31D6 The sweep drive is initiated by what circuit? A. Resolver. B. Sweep amplifier. C. Video amplifier. D. Synchronizer. Answer Key: 8-31D1: A 8-31D2: B 8-31D3: A 8-31D4: C 8-31D5: B 8-31D6: D Key Topic 32 – Fixed Range Markers 8-32D1 Accurate range markers must be developed using very narrow pulses. A circuit that could be used to provide these high-quality pulses for the CRT is a: A. Ringing oscillator. B. Monostable multivibrator. C. Triggered bi-stable multivibrator. D. Blocking oscillator. 8-32D2 Range markers are determined by: A. The CRT. B. The magnetron. C. The timer. D. The video amplifier. 8-32D3 A gated LC oscillator, operating at 27 kHz, is being used to develop range markers. If each cycle is converted to a range mark, the range between markers will be: A. 3 nautical miles. B. 6 nautical miles. C. 8 nautical miles. D. 12 nautical miles. 8-32D4 What would be the frequency of a range ring marker oscillator generating range rings at 10 nautical miles intervals? A. 24 kHz B. 16 kHz C. 12 kHz D. 8 kHz 8-32D5 What is the distance between range markers if the controlling oscillator is operating at 20 kHz? A. 1 nautical miles. B. 2 nautical miles. C. 4 nautical miles. D. 8 nautical miles. 8-32D6 What would be the frequency of a range ring marker oscillator generating range rings at intervals of 0.25 nautical miles? A. 161 kHz B. 322 kHz C. 644 kHz D. 1288 kHz Answer Key: 8-32D1: D 8-32D2: C 8-32D3: A 8-32D4: D 8-32D5: C 8-32D6: B Key Topic 33 – Variable Range Markers 8-33D1 The variable range marker signal is normally fed to the input of the: A. Sweep amplifier. B. Low voltage power supply regulator. C. Video amplifier. D. Range ring oscillator. 8-33D2 The purpose of the variable range marker is to: A. Provide an accurate means of determining the range of a moving target. B. Provide a bearing line between own ship and a moving target. C. Indicate the distance between two different targets. D. Provide a means of calibrating the fixed range rings. 8-33D3 How is the variable range marker usually adjusted for accuracy? A. Adjusting the frequency of the VRM oscillator at the maximum range. B. Adjusting the frequency of the VRM oscillator at the minimum range. C. Adjusting the readout to match at the median range ring. D. The minimum and maximum ranges are aligned with the matching fixed range ring. 8-33D4 The panel control for the variable range marker is normally a: A. Variable resistor. B. Variable inductance. C. Variable capacitance. D. Variable resolver. 8-33D5 An important component of the VRM system is the: A. Resolver. B. Interference rejection circuit. C. STC sensitivity control. D. Shift register. 8-33D6 Which of the following statements about the Variable Range Marker system is correct? A. The VRM is an auxiliary output of the fixed range marker oscillator. B. The VRM system develops a single adjustable range ring. C. The VRM system is calibrated using a frequency counter. D. The VRM system is controlled by a crystal oscillator. Answer Key: 8-33D1: C 8-33D2: A 8-33D3: D 8-33D4: A 8-33D5: D 8-33D6: B Key Topic 34 – EBL, Azimuth and True Bearing 8-34D1 The purpose of the Electronic Bearing Line is to: A. Indicate your own vessel’s heading. B. Measure the bearing of a specific target. C. Indicate True North. D. Display the range of a specific target. 8-34D2 The Electronic Bearing Line is: A. The ships heading line. B. A line indicating True North. C. Used to mark a target to obtain the distance. D. A line from your own vessel to a specific target. 8-34D3 Which of the following inputs is required to indicate azimuth? A. Gyro signals. B. Synchronizer C. Resolver. D. Range rings. 8-34D4 Bearing information from the gyro is used to provide the following: A. The heading of the nearest target. B. Range and bearing to the nearest target. C. Vessel’s own heading. D. The range of a selected target. 8-34D5 Which of the following statements about “true bearing” is correct? A. The ship’s heading flasher is at the top of the screen. B. True North is at the top of the screen and the heading flasher indicates the vessel’s course. C. The true bearing of the nearest target is indicated. D. The relative bearing of the nearest target is indicated. 8-34D6 A true bearing presentation appears as follows: A. The bow of the vessel always points up. B. The course of the five closest targets is displayed. C. North is at the top of the display and the ship’s heading flasher indicates the vessel’s course. D. The course and distance of the closest target is displayed. Answer Key: 8-34D1: B 8-34D2: D 8-34D3: A 8-34D4: C 8-34D5: B 8-34D6: C Key Topic 35 – Memory Systems 8-35D1 In a digitized RADAR, the 360 degree sweep is divided into how many digitized segments? A. 16 B. 64 C. 255 D. 4,096 8-35D2 While troubleshooting a memory problem in a raster scan RADAR, you discover that the “REFRESH” cycle is not operating correctly. What type of memory circuit are you working on? A. SRAM B. DRAM C. ROM D. PROM 8-35D3 The term DRAM stands for: A. Digital refresh access memory. B. Digital recording access memory. C. Dynamic random access memory. D. Digital response area motion. 8-35D4 How does the dual memory function reduce sea clutter? A. Successive sweeps are digitized and compared. Only signals appearing in both sweeps are displayed. B. The dual memory system makes the desired targets larger. C. It reduces receiver gain for closer signals. D. It increases receiver gain for real targets. 8-35D5 How many sequential memory cells with target returns are required to display the target? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 8-35D6 What is the primary purpose of display system memory? A. Eliminate fluctuating targets such as sea return. B. Display stationary targets. C. Display the last available targets prior to a power dropout. D. Store target bearings. Answer Key: 8-35D1: D 8-35D2: B 8-35D3: C 8-35D4: A 8-35D5: B 8-35D6: A Key Topic 36 – ARPA - CAS 8-36D1 The ship’s speed indication on the ARPA display can be set manually, but does not change with changes in the vessel’s speed. What other indication would point to a related equipment failure? A. “GYRO OUT” is displayed on the ARPA indicator. B. “LOG OUT” is displayed on the ARPA indicator. C. “TARGET LOST” is displayed on the ARPA indicator. D. “NORTH UP” is displayed on the ARPA indicator. 8-36D2 What does the term ARPA/CAS refer to? A. The basic RADAR system in operation. B. The device which displays the optional U.S.C.G. Acquisition and Search RADAR information on a CRT display. C. The device which acquires and tracks targets that are displayed on the RADAR indicator’s CRT. D. The device which allows the ship to automatically steer around potential hazards. 8-36D3 Which of the following would not be considered an input to the computer of a collision avoidance system? A. Own ship’s exact position from navigation satellite receiver. B. Own ship’s gyrocompass heading. C. Own ship’s speed from Doppler log. D. Own ship’s wind velocity from an anemometer. 8-36D4 Which answer best describes a line on the display which indicates a target’s position. The speed is shown by the length of the line and the course by the direction of the line. A. Vector. B. Electronic Bearing Line. C. Range Marker. D. Heading Marker. 8-36D5 What is the purpose or function of the “Trial Mode” used in most ARPA equipment? A. It selects trial dots for targets’ recent past positions. B. It is used to display target position and your own ship’s data such as TCPA, CPA, etc. C. It is used to allow results of proposed maneuvers to be assessed. D. None of these. 8-36D6 The ARPA term CPA refers to: A. The furthest point a ship or target will get to your own ship’s bow. B. Direction of target relative to your own ship’s direction. C. The combined detection and processing of targets. D. The closest point a ship or target will approach your own ship. Answer Key: 8-36D1: B 8-36D2: C 8-36D3: D 8-36D4: A 8-36D5: C 8-36D6: D Key Topic 37 – Display System Power Supplies 8-37D1 The display power supply provides the following: A. +18 volts DC for the pulse forming network. B. 5 volts DC for logic circuits and +/- 12 volts DC for analog and sweep circuits. C. 80 volts AC for the antenna resolver circuits. D. All of the above 8-37D2 The display power supply provides the following: A. 5 volts DC for logic circuits. B. +/- 12 volts DC for analog and sweep circuits. C. 17kV DC for the CRT HV anode. D. All of the above 8-37D3 In a display system power supply what is the purpose of the chopper? A. It acts as an electronic switch between the raw DC output and the inverter. B. It interrupts the AC supply line at a varying rate depending on the load demands. C. It regulates the 5 volt DC output. D. It pre-regulates the AC input. 8-37D4 In a display system power supply, what is the purpose of the inverter? A. Inverts the polarity of the DC voltage applied to the voltage regulators. B. Provides the dual polarity 12 volt DC supply. C. Acts as the voltage regulator for the 5 volt DC supply. D. Produces the pulsed DC input voltage to the power transformer. 8-37D5 What would be a common switching frequency for a display system power supply? A. 18 kHz B. 120 Hz C. 60 kHz D. 120 kHz 8-37D6 What display system power supply output would use a tripler circuit? A. The logic circuit supply. B. The sweep circuit supply. C. The HV supply for the CRT anode. D. The resolver drive Answer Key: 8-37D1: B 8-37D2: D 8-37D3: A 8-37D4: D 8-37D5: A 8-37D6: C Key Topic 38 – Miscellaneous 8-38D1 The heading flash is a momentary intensification of the sweep line on the PPI presentation. Its function is to: A. Alert the operator when a target is within range. B. Alert the operator when shallow water is near. C. Inform the operator of the dead-ahead position on the PPI scope. D. Inform the operator when the antenna is pointed to the rear of the ship. 8-38D2 The major advantage of digitally processing a RADAR signal is: A. Digital readouts appear on the RADAR display. B. Enhancement of weak target returns. C. An improved operator interface. D. Rectangular display geometry is far easier to read on the CRT. 8-38D3 In order to ensure that a practical filter is able to remove undesired components from the output of an analog-to-digital converter, the sampling frequency should be: A. The same as the lowest component of the analog frequency. B. Two times the highest component of the analog frequency. C. Greater than two times the highest component of the sampled frequency. D. The same as the highest component of the sampled frequency. 8-38D4 Bearing resolution is: A. The ability to distinguish two adjacent targets of equal distance. B. The ability to distinguish two targets of different distances. C. The ability to distinguish two targets of different elevations. D. The ability to distinguish two targets of different size. 8-38D5 The output of an RC integrator, when driven by a square wave with a period of much less than one time constant is a: A. Sawtooth wave. B. Sine wave. C. Series of narrow spikes. D. Triangle wave. 8-38D6 How do you eliminate stationary objects such as trees, buildings, bridges, etc., from the PPI presentation? A. Remove the discriminator from the unit. B. Use a discriminator as a second detector. C. Calibrate the IF circuit. D. Calibrate the local oscillator. Answer Key: 8-38D1: C 8-38D2: B 8-38D3: C 8-38D4: A 8-38D5: D 8-38D6: B Subelement E – Antenna Systems- 5 Key Topics – 5 Exam Questions Key Topic 39 – Antenna Systems 8-39E1 Slotted waveguide arrays, when fed from one end exhibit: A. Frequency scan. B. High VSWR. C. Poor performance in rain. D. A narrow elevation beam. 8-39E2 A typical shipboard RADAR antenna is a: A. Rotary parabolic transducer. B. Slotted waveguide array. C. Phased planar array. D. Dipole. 8-39E3 Good bearing resolution largely depends upon: A. A high transmitter output reading. B. A high duty cycle. C. A narrow antenna beam in the vertical plane. D. A narrow antenna beam in the horizontal plane. 8-39E4 The center of the transmitted lobe from a slotted waveguide array is: A. Several degrees offset from a line perpendicular to the antenna. B. Perpendicular to the antenna. C. Maximum at the right hand end. D. Maximum at the left hand end. 8-39E5 How does antenna length affect the horizontal beamwidth of the transmitted signal? A. The longer the antenna the wider the horizontal beamwidth. B. The longer the antenna the narrower the horizontal beamwidth. C. The horizontal beamwidth is not affected by the antenna length. D. None of the above. 8-39E6 What is the most common type of RADAR antenna used aboard commercial maritime vessels? A. Parabolic. B. Truncated parabolic. C. Slotted waveguide array. D. Multi-element Yagi array. Answer Key: 8-39E1: A 8-39E2: B 8-39E3: D 8-39E4: A 8-39E5: B 8-39E6: C Key Topic 40 – Transmission Lines 8-40E1 The VSWR of a microwave transmission line device might be measured using: A. A dual directional coupler and a power meter. B. A network analyzer. C. A spectrum analyzer. D. A dual directional coupler, a power meter, and a network analyzer. 8-40E2 The impedance total (ZO) of a transmission line can be calculated by ZO = sqrt(L/C) when L and C are known. When a section of transmission line contains 250 microhenries of L and 1000 picofarads of C, its impedance total (ZO) will be: A. 50 ohms. B. 250 ohms. C. 500 ohms. D. 1,000 ohms. 8-40E3 If long-length transmission lines are not properly shielded and terminated: A. The silicon crystals can be damaged. B. Communications receiver interference might result. C. Overmodulation might result. D. Minimal RF loss can result. 8-40E4 A certain length of transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 72 ohms. If the line is cut at its center, each half of the transmission line will have a ZO of: A. 36 ohms. B. 144 ohms. C. 72 ohms. D. The exact length must be known to determine Zo. 8-40E5 Standing waves on a transmission line may be an indication that: A. All energy is being delivered to the load. B. Source and surge impedances are equal to ZO and ZL. C. The line is terminated in impedance equal to ZO. D. Some of the energy is not absorbed by the load. 8-40E6 What precautions should be taken with horizontal waveguide runs? A. They should be sloped slightly downwards at the elbow and a small drain hole drilled in the elbow. B. They should be absolutely level. C. They should not exceed 10 feet in length. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 8-40E1: D 8-40E2: C 8-40E3: B 8-40E4: C 8-40E5: D 8-40E6: A Key Topic 41 – Antenna to Display Interface 8-41E1 The position of the PPI scope sweep must indicate the position of the antenna. The sweep and antenna positions are frequently kept in synchronization by the use of: A. Synchro systems. B. Servo systems. C. DC positioning motors. D. Differential amplifiers. 8-41E2 On a basic synchro system, the angular information is carried on the: A. DC feedback signal. B. Stator lines. C. Deflection coils. D. Rotor lines. 8-41E3 What is the most common type of antenna position indicating device used in modern RADARs? A. Resolvers. B. Servo systems. C. Synchro transmitters. D. Step motors. 8-41E4 Which of the following statements about antenna resolvers is correct? A. Most resolvers contain a rotor winding and a delta stator winding. B. Resolvers consist of a two rotor windings and two stator windings that are 90 degrees apart. C. The basic resolver contains a rotor winding and two stator windings that are 90 degrees apart. D. Resolvers consist of a "Y" connected rotor winding and a delta connected stator winding. 8-41E5 An antenna synchro transmitter is composed of the following: A. Three rotor and two stator windings. B. Two rotor and three stator windings. C. Three rotor and three stator windings. D. A single rotor and 3 stator windings. 8-41E6 RADAR antenna direction must be sent to the display in all ARPAs or RADAR systems. How is this accomplished? A. 3-phase synchros. B. 2-phase resolvers. C. Optical encoders. D. Any of the above. Answer Key: 8-41E1: A 8-41E2: B 8-41E3: A 8-41E4: C 8-41E5: B 8-41E6: D Key Topic 42 – Waveguides-1 8-42E1 Waveguides can be constructed from: A. Brass. B. Aluminum. C. Copper. D. All of the above. 8-42E2 A microwave transmission line constructed of a center conductor suspended between parallel conductive ground planes is called: A. Microstrip. B. Coax. C. Stripline. D. Waveguide. 8-42E3 Waveguide theory is based upon: A. The movement of an electromagnetic field. B. Current flow through conductive wires. C. Inductance. D. Resonant charging. 8-42E4 A waveguide is used at RADAR microwave frequencies because: A. It is easier to install than other feedline types. B. It is more rugged than other feedline types. C. It is less expensive than other feedline types. D. It has lower transmission losses than other feedline types. 8-42E5 Waveguide theory is based on the principals of: A. Ohm’s Law. B. High standing waves. C. Skin effect and use of 1/4 wave stubs. D. None of the above. 8-42E6 How is the signal removed from a waveguide or magnetron? A. With a thin wire called a T-hook. B. With a thin wire called a J-Hook. C. With a coaxial connector. D. With a waveguide flange joint. Answer Key: 8-42E1: D 8-42E2: C 8-42E3: A 8-42E4: D 8-42E5: C 8-42E6: B Key Topic 43 – Waveguides-2 8-43E1 A rotary joint is used to: A. Couple two waveguides together at right angles. B. Act as a switch between two waveguide runs. C. Connect a stationary waveguide to the antenna array. D. Maintain pressurization at the end of the waveguide. 8-43E2 Resistive losses in a waveguide are very small because: A. The inner surface of the waveguide is large. B. The inner surface of the waveguide is small. C. The waveguide does not require a ground connection. D. The heat remains in the waveguide and cannot dissipate. 8-43E3 A right-angle bend in an X-band waveguide must have a radius greater than: A. Three inches. B. Six inches. C. One inch. D. Two inches. 8-43E4 To insert RF energy into or extract RF energy from a waveguide, which of the following would not be used? A. Coupling capacitance. B. Current loop. C. Aperture window. D. Voltage probe. 8-43E5 The following is true concerning waveguides: A. Conduction is accomplished by the polarization of electromagnetic and electrostatic fields. B. Ancillary deflection is employed. C. The magnetic field is strongest at the center of the waveguide. D. The magnetic field is strongest at the edges of the waveguide. 8-43E6 At microwave frequencies, waveguides are used instead of conventional coaxial transmission lines because: A. They are smaller and easier to handle. B. They have considerably less loss. C. They are lighter since they have hollow centers. D. Moisture is never a problem with them. Answer Key: 8-43E1: C 8-43E2: A 8-43E3: D 8-43E4: A 8-43E5: D 8-43E6: B Subelement F – Installation, Maintenance & Repair 7 Key Topics – 7 Exam Questions – 1 Drawing Key Topic 44 – Equipment Faults-1 8-44F1 When you examine the RADAR you notice that there is no target video in the center of the CRT. The blank spot gets smaller in diameter as you increase the range scale. What operator front panel control could be misadjusted? A. TUNE. B. Sensitivity Time Control (STC). C. Anti-Clutter Rain (ACR). D. False Target Elimination (FTE). 8-44F2 Range rings on the PPI indicator are oval in shape. Which circuit would you suspect is faulty? A. Timing circuit. B. Video amplifier circuit. C. Range marker circuit. D. Sweep generation circuit. 8-44F3 What would be the most likely defective area when there is no target video in the center of the CRT and the blank spot gets smaller in diameter as your range scale is increased? A. The TR (TRL) Cell. B. The local oscillator is misadjusted. C. Video amplifier circuit. D. The IF amplifier circuit. 8-44F4 While the vessel is docked the presentation of the pier is distorted near the center of the PPI with the pier appearing to bend in a concave fashion. This is a primary indication of what? A. The deflection coils need adjusting. B. The centering magnets at the CRT neck need adjusting. C. The waveguide compensation delay line needs adjusting. D. The CRT filaments are weakening. 8-44F5 In a RADAR using digital video processing, a bright, wide ring appears at a fixed distance from the center of the display on all digital ranges. The transmitter is operating normally. What receiver circuit would you suspect is causing the problem? A. VRM circuit. B. Video storage RAM or shift register. C. Range ring generator. D. EBL circuit. 8-44F6 The raster scan RADAR display has missing video in a rectangular block on the screen. Where is the most likely problem area? A. Horizontal sweep circuit. B. Power supply. C. Memory area failure. D. Vertical blanking pulse. Answer Key: 8-44F1: B 8-44F2: D 8-44F3: A 8-44F4: C 8-44F5: B 8-44F6: C Key Topic 45 – Equipment Faults-2 8-45F1 A circuit card in a RADAR system has just been replaced with a spare card. You notice the voltage level at point E in Fig. 8F12 is negative 4.75 volts when the inputs are all at 5 volts. The problem is: A. The 25 K resistor is open. B. The 100 K resistor has been mistakenly replaced with a 50 K resistor. C. The op amp is at the rail voltage. D. The 50 K resistor has been mistakenly replaced with a 25 K resistor. 8-45F2 A defective crystal in the AFC section will cause: A. No serious problems. B. Bright flashing pie sections on the PPI. C. Spiking on the PPI. D. Vertical spikes that constantly move across the screen. 8-45F3 The RADAR display has sectors of solid video (spoking). What would be the first thing to check? A. Antenna information circuits failure. B. Frequency of raster scan. C. For interference from nearby ships. D. Constant velocity of antenna rotation. 8-45F4 In the circuit contained in Fig. 8F12, there are 5 volts present at points B and C, and there are zero volts present at points A and D. What is the voltage at point E? A. -1.5 Volts. B. 3.75 Volts. C. 23.75 Volts. D. 4.5 Volts. 8-45F5 If the TR tube malfunctions: A. The transmitter might be damaged. B. The receiver might be damaged. C. The klystron might be damaged. D. Magnetron current will increase. 8-45F6 The indicated distance from your own vessel to a lighthouse is found to be in error. What circuit would you suspect? A. Range ring oscillator. B. Video amplifier. C. STC circuit. D. FTC circuit. Answer Key: 8-45F1: D 8-45F2: B 8-45F3: C 8-45F4: A 8-45F5: B 8-45F6: A Key Topic 46 – Equipment Faults-3 8-46F1 Silicon crystals are used in RADAR mixer and detector stages. Using an ohmmeter, how might a crystal be checked to determine if it is functional? A. Its resistance should be the same in both directions. B. Its resistance should be low in one direction and high in the opposite direction. C. Its resistance cannot be checked with a dc ohmmeter because the crystal acts as a rectifier. D. It would be more appropriate to use a VTVM and measure the voltage drop across the crystal. 8-46F2 In a RADAR unit, if the crystal mixer becomes defective, replace the: A. Crystal only. B. The crystal and the ATR tube. C. The crystal and the TR tube. D. The crystal and the klystron. 8-46F3 An increase in magnetron current that coincides with a decrease in power output is an indication of what? A. The pulse length decreasing. B. A high SWR. C. A high magnetron heater voltage. D. The external magnet weakening. 8-46F4 It is reported that the RADAR is not receiving small targets. The most likely causes are: A. Magnetron, IF amplifier, or receiver tuning. B. PFN, crystals, or processor memory. C. Crystals, local oscillator tuning, or power supply. D. Fuse blown, IF amp, or video processor. 8-46F5 A high magnetron current indicates a/an: A. Defective AFC crystal. B. Increase in duty cycle. C. Defective external magnetic field. D. High standing wave ratio (SWR). 8-46F6 Low or no mixer current could be caused by: A. Local oscillator frequency misadjustment. B. TR cell failure. C. Mixer diode degradation. D. All of the above. Answer Key: 8-46F1: B 8-46F2: C 8-46F3: D 8-46F4: A 8-46F5: C 8-46F6: D Key Topic 47 – Equipment Faults-4 8-47F1 If the magnetron is allowed to operate without the magnetic field in place: A. Its output will be somewhat distorted. B. It will quickly destroy itself from excessive current flow. C. Its frequency will change slightly. D. Nothing serious will happen. 8-47F2 Targets displayed on the RADAR display are not on the same bearing as their visual bearing. What should you first suspect? A. A bad reed relay in the antenna pedestal. B. A sweep length misadjustment. C. One phase of the yoke assembly is open. D. Incorrect antenna position information. 8-47F3 Loss of distant targets during and immediately after wet weather indicates: A. A leak in waveguide or rotary joint. B. High atmospheric absorption. C. Dirt or soot on the rotary joint. D. High humidity in the transmitter causing power supply loading. 8-47F4 In a marine RADAR set, a high VSWR is indicated at the magnetron output. The waveguide and rotary joint appear to be functioning properly. What component may be malfunctioning? A. The magnetron B. The waveform generator C. The STC circuit D. The waveguide array termination 8-47F5 On a vessel with two RADARs, one has a different range indication on a specific target than the other. How would you determine which RADAR is incorrect? A. Check the sweep and timing circuits of both indicators for correct readings. B. Triangulate target using the GPS and visual bearings. C. Check antenna parallax. D. Use the average of the two indications and adjust both for that amount. 8-47F6 An increase in the deflection on the magnetron current meter could likely be caused by: A. Insufficient pulse amplitude from the modulator. B. Too high a B1 level on the magnetron. C. A decrease of the magnetic field strength. D. A lower duty cycle, as from 0.0003 to 0.0002. Answer Key: 8-47F1: B 8-47F2: D 8-47F3: A 8-47F4: D 8-47F5: A 8-47F6: C Key Topic 48 – Maintenance 8-48F1 A thick layer of rust and corrosion on the surface of the parabolic dish will have what effect? A. No noticeable effect. B. Scatter and absorption of RADAR waves. C. Decrease in performance, especially for weak targets. D. Slightly out of focus PPI scope. 8-48F2 The echo box is used for: A. Testing the wavelength of the incoming echo signal. B. Testing and tuning of the RADAR unit by providing artificial targets. C. Amplification of the echo signal. D. Detection of the echo pulses. 8-48F3 What should be done to the interior surface of a waveguide in order to minimize signal loss? A. Fill it with nitrogen gas. B. Paint it with nonconductive paint to prevent rust. C. Keep it as clean as possible. D. Fill it with a high-grade electrical oil. 8-48F4 Which of the following is the most useful instrument for RADAR servicing? A. Oscilloscope. B. Frequency Counter. C. R. F. Wattmeter. D. Audio generator. 8-48F5 A non-magnetic screwdriver should always be used when replacing what component? A. TR tube. B. Mixer. C. Video amplifier. D. Magnetron. 8-48F6 What kind of display would indicate water in the waveguide? A. Spoking. B. Large circular rings near the center. C. Loss of range rings. D. Wider than normal targets. Answer Key: 8-48F1: C 8-48F2: B 8-48F3: C 8-48F4: A 8-48F5: D 8-48F6: B Key Topic 49 – Installation 8-49F1 Why is coaxial cable often used for S-band installations instead of a waveguide? A. Losses can be kept reasonable at S-band frequencies and the installation cost is lower. B. A waveguide will not support the power density required for modern S-band RADAR transmitters. C. S-band waveguide flanges show too much leakage and are unsafe for use near personnel. D. Dimensions for S-band waveguide do not permit a rugged enough installation for use by ships at sea. 8-49F2 RADAR interference to a communications receiver is eliminated by: A. Not operating other devices when RADAR is in use. B. Properly grounding, bonding, and shielding all units. C. Using a high pass filter on the power line. D. Using a link coupling. 8-49F3 Why should long horizontal runs of waveguide be avoided? A. They must be insulated to prevent electric shock. B. To prevent damage from shipboard personnel. C. To minimize reception of horizontally polarized returns. D. To prevent accumulation of condensation. 8-49F4 Long horizontal sections of waveguides are not desirable because: A. Moisture can accumulate in the waveguide. B. The waveguide can sag, causing loss of signal. C. Excessive standing waves can occur. D. The polarization of the signal might shift. 8-49F5 In a RADAR system, waveguides should be installed: A. Slightly bent for maximum gain. B. As straight as possible to reduce distortion. C. At 90 degree angles to improve resonance. D. As long as possible for system flexibility. 8-49F6 What is the most important factor to consider in locating the antenna? A. Allow the shortest cable/waveguide run. B. Maximum height for best long range operation. C. The antenna is in a location that is not shadowed by other structures. D. Easy access for maintenance. Answer Key: 8-49F1: A 8-49F2: B 8-49F3: D 8-49F4: A 8-49F5: B 8-49F6: C Key Topic 50 – Safety 8-50F1 Choose the most correct statement with respect to component damage from electrostatic discharge: A. ESD damage occurs primarily in passive components which are easily identified and replaced. B. ESD damage occurs primarily in active components which are easily identified and replaced. C. The technician will feel a small static shock and recognize that ESD damage has occurred to the circuit. D. ESD damage may cause immediate circuit failures, but may also cause failures much later at times when the RADAR set is critically needed. 8-50F2 Before testing a RADAR transmitter, it would be a good idea to: A. Make sure no one is on the deck. B. Make sure the magnetron’s magnetic field is far away from the magnetron. C. Make sure there are no explosives or flammable cargo being loaded. D. Make sure the Coast Guard has been notified. 8-50F3 While making repairs or adjustments to RADAR units: A. Wear fire-retardant clothing. B. Discharge all high-voltage capacitors to ground. C. Maintain the filament voltage. D. Reduce the magnetron voltage. 8-50F4 While removing a CRT from its operating casing, it is a good idea to: A. Discharge the first anode. B. Test the second anode with your fingertip. C. Wear gloves and goggles. D. Set it down on a hard surface. 8-50F5 If a CRT is dropped: A. Most likely nothing will happen because they are built with durability in mind. B. It might go out of calibration. C. The phosphor might break loose. D. It might implode, causing damage to workers and equipment. 8-50F6 Prior to removing, servicing or making measurements on any solid state circuit boards from the RADAR set, the operator should ensure that: A. The proper work surfaces and ESD grounding straps are in place to prevent damage to the boards from electrostatic discharge. B. The waveguide is detached from the antenna to prevent radiation. C. The magnetic field is present to prevent over-current damage or overheating from occurring in the magnetron. D. Only non-conductive tools and devices are used. Answer Key: 8-50F1: D 8-50F2: C 8-50F3: B 8-50F4: C 8-50F5: D 8-50F6: A [END OF PROPOSED 2009 FCC COMMERCIAL ELEMENT 8 QUESTION POOL] share/E9/0000775000175000017500000000000012527206477010623 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E9/9-35D40000664000175000017500000000032312527206477011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-35D4 B Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on 457.525 MHz. B. Operation on Ch-16. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Operation on Ch-70. share/E9/9-20B10000664000175000017500000000114412527206476011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-20B1 B Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. In ARQ, each character is transmitted twice, about 250 milliseconds apart. B. In ARQ, the "information sending station" will transmit a block of three characters that the receiving station will subsequently acknowledge or request it to be retransmitted. C. In ARQ, the "information sending station" transmits a block of three characters twice, about 250 milliseconds apart. D. SITOR communications can be used to contact a NAVTEX transmitting station when requesting a repeat transmission of a missed NAVTEX message. share/E9/9-3A10000664000175000017500000000046412527206475011242 0ustar jtnjtn9-3A1 C Which of the following best describes the "Capture effect?" A. The receiver will accept all signals near the operating frequency. B. The receiver will reject all but the weakest signal. C. The receiver will reject all but the strongest signal. D. The receiver will modulate an adjacent transmitter. share/E9/9-43F60000664000175000017500000000031412527206477011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-43F6 C An important difference between NMEA 0183 and NMEA 2000 is: A. Relay switched vs diode switch B. Low voltage vs high voltage C. Single talker vs multi-talkers D. Data transfer vs video transfer share/E9/9-28C60000664000175000017500000000021112527206476011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-28C6 A What is the minimum number of satellites that must be received to provide the highest accuracy? A. Four B. Two C. Eight D. Six share/E9/9-32C30000664000175000017500000000066012527206477011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-32C3 D What condition would cause an IP connection failure between a technician's laptop and an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband terminal? A. The laptop settings are not compatible with the terminal's LAN port. B. The technician has disabled the Power over Ethernet (POE) function. C. The EIA-232 configuration is not compatible with the Inmarsat terminal. D. The technician has connected the Ethernet cable to the terminal's ISDN port. share/E9/9-37E60000664000175000017500000000017512527206477011343 0ustar jtnjtn9-37E6 B What is the normal voltage of a single lead acid battery cell? A. 1.5 volts B. 2.1 volts C. 2.5 volts D. 2.8 volts share/E9/9-40E60000664000175000017500000000051312527206477011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-40E6 A Which of the following statements about a switching mode power supply input current is correct? A. It has high harmonic content and a low power factor. B. It has low harmonic content and a low power factor. C. It has high harmonic content and a high power factor. D. It has low harmonic content and a high power factor. share/E9/9-19B40000664000175000017500000000024112527206476011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-19B4 B What is the time diversity reception interval for a MF-HF-DSC call? A. 33-1/3 milliseconds B. 400 milliseconds C. 450 milliseconds D. 250 milliseconds share/E9/9-35D20000664000175000017500000000025012527206477011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-35D2 D What is the minimum receiver sensitivity required for a Survival Craft Transceiver? A. 0.1 microvolts B. 0.5 microvolts C. 1.0 microvolts D. 2.0 microvolts share/E9/9-28C20000664000175000017500000000077512527206476011342 0ustar jtnjtn9-28C2 C What is the purpose of the Differential GPS system and how does it work? A. To measure the difference between L-1 and L-2 signals and transmit the information via the GPS signal. B. To correct for time errors in the satellites and transmit this information via the GPS signal. C. To correct for various errors using a fixed receiving station which transmits corrections via radio signals. D. To correct for phase errors between L-1 and L-2 signals and transmit the information via radio beacons. share/E9/9-48G10000664000175000017500000000042112527206477011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-48G1 B What are the operator's license requirements for conducting a GMDSS ship station annual inspection? A. GMDSS Radio Operator's License. B. GMDSS Maintainer's License. C. First Class Radiotelegraph Operator's License. D. General Radiotelephone Operator's License. share/E9/9-30C30000664000175000017500000000051412527206476011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-30C3 B What is the meaning of the "ACB" Inmarsat-C Non-Delivery Notification (NDN) failure code? A. The terminal received an invalid answer-back from the destination. B. Access to the Inmarsat system has been barred. C. The Automatic Communications Bit error rate was exceeded. D. An Inmarsat message channel failure occurred. share/E9/9-26C60000664000175000017500000000050012527206476011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-26C6 D Which of the following is not a characteristic of an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband IP handset? A. Ability to transmit telephone calls as circuit-switched calls. B. Displays menu options to configure the terminal. C. Uses TCP/IP to communicate with the terminal. D. Provides the terminal with Power over Ethernet. share/E9/9-18B40000664000175000017500000000107312527206476011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-18B4 C which of the following troubleshooting methods is not valid for finding the fault in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode? A. Visual inspection of the transmitter (control settings, signs of physical damage or overheating, etc.) B. Power supply testing with a DVM to ensure all prescribed operating voltages are within acceptable limits. C. Modulation testing with a RF spectrum analyzer to measure frequency deviation in the transmit mode. D. Input/Output checks with a 10:1 oscilloscope probe to identify any points of severe signal degradation. share/E9/9-22B50000664000175000017500000000071112527206476011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-22B5 C A ship's MF-HF whip antenna breaks off and is carried away in a storm. What would you do to regain operation on MF-HF GMDSS frequencies? A. Rig a wire antenna 10 ft long from the antenna tuner to the highest vertical support. B. Rig a horizontal, center-fed dipole antenna 10 ft long to the antenna tuner. C. Rig a wire antenna approximately 35-40 ft long per the equipment instruction manual. D. Connect the MF/HF transceiver to the VHF antenna. share/E9/9-36D10000664000175000017500000000025412527206477011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-36D1 B Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 490 kHz B. 518 kHz C. 2187.5 kHz D. 4209.5 kHz share/E9/9-23C50000664000175000017500000000066312527206476011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-23C5 B What is signal to noise ratio? A. A measure used that compares the distance of a desired signal to the level of background noise. B. A measure used that compares the level of a desired signal to the level of background noise. C. A measure used that compares the frequency of a desired signal to the frequency of background noise. D. A measure that measures signal in the forward direction and noise in the reverse direction. share/E9/9-34D40000664000175000017500000000026012527206477011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-34D4 C At what interval must the SART's battery be replaced? A. Every 2 years. B. Every 3 years or after being used. C. Every 5 years or after being used. D. Every 8 years. share/E9/9-38E50000664000175000017500000000051412527206477011340 0ustar jtnjtn9-38E5 C With a fully automatic GMDSS compliant battery charger / power supply, when must the high charging process be interrupted? A. To keep the battery from overheating. B. To keep the battery electrolyte from reaching 212 degrees F. C. To inhibit the generation of electrolytic gas. D. To keep the battery as cool as possible. share/E9/9-24C30000664000175000017500000000036712527206476011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-24C3 D What do EGC messages contain? A. Maritime Mobile Service Identity information. B. SafeNetTM, FleetwideNetTM and System information. C. Electronic Grounding Codes and System information. D. SafetyNetTM, FleetNetTM and System information. share/E9/9-4A30000664000175000017500000000117212527206475011242 0ustar jtnjtn9-4A3 D What is indicated if a VHF radio fails to receive nearby stations and a voltmeter connected between the positive side of a radio's DC line and ground reads zero line voltage? The fuse in the VHF radio also reads zero when checked with an ohmmeter. A. The antenna may be defective or water intrusion has affected antenna system performance. B. The coaxial transmission line may be open, shorted, or a connector has become intermittent. C. A fault in the discriminator circuit is producing zero output voltage during peak modulation. D. A "crowbar" circuit has prevented an over current condition that might damage the radio. share/E9/9-30C50000664000175000017500000000064312527206476011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-30C5 C Which of the following devices can cause interference to Fleet 77/55 systems? A. 406 MHz Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacons (EPIRBs) in the transmit mode. B. 9.3 GHz Search And Rescue RADAR Transponders (SARTs) in the transmit mode. C. Transmitters operating in the 3-30 MHz range and shipboard RADARS in close proximity. D. Survival Craft Equipment in the VHF range in the high power transmit mode. share/E9/9-23C60000664000175000017500000000013312527206476011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-23C6 C What is the abbreviation for signal to noise? A. STN B. SIG/NR C. SNR D. SIN share/E9/9-4A40000664000175000017500000000104612527206475011243 0ustar jtnjtn9-4A4 A What fault may exist if a VHF radio receiver fails to produce audible output from the speaker and the squelch control has no effect? A. The AF amplifier may be defective or the transmitter Push-To-Talk circuit may be activated. B. A component in the RF amplifier stage has failed or the signal from a preceding stage is grounded. C. The Local Oscillator stage is no longer supplying a signal to the mixer stage at the correct frequency. D. The mixer stage is no longer producing an output signal on the correct Intermediate Frequency (IF). share/E9/9-1A60000664000175000017500000000050012527206475011234 0ustar jtnjtn9-1A6 B Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 5 ppm, which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 156.875 MHz and 157.200? A. 156,873.562 kHz and 157,198.264 kHz. B. 156,875.774 kHz and 157.199.321 kHz. C. 156,876.562 kHz and 157,201.355 kHz. D. 156,873.336 kHz and 157,201.570 kHz. share/E9/9-42F20000664000175000017500000000023512527206477011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-42F2 A What is the maximum length of a USB 2.0 cable between two hubs or between a hub and peripheral? A. 5 meters B. 10 meters C. 15 meters D. 20 meters share/E9/9-35D60000664000175000017500000000060512527206477011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-35D6 C Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristics? A. Permanently-affixed antenna, watertight, power 1W or 25W. B. Watertight, power a minimum of 1W, operation on CH-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70. C. Operation on Ch-16, watertight, permanently-affixed antenna. D. Operation on Ch-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70, power 1W, permanently-affixed antenna. share/E9/9-13B50000664000175000017500000000062312527206476011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-13B5 A What is the primary purpose of both a high and a low I.F. system in a HF receiver? A. Using a high first I.F. amplifier results in eliminating image signals. B. Using a high first I.F. amplifier results in less intermodulation products. C. Using a low first I.F. amplifier results in fewer third harmonic signals. D. Using a low first I.F. amplifier results in greater signal amplification. share/E9/9-21B40000664000175000017500000000047112527206476011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-21B4 D Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) Mode B (FEC), in the presence of static crashes. A. Data flow rate depends on signal propagation. B. Idle characters are sent upon request. C. Transmitter and receiver cannot synchronize. D. FEC reduces the error rate by transmitting each character twice. share/E9/9-33D20000664000175000017500000000051412527206477011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-33D2 B What is the purpose of the magnet in the EPIRB mounting bracket? A. To secure the EPIRB in the mounting bracket. B. Prevent accidental operation of the EPIRB while secured in the mounting bracket. C. To activate the automatic release mechanism. D. When the EPIRB is released it causes a signal to be sent to the bridge. share/E9/9-11B60000664000175000017500000000067212527206476011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-11B6 C What are the assigned frequencies for VOICE and SITOR (NBDP) follow on communications? A. VOICE: 2182 kHz, 4125 kHz, 6312 kHz, SITOR (NBDP) 4177.5 kHz, 8376.5 kHz, 12520 kHz B. VOICE: 8291 kHz, 12577 kHz, 16420 kHz, SITOR (NBDP) 4125 kHz, 6268 kHz, 8376.5 kHz C. VOICE: 4125 kHz, 8291 kHz, 16420 kHz, SITOR (NBDP) 2174.5 kHz, 6268 kHz, 12520 kHz D. VOICE: 6215 kHz, 8414.5 kHz, 12290 kHz, SITOR (NBDP) 6268 kHz, 8291 kHz, 12520 kHz share/E9/9-39E50000664000175000017500000000056012527206477011342 0ustar jtnjtn9-39E5 B Power supplies with inductive input filters have the following characteristics: A. Poor voltage regulation with high peak rectifier currents. B. Good voltage regulation with high transformer utilization factor. C. Low transformer utilization factor with low rectifier peak currents. D. High transformer utilization factor with high rectifier peak currents. share/E9/9-20B50000664000175000017500000000030312527206476011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-20B5 D Which characters are sent by the ship station to indicate a desire to send a message via a direct connection to a shoreside TELEX subscriber? A. MSG+ B. AMV+ C. OPR+ D. DIRTLX0xxyyyy+ share/E9/9-46F10000664000175000017500000000057412527206477011342 0ustar jtnjtn9-46F1 D What procedure must be followed before using C-Map charts for an Electronic Chart System? A. License information must be entered in the master computer terminal. B. The C-Map charts must be downloaded from the internet. C. A dongle or password device must be inserted in the master computer terminal. D. License information must be entered for each computer being used. share/E9/9-40E10000664000175000017500000000051612527206477011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-40E1 B What is the function of a crowbar circuit? A. It provides a voltage reference for the voltage regulator. B. It prevents an overvoltage condition from damaging circuitry by shorting the power supply output. C. It provides a voltage reference for the chopper circuit. D. It provides a feedback signal for the chopper circuit. share/E9/9-36D60000664000175000017500000000037112527206477011337 0ustar jtnjtn9-36D6 A NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. B. Immediately following traffic lists. C. On request of maritime mobile stations. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. share/E9/9-20B20000664000175000017500000000140112527206476011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-20B2 C What statement is true regarding the exchange between two stations engaged in SITOR (NBDP) communications? A. In ARQ, each character is transmitted twice, with the second displaced in time from the first. B. In ARQ, the "sending" station transmits a block of three characters and the "receiving" station responds with a one character Repeat Request. Following this the "transmitting" station will send a new block. C. In ARQ, the ISS transmits a block of 3 characters and the IRS checks for parity. If the received block is correct a control signal is sent notifying the ISS to proceed. If the parity check fails the block must be resent. D. Broadcasts of Maritime Safety Information, traffic lists, etc. can be copied by the receiving station in ARQ mode. share/E9/9-36D20000664000175000017500000000060512527206477011333 0ustar jtnjtn9-36D2 C The NAVTEX is powering on and appears to be functioning normally except there have been no new messages for an extended period. The station settings are correct. What is the most likely source of the problem? A. The audio amplifier is defective. B. The wrong frequency has been selected. C. The RF amplifier at the antenna base is defective. D. The DC supply voltage is too low. share/E9/9-18B60000664000175000017500000000104712527206476011335 0ustar jtnjtn9-18B6 D Which of the following conditions indicate improper operation of a 150 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B FEC mode? A. The RF power meter indicates constant output at a level between 125 watts and 150 watts during transmission. B. The SWR meter indicates 125 watts forward RF power and 5 watts reflected RF power during transmission. C. The RF "S" meter fluctuates depending on the strength of the received signal during NBDP reception. D. The RF power meter indicates an output that fluctuates between 0 and 150 watts during transmission. share/E9/9-34D10000664000175000017500000000042112527206477011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-34D1 D How should the signal from a Search And Rescue RADAR Transponder appear on a RADAR display? A. A series of dashes. B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART. C. A series of twenty dashes. D. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. share/E9/9-22B40000664000175000017500000000027312527206476011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-22B4 C Which of the following coaxial cables is suitable for use in GMDSS MF/HF antenna systems? A. RG-59, 72 ohm Coax B. RG-6, 72 ohm Coax C. RG-8, 50 ohm Coax D. RG-179, 75 ohm Coax share/E9/9-50G50000664000175000017500000000032212527206477011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-50G5 C What is the purpose of a deviation meter? A. Measure the number of sidebands. B. Measure the modulation index. C. Measure the carrier deviation in an FM transmitter. D. Measure the carrier frequency. share/E9/9-37E30000664000175000017500000000075512527206477011344 0ustar jtnjtn9-37E3 C What will cause an individual battery cell to reverse polarity? A. The charging circuits are connected in the correct polarity but all of the cells are equally charged. B. High discharge rates without allowing for a cool down period. C. When discharging the battery, if a cell becomes weaker then the remaining cells the discharge current will effectively charge the weaker cell in reverse polarity. D. Insufficient charging which does not bring all of the cells up to full charge. share/E9/9-38E40000664000175000017500000000104312527206477011335 0ustar jtnjtn9-38E4 C What is the meaning of "Reserve Source of Energy"? A. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. B. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements. C. Power to operate the radio installation and conduct Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship's main and emergency sources of electrical power. D. The diesel fueled emergency generator that supplies AC to the vessel's Emergency power bus. share/E9/9-32C10000664000175000017500000000052612527206477011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-32C1 B What action should be taken if an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband antenna continuously changes azimuth after initialization? A. Replace the gyro repeater motor in the Antenna Tracking Unit. B. Use the Web interface to check the event log. C. Check the EL step motor with power off. D. Check the integrity of the antenna interface cable. share/E9/9-6A60000664000175000017500000000014212527206475011243 0ustar jtnjtn9-6A6 D How many sidebands does a VHF FM transmitter have? A. One B. Two C. One to four D. Many share/E9/9-19B30000664000175000017500000000026412527206476011333 0ustar jtnjtn9-19B3 A What is the correct frequency shift and sub-carrier for MF-HF-DSC? A. +/- 85 Hz and 1700 Hz B. +/- 170 Hz and 1700 Hz C. +/- 250 Hz and 1500 Hz D. +/- 400 Hz and 1900 Hz share/E9/9-6A50000664000175000017500000000016312527206475011245 0ustar jtnjtn9-6A5 C What is the most common type of emission for shipboard VHF-DSC transceivers? A. F1B B. J3B C. G3E D. H3E share/E9/9-31C20000664000175000017500000000062212527206477011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-31C2 D An Inmarsat-C terminal will not "LOG IN". A test antenna cable with a new ADE attached in view of the satellite allows the terminal to "LOG IN". What steps would you take? A. Replace the AZ or EL motor in the above deck equipment. B. Try logging into a different satellite with the original ADE. C. Use a DVM to check the feedline between the terminal and ADE. D. Install a replacement ADE. share/E9/9-31C60000664000175000017500000000034512527206477011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-31C6 C The antenna tries to initialize then points straight up and stops. What is the most likely problem? A. A defective EL motor. B. A defective AZ motor. C. A defective level platform sensor. D. A defective I.F. amplifier. share/E9/9-4A20000664000175000017500000000104612527206475011241 0ustar jtnjtn9-4A2 C What fault may exist if a VHF radio receiver fails to produce audible output from the speaker and the squelch control has no effect? A. A component in the RF amplifier stage has failed or the signal from a preceding stage is grounded. B. The Local Oscillator stage is no longer supplying a signal to the mixer stage at the correct frequency. C. The AF amplifier may be defective or the transmitter Push-To-Talk circuit may be activated. D. The mixer stage is no longer producing an output signal on the correct Intermediate Frequency (IF). share/E9/9-5A40000664000175000017500000000066012527206475011245 0ustar jtnjtn9-5A4 D What ohmmeter reading may indicate a faulty component in a VHF receiver? A. Low resistance across a diode in one direction, high resistance when test leads are reversed. B. Zero ohms across an in-line fuse in a DC power circuit. C. Infinite ohms across a ceramic bypass capacitor in a transistor amplifier circuit. D. A transistor indicates low resistance between emitter and base when test leads are reversed across them. share/E9/9-47G50000664000175000017500000000024212527206477011340 0ustar jtnjtn9-47G5 B When installing an Inmarsat-C antenna what should be the minimum distance to other Inmarsat antennas? A. 4 meters B. 8 meters C. 10 meters D. 12 meters share/E9/9-15B20000664000175000017500000000047312527206476011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-15B2 D The MF/HF receiver fails to produce any AF output. An ohmmeter reading is near zero between speaker leads. What is the most likely cause? A. The 3 - 30 MHz amplifier stage has failed. B. The speaker is shorted out. C. Excess negative feedback is reducing AF gain. D. The audio amplifier stage has failed. share/E9/9-34D60000664000175000017500000000022112527206477011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-34D6 D What is the approximate distance between dots on a radar display at a distance of 5 miles? A. 0.36 nm B. 0.48 nm C. 0.56 nm D. 0.64 nm share/E9/9-15B40000664000175000017500000000056112527206476011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-15B4 B The MF/HF transceiver produces strong AF output but no signals are heard on any frequency. What is the most likely cause? A. The squelch sensitivity control is set too high. B. There is an open circuit in the transmission line to the antenna. C. The final stage of the AF amplifier circuit has failed. D. The power amplifier stage in the receiver has failed. share/E9/9-29C40000664000175000017500000000053312527206476011335 0ustar jtnjtn9-29C4 D Which of the following is characteristic of an Inmarsat-C antenna? A. The antenna is RHC polarized with a cardioid radiation pattern. B. The antenna is vertically polarized and highly directional. C. The antenna is horizontally polarized and omni-directional. D. The antenna is RHC polarized with an omni-directional radiation pattern. share/E9/9-37E40000664000175000017500000000036112527206477011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-37E4 D What is the normal specific gravity of a fully charged lead acid battery cell? What device is used to measuring the electrolyte of a lead acid battery? A. 1.375 Voltmeter B. 1.180 Voltmeter C. 1.210 Hydrometer D. 1.280 Hydrometer share/E9/9-24C20000664000175000017500000000036312527206476011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-24C2 C How do you perform a LOOP BACK test? A. Initiate a Performance Verification Test through terminal software. B. Initiate a test to IP address: 127.0.0.1. C. Send yourself a test message. D. Request the LES to send you a test message. share/E9/9-9A10000664000175000017500000000034312527206475011244 0ustar jtnjtn9-9A1 A What is the correct frequency shift and sub-carrier for VHF-DSC? A. 1300-2100 Hz, sub-carrier 1700 Hz. B. 1500-2300 Hz, sub-carrier 1900 Hz. C. 1200-2600 Hz, sub-carrier 1900 Hz. D. 1500-2300 Hz, sub-carrier 1700 Hz. share/E9/9-47G30000664000175000017500000000042712527206477011343 0ustar jtnjtn9-47G3 A What is the most important factor when locating depth finder transducers? A. In an area not subject to cavitation. B. They must be equidistant from the bow and the stern. C. They must be on the centerline of the ship. D. They should be as close to the bow as possible. share/E9/9-48G30000664000175000017500000000065712527206477011351 0ustar jtnjtn9-48G3 D What battery tests are made during the annual inspection? A. Record the specific gravity of all cells while the batteries are charging. B. The terminal voltage is measured and recorded at the end of a 6 hour full load discharge. C. Record the specific gravity of all cells while the batteries are discharging. D. With battery off charge and maximum required load measure and record maximum discharge current and voltage. share/E9/9-41F20000664000175000017500000000037212527206477011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-41F2 B There is no display on the monitor. What are the most likely causes? A. Bad video card, defective RAM or bad CD-ROM. B. Bad video card, bad 15 pin video connector or no power to monitor. C. Defective CD-ROM Drive. D. Fragmented Hard Drive. share/E9/9-41F10000664000175000017500000000037312527206477011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-41F1 A The printer will not print a document. Which of the following is NOT a likely reason? A. The graphics card is defective. B. The printer queue is frozen. C. The printer may be out of toner or ink. D. There may be a paper jam in the printer. share/E9/9-14B20000664000175000017500000000054112527206476011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-14B2 A All signals sound normal on an MF/HF receiver except one that has a very high pitched voice barely readable. What is the most likely cause? A. The transmitter of the abnormal signal is off frequency. B. The receiver frequency synthesizer circuit is defective. C. The voltage controlled oscillator has failed. D. The B.F.O. circuit is faulty. share/E9/9-7A20000664000175000017500000000175012527206475011246 0ustar jtnjtn9-7A2 D Antenna system matching can be analyzed by determining the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR). Which of the following is the best test procedure to measure the SWR of a marine VHF antenna system? A. Insert an in-line RF Power meter between the VHF radio and an artificial antenna, set the radio to any channel, key the microphone, and read the measured value. B. Insert a SWR meter between the VHF transmitter and the coaxial transmission line connected to the antenna, set the radio to channel 16, and conduct a "RADIO CHECK" with a nearby U.S. Coast Guard station or vessel. C. Insert an in-line RF Power meter between the VHF radio and the coaxial transmission line disconnected from the antenna, activate the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit, and read the forward and reflected values. D. Insert a SWR meter between the VHF radio and the coaxial transmission line connected to the antenna, set the radio to an unused channel, activate the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit, and read the measured value. share/E9/9-6A30000664000175000017500000000113012527206475011236 0ustar jtnjtn9-6A3 B How is pre-emphasis used in an FM transceiver? A. The lower modulation frequencies are boosted before transmitting by 3 db per octave and reduced by the same amount at the receiver. B. The higher modulation frequencies are boosted before transmitting by 6 db per octave and reduced by the same amount at the receiver. C. The lower modulation frequencies are boosted before transmitting by 6 db per octave and reduced by the same amount at the receiver. D. The higher modulation frequencies are boosted before transmitting by 3 db per octave and reduced by the same amount at the receiver. share/E9/9-8A30000664000175000017500000000210712527206475011245 0ustar jtnjtn9-8A3 D A spectrum analyzer (SPECAN) can be a useful test instrument to troubleshoot a marine VHF radio. Which of the following is the best procedure to evaluate the input/output stages of a marine VHF transmitter? A. Connect the radio to the SPECAN through an in-line attenuator, apply maximum attentuation and set the radio to HIGH power. Use an inductive probe to evaluate signals at the input/output of AF transmitter stages. B. Connect the radio to the SPECAN through an in-line attenuator, apply maximum attentuation and switch the radio to HIGH power. Use an inductive probe to evaluate signals at the input/output of RF transmitter stages. C. Connect the radio to the SPECAN through an in-line attenuator, apply minimum attentuation and switch the radio to LOW power. Use an inductive probe to evaluate signals at the input/output of AF transmitter stages. D. Connect the radio to the SPECAN through an in-line attenuator, apply maximum attentuation and switch the radio to LOW power. Use an inductive probe to evaluate signals at the input/output of RF transmitter stages. share/E9/9-8A10000664000175000017500000000106312527206475011243 0ustar jtnjtn9-8A1 B What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio cannot contact nearby stations on any channel, an inline wattmeter indicates 25 watts output (HIGH power mode), and no modulation is heard when the transmitted signal is monitored with an external receiver? A. A fault in the transmitter's Push-To-Talk circuit is causing the loss of audio. B. There is an open connection in the microphone cable or connector. C. The microphone's Automatic Gain Control (AGC) has malfunctioned. D. Degenerative feedback applied to the AF amplifier exceeds specifications. share/E9/9-48G40000664000175000017500000000041712527206477011344 0ustar jtnjtn9-48G4 A What is the easiest way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal for proper operation? A. Send a brief test message to your own terminal. B. Contact the nearest RCC for a signal report. C. Contact the nearest ship for a signal report. D. Use the internal POST function. share/E9/9-29C50000664000175000017500000000064612527206476011343 0ustar jtnjtn9-29C5 A What is a best practice for installing Inmarsat satellite antennas aboard ship? A. Install antennas as high as practical, free from shadowing of structures. B. Install antennas next to other Inmarsat antennas, away from structures. C. Connect the antenna to transmission line with the highest characteristic impedance. D. Install an inline filter with the transmission line to attenuate frequencies above 1 GHz. share/E9/9-38E20000664000175000017500000000032112527206477011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-38E2 A What are the different modes of charging for a GMDSS compliant battery charger/supply? A. Charging, Change-over, Parallel B. Charging, float, trickle C. Charging, Full, Trickle D. Boots, Full, Float share/E9/9-14B60000664000175000017500000000042412527206476011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-14B6 D The AGC function of an MF/HF receiver is inoperative. What is the most likely cause? A. The B.F.O. circuit has failed. B. The Voltage controlled Oscillator is inoperative. C. The audio amplifier is defective. D. Failure of a variable gain amplifier in the RF stage. share/E9/9-50G10000664000175000017500000000036312527206477011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-50G1 D What type of signals are usually provided by a simple Function Generator? A. Sine Waves with pulse modulation. B. Sine Waves and Square Waves. C. Square Waves and Triangular Waves. D. Sine Waves, Square Waves and Triangular Waves. share/E9/9-45F20000664000175000017500000000027012527206477011333 0ustar jtnjtn9-45F2 B What is a common range of pulse widths used for depth finding equipment? A. 10 to 30 microseconds B. 25 to 600 microseconds C. 2 to 20 milliseconds D. 50 to 200 milliseconds share/E9/9-13B40000664000175000017500000000031312527206476011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-13B4 D What characteristics are desirable in an AGC circuit for SSB voice reception? A. Slow attack and decay. B. Slow attack and fast decay. C. Fast attack and decay. D. Fast attack and slow decay. share/E9/9-45F10000664000175000017500000000022412527206477011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-45F1 A What is a common range of frequencies used for depth finding equipment? A. 200-400 kHz B. 1000-2600 kHz C. 200-800 Hz D. 4,000-6,000 kHz share/E9/9-32C40000664000175000017500000000063112527206477011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-32C4 A What condition would cause a connection failure between a technician's laptop and an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband terminal? A. The wrong IP address was entered as the URL in the web browser. B. The ASD function is enabled but the HSD function is disabled. C. The terminal's DTE port is set to the Asynchronous Data Service. D. The password for the High Speed Data service has been improperly entered. share/E9/9-39E10000664000175000017500000000051012527206477011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-39E1 C Which of the following best describes a standard full wave rectifier power supply? A. It uses a capacitor input filter to provide good voltage regulation. B. It must only use a single diode rectifier. C. The ripple frequency is twice the input frequency. D. It must always use a center tapped transformer secondary. share/E9/9-2A50000664000175000017500000000035012527206475011237 0ustar jtnjtn9-2A5 C Which of the following transmitter power levels are permitted by FCC rules? A. Low Power: 0.1 W, High Power: 5 W B. Low Power: 0.5 W, High Power: 25 W C. Low Power: 1 W, High Power: 25 W D. Low Power: 5 W, High Power: 50 W share/E9/9-35D50000664000175000017500000000053412527206477011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-35D5 B Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. C. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. share/E9/9-8A60000664000175000017500000000045312527206475011252 0ustar jtnjtn9-8A6 A What terms are used to describe a device used to test the RF power output of a marine VHF transmitter without emitting a signal on the air? A. Dummy load, artificial antenna. B. Phantom Antenna, dummy load. C. Isotropic suppressor, artificial antenna. D. Artificial attenuator, dummy load. share/E9/9-21B20000664000175000017500000000103012527206476011313 0ustar jtnjtn9-21B2 B The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences? A. One-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. B. Two way communications, one-way communications to all stations, one-way communications to a single station. C. One-way communications to all stations, two-way communications, one-way communications to a single station. D. Two way communications, One way communications to a single station, One way communications to all stations. share/E9/9-2A60000664000175000017500000000020312527206475011235 0ustar jtnjtn9-2A6 D Which of the following controls is not found on a VHF-DSC transceiver? A. "Distress" B. "Cancel" C. "Squelch" D. "R.I.T." share/E9/9-10A40000664000175000017500000000016612527206476011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-10A4 C What is the most common type of coax connector used on VHF transceivers? A. "N" B. "BNC" C. "UHF" D. "TNC" share/E9/9-13B20000664000175000017500000000021512527206476011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-13B2 B If the BFO is turned off what kind of emissions can still be received? A. J3E and J2B B. A3E and H3E C. H3E and F1B D. A1A and J3E share/E9/9-10A30000664000175000017500000000051412527206476011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-10A3 B A masthead antenna with a base loading coil appears shorted to an ohmmeter check. What might this indicate? A. Positive proof of shorted coaxial cable plugs. B. May be normal for a well working shunt fed antenna system. C. Immediately repair both upper and lower PL-259s. D. No VHF antenna should measure a short circuit. share/E9/9-7A40000664000175000017500000000111512527206475011243 0ustar jtnjtn9-7A4 B What may be indicated if a VHF radio operates normally but the transmitter produces nearly zero RF output in the high power mode on all marine channels? A. The antenna system is presenting a Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) of 1.5 to 1.0 on the desired frequency. B. The SWR protection circuit in the transmitter has engaged to prevent damage to the Power Amplifier. C. A "crowbar" circuit in the power supply has prevented an over current condition that might damage the radio. D. A 50-ohm impedance in the antenna system is preventing the transmitter from achieving full power output. share/E9/9-27C10000664000175000017500000000020612527206476011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-27C1 C What protocol can be used in connecting a PC to the LAN interface of an Inmarsat terminal? A. ISDN B. SMTP C. TCP/IP D. FTP share/E9/9-40E20000664000175000017500000000036712527206477011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-40E2 C Which of the following is not one of the main advantages of a switching power supply? A. Works with a wide range of input voltages. B. Can work with direct current input. C. No RFI problems. D. Lighter weight than linear power supplies. share/E9/9-43F40000664000175000017500000000015712527206477011337 0ustar jtnjtn9-43F4 B What type of data communication is used for NMEA 0183. A. Parallel B. Serial C. Can Bus D. Ethernet share/E9/9-48G20000664000175000017500000000105512527206477011341 0ustar jtnjtn9-48G2 C What log entries are required after passing the annual inspection? A. One of the ship's GMDSS Radio Operators must certify that inspecting technician as properly conducted all the required equipment tests. B. The inspecting technician must enter the results of all the equipment tests and specifically note which tests passed and which tests failed. C. Certification by both the inspecting technician and the vessel's Master/owner that the inspection was successful. D. The vessel's Master/Owner must certify that the inspection was successful. share/E9/9-19B20000664000175000017500000000053312527206476011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-19B2 D What type of code is used for DSC transmissions? A. A 7 bit code with a constant ratio of 4/3 between the 1s and 0s. B. A 7 bit code followed by an error check character at the end. C. A 10 bit code followed by an error check character at the end. D. A 10 bit code with 7 bits used for information and 3 bits used for error correction. share/E9/9-30C60000664000175000017500000000077512527206476011337 0ustar jtnjtn9-30C6 D What error message may be displayed if a connection to the Inmarsat Mobile Packet Data Service (MPDS) network fails? A. "ECM 0071" is displayed indicating the called station ID was not properly decoded. B. "ECM 00F0" is displayed indicating the terminal's failure to transmit over the Inmarsat network. C. "77F0h" or "77F1h" is displayed indicating the terminal is not registered to the MPDS network. D. "00F0h" or "00F1h" is displayed indicating the terminal is not registered to the MPDS network. share/E9/9-36D30000664000175000017500000000061712527206477011337 0ustar jtnjtn9-36D3 D How is a NAVTEX receiver programmed to reject certain messages? A. The transmitting station's two-digit identification can be entered to de-select reception of its broadcasts. B. By entering the SELCALL of the transmitting station. C. By pressing "00" in the transmitter's ID block. D. By choosing a message category's single letter (A-Z) identifier and then deselecting or deactivating. share/E9/9-30C10000664000175000017500000000060712527206477011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-30C1 D Which of the following conditions would prevent communications between an Inmarsat-C data port and external data terminal equipment (DTE)? A. Use of a stop bit in the DCE/DTE communication parameters. B. Grounding pin 5 of the standard EIA-232 connector. C. Use of a "0" parity bit in the DCE/DTE communication parameters. D. Use of a "null" MODEM cable to connect the DTE device. share/E9/9-11B40000664000175000017500000000052412527206476011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-11B4 B Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 2 ppm which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 2182.0 kHz and 4125.0 kHz? The counter has a display resolution of 1 Hz. A. 2181.991 kHz and 4125.004 kHz B. 2182.006 kHz and 4124.995 kHz C. 2182.010 kHz and 4124.992 kHz D. 2181.990 kHz and 4125.009 kHz share/E9/9-48G50000664000175000017500000000031012527206477011335 0ustar jtnjtn9-48G5 D After the station has successfully passed the survey what document is issued to the vessel? A. FCC 817 B. SOLAS Annual Certificate C. Radio Station License D. Cargo Ship Safety Certificate share/E9/9-25C50000664000175000017500000000117412527206476011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-25C5 A What must a LRIT terminal do? A. Capable of being configured to automatically transmit an APR, transmit an APR every 6 hours, be able to automatically transmit a PR if requested. B. Capable of being configured to automatically transmit an APR, transmit an APR every 12 hours, be able to automatically transmit a PR if requested. C. Capable of being configured to automatically receive an APR, transmit an APR every 8 hours, be able to automatically transmit a PR if requested. D. Capable of being configured to automatically receive an APR, transmit an APR every 24 hours, be able to automatically transmit a PR if requested. share/E9/9-18B10000664000175000017500000000103612527206476011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-18B1 D Which of the following conditions indicate the proper operation of a 150 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B ARQ mode? A. The RF power meter indicates constant output at a level between 125 watts and 150 watts during transmission. B. The RF power meter indicates power output only when characters are typed on the NBDP keyboard. C. The RF "S" meter indicates a signal level between 125 watts and 150 watts during NBDP reception. D. The RF power meter indicates an output that fluctuates between 0 and 150 watts during transmission. share/E9/9-24C60000664000175000017500000000041412527206476011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-24C6 A What type of services cannot be provided by the Inmarsat-C system? A. Telephone communications via VOIP. B. Message transmission to and from a mobile unit. C. Broadcast data to groups of mobile terminals. D. Position reporting from fleets of mobile units. share/E9/9-41F40000664000175000017500000000050712527206477011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-41F4 D Power is on but the computer will not boot into the operating system. What steps should you take? A. Make sure the CPU fan is operating normally. B. Remove the network driver card, clean contacts and reinsert. C. Remove all external cables and try again. D. Use the BIOS setup mode to check for proper BIOS settings. share/E9/9-43F50000664000175000017500000000064212527206477011337 0ustar jtnjtn9-43F5 B Which of the following statements about an NMEA -0183 system is correct? A. The cable shield must be grounded at both ends including the opto-isolators. B. Opto-isolators must be used and the shield should be grounded to the talker chassis only. C. Opto-isolators must be used and the shield should be grounded to the listener chassis only. D. Version 2 devices use higher voltages than version 1 devices. share/E9/9-49G60000664000175000017500000000047712527206477011355 0ustar jtnjtn9-49G6 B In dual-trace oscilloscopes the purpose of the "Mode" control is to: A. Select a choice between DC or AC input on either channel. B. Select either channel alone or a combination of both channels. C. Select the proper time base of either channel. D. Select the proper frequency compensation for both channels. share/E9/9-41F50000664000175000017500000000046112527206477011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-41F5 A How do you determine the type of disc drives in an XP system? A. Click on Start programs, accessories and system information. B. Click on System information then Disc Drives. C. Click on Control panel then Sounds and Audio Devices. D. Click on Control panel followed by Taskbar and Start Menu. share/E9/9-24C10000664000175000017500000000063612527206476011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-24C1 B Which of the following actions should be taken to minimize shock hazard of an Inmarsat terminal? A. Ensure the DC power supply is insulated from the ship's hull. B. Ensure the chassis of the Inmarsat terminal is connected to an electrical ground. C. Install a common busbar for grounding to ensure common-mode coupling. D. Isolate the transceiver's metal frame to avoid a return path for fault currents. share/E9/9-14B40000664000175000017500000000046312527206476011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-14B4 C The phase locked loop circuit in an MF/HF receiver appears to be faulty. What is the most likely cause? A. The AGC circuit has become defective. B. The Beat Frequency Oscillator is inoperative. C. The Voltage Controlled Oscillator is inoperative. D. The 500 Hz I.F. filter has become defective. share/E9/9-39E40000664000175000017500000000114412527206477011340 0ustar jtnjtn9-39E4 B What are the disadvantages of using a switcher type power supply? A. Increased complexity (more likelihood of a component failure), increased cost (many more parts) and tendency to create radiated AF. B. Increased complexity (more likelihood of a component failure), increased cost (many more parts) and tendency to create radiated RF. C. Decreased complexity (less likelihood of a component failure) and decreased cost (fewer parts and tendency to create radiated RF. D. Decreased complexity (less likelihood of a component failure) and decreased cost (fewer parts and tendency to create radiated AF. share/E9/9-3A50000664000175000017500000000025012527206475011237 0ustar jtnjtn9-3A5 B What would be considered a normal sensitivity for 10 db of quieting in a VHF marine receiver? A. 0.1 microvolt B. 1 microvolt C. 5 microvolts D. 10 microvolts share/E9/9-24C50000664000175000017500000000016312527206476011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-24C5 D How many NCS's operate in each Inmarsat ocean region per Inmarsat system? A. Three B. Four C. Two D. One share/E9/9-18B30000664000175000017500000000063512527206476011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-18B3 B Which of the following conditions could cause very low RF output in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode? A. Failure of a voltage controlled oscillator in the IF amplifier stage. B. A high Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) in the antenna system. C. The connection of a transceiver is connected to a "Dummy Load" antenna. D. Failure of a SSB bandpass filter in the stage preceding the RF amplifier. share/E9/9-39E30000664000175000017500000000107712527206477011344 0ustar jtnjtn9-39E3 A What are the main advantages of using switcher type power supply? A. Line voltage is directly rectified and filtered to produce a high dc voltage, components are much smaller and lighter weight, can provide much better efficiency. B. The transformed voltage is directly rectified and filtered to produce a high dc voltage, components are much smaller and lighter weight and can provide much better efficiency. C. They use laminated steel transformers which are more efficient. D. Using a center tapped transformer secondary allows fewer rectifiers to be used. share/E9/9-24C40000664000175000017500000000100012527206476011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-24C4 A Which of the following is not recommended for Inmarsat-C antenna installations? A. Ensure the antenna is electrically insulated from the mounting mast. Check resistance with ohmmeter. B. Ground the antenna chassis to the mounting mast. Apply silicone to weatherproof the connection. C. Fashion a drip loop in the transmission line near the antenna. Secure to the mounting mast with cable tie. D. Apply waterproof sealant or putty around transmission line connectors. Wrap with self-bonding/vinyl tape. share/E9/9-40E50000664000175000017500000000034112527206477011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-40E5 D What are the input/output voltages of a "BUCK" switching power supply with a 50% duty cycle? A. 120 volts in, 240 volts out. B. 24 volts in, 36 volts out. C. 12 volts in, 12 volts out. D. 10 volts in, 5 volts out. share/E9/9-7A50000664000175000017500000000056712527206475011256 0ustar jtnjtn9-7A5 B What condition may indicate voltage controlled oscillator failure in the synthesizer of a VHF transmitter? A. Low transmitter power output in the high power mode. B. An out-of-lock condition in the Phased Locked-Loop circuit. C. Excessive deviation in the frequency modulated output signal. D. A constant transmitter power output at various modulation levels. share/E9/9-12B50000664000175000017500000000047412527206476011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-12B5 D Reducing the "RF Gain" control on an MF/HF transceiver has what effect? A. Reduces degenerative feedback to the RF amplifier stage. B. Reduces volume in response to a varying RF signal input. C. Reduces coupling between the receiver's RF amplifier stages. D. Reduces sensitivity of the RF amplifier stage. share/E9/9-3A40000664000175000017500000000072312527206475011243 0ustar jtnjtn9-3A4 B Which of the following are true about SINAD measurements? A. SINAD is the product of the signal and noise divided by the sum of the noise and distortion. B. SINAD is the sum of the signal, noise and distortion divided by the sum of the noise and distortion. C. SINAD is the sum of the noise and distortion divided by the sum of the signal, noise and distortion. D. SINAD is the product of the noise and distortion divided by the sum of the signal and noise. share/E9/9-31C10000664000175000017500000000057112527206477011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-31C1 C An Inmarsat-C terminal shows a "No Receive Signal" alarm. There is no voltage on the antenna center pin. What is the most likely cause? A. Defective AZ or EL motor in the above deck equipment. B. Blown line fuse in the terminal's DC power supply. C. Blown antenna power fuse in the above deck equipment. D. Defective Low Noise Amplifier in the above deck equipment. share/E9/9-7A10000664000175000017500000000125212527206475011242 0ustar jtnjtn9-7A1 C What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio is unable to contact nearby stations and an inline wattmeter indicates power outputs of 1 watt (LOW power) mode and 8.5 watts (HIGH power) mode with +12.8 vdc applied to the radio's DC line? A. The AF Power Amplifier (PA) may be malfunctioning when the transmitter operates in the high power mode. B. Negative feedback in the PA stage may be preventing high amplitude oscillations in the high power mode. C. The transmitter output is low in the high power mode but it is still functioning within FCC specifications. D. The transmitter output will increase in the high power mode with modulation between 75 and 100 percent. share/E9/9-3A60000664000175000017500000000057212527206475011247 0ustar jtnjtn9-3A6 C What is meant by "full quieting" in a FM VHF receiver? A. Adjusting the squelch control to eliminate background noise. B. The rapid decrease in SINAD and noise with increasing signal level. C. The received signal is strong enough to completely quiet the receiver background noise. D. The rapid improvement in SINAD and decrease in noise with decreasing signal level. share/E9/9-19B10000664000175000017500000000036112527206476011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-19B1 C What precedes the phasing signal in a DSC distress alert call? A. An alternating dot pattern of 20 bits B. An alternating dot pattern of 100 bits C. An alternating dot pattern of 200 bits D. An alternating dot pattern of 400 bits share/E9/9-3A30000664000175000017500000000055712527206475011247 0ustar jtnjtn9-3A3 A What is the function of a properly adjusted limiter circuit? A. Maintains a constant output amplitude with a varying input amplitude. B. Limits the level of RF output power in the final amplifier stage. C. Limits the modulation input amplitude while amplifying the modulation output. D. Controls the DC input voltage excursions of the final amplifier stage. share/E9/9-25C30000664000175000017500000000046512527206476011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-25C3 C LRIT Long Range Information Tracking: A. Can serve as duplicate back up information for AIS (Automatic Information System.) B. Works on the same frequencies as AIS, but on different channels. C. is detected on the Inmarsat-C satellite network. D. Puts out a polling signal on the Inmarsat B system. share/E9/9-35D10000664000175000017500000000044412527206477011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-35D1 C How often must the Survival Craft Transceiver battery be changed? A. 2 years or after use for distress communications. B. 3 years or after use for distress communications. C. 5 years or after use for distress communications. D. 8 years or after use for distress communications. share/E9/9-16B60000664000175000017500000000076312527206476011337 0ustar jtnjtn9-16B6 A What is the purpose of a phase comparator in a frequency synthesizer? A. Compare the divided outputs of the master oscillator and the voltage controlled oscillator. B. Compare the direct outputs of the master oscillator and the voltage controlled oscillator. C. Compare the direct output of the master oscillator and the divided output of the voltage controlled oscillator. D. Compare the divided output of the master oscillator and the direct output of the voltage controlled oscillator. share/E9/9-31C40000664000175000017500000000046012527206477011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-31C4 B The antenna goes past the AZ EL of the satellite but does not initialize but you can manually point the antenna at the satellite and acquire signal. What is the most likely problem? A. Defective coax cable. B. Faulty antenna control module. C. Bad I.F. amplifier. D. Bad Gyro repeater motor. share/E9/9-42F30000664000175000017500000000025112527206477011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-42F3 B 10Base-T and 100Base-TX systems generally uses the following type of cable: A. CAT-5 with 2 twisted pairs B. CAT-5 with 4 twisted pairs C. Coax D. Fiber optic share/E9/9-43F30000664000175000017500000000021712527206477011333 0ustar jtnjtn9-43F3 A The current and most recent version of NMEA 0183 uses what standard for data communications? A. RS422 B. RS485 C. RS232 D. ISO 11783 share/E9/9-32C50000664000175000017500000000063312527206477011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-32C5 D Interference induced from nearby HF transmitters may cause Inmarsat system failures. What is the most appropriate action to resolve this problem? A. Install a longer ground lead to the INMARSAT terminal. B. Install a low-pass filter between the coax cable and antenna. C. Reduce bias to the INMARSAT antenna's Low Noise Amplifier. D. Install ferrite clamps on the coax cable to suppress induced RF. share/E9/9-42F60000664000175000017500000000026312527206477011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-42F6 D In an Ethernet network, the available bandwidth is shared between all nodes within the same: A. Vessel Compartment B. Address Range C. Star Topology D. Collision Domain share/E9/9-1A10000664000175000017500000000060112527206475011231 0ustar jtnjtn9-1A1 A What are the correct VHF Channels and Frequencies for Calling/Distress, DSC and bridge-to-bridge operations? A. Ch-16, 156.800 MHz, Ch-70, 156.525 MHz and Ch-13, 156.650 MHz. B. Ch-06, 156.300 MHz, Ch-16, 156.800 MHz and Ch-13, 156.650 MHz. C. Ch-08, 156.400 MHz, Ch-70, 156.525 MHz and Ch-16, 156.800 MHz. D. Ch-06, 156.300 MHz, Ch-12, 156.600 MHz and Ch-13, 156.650 MHz. share/E9/9-2A10000664000175000017500000000060612527206475011237 0ustar jtnjtn9-2A1 D What is the purpose of the USA-INT switch? A. To provide for simplex operations with European Public Correspondence stations. B. To provide for duplex operations with U.S. Public Correspondence stations. C. To change from duplex to simplex operation on designated channels in European waters. D. To change from duplex to simplex operation on designated channels in U.S. waters. share/E9/9-3A20000664000175000017500000000034412527206475011240 0ustar jtnjtn9-3A2 D Which of the following may be adjusted in a FM ratio detector for improved signal-to-noise? A. The diode detector B. Input signal to the two diodes C. Input voltage to the transistor D. Ratio Arm balance control bridge share/E9/9-33D10000664000175000017500000000107612527206477011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-33D1 A Which is not a function of a satellite under COSPAS-SARSAT using satellite EPIRBs? A. After the EPIRB's position is calculated using the Doppler shift COSPAS-SARSAT satellites provide follow-on SAR communications. B. Relayed satellite message includes the EPIRB ID number which provides a reference for retrieval of vessel information from the shore database. C. Doppler shift of EPIRB signal is measured and the EPIRB's position is calculated. D. Information received from EPIRBs is time-tagged and transmitted to any Local User Terminal in the satellite's view. share/E9/9-8A50000664000175000017500000000053012527206475011245 0ustar jtnjtn9-8A5 D What condition may cause distortion in the modulator stage of a marine VHF transmitter? A. The reactance modulator may be out of alignment. B. The excessive use of pre-emphasis on audio signals above 25 kHz. C. A defective varactor diode in the transmitter's voltage controlled oscillator. D. Transmitter modulation in excess of 150%. share/E9/9-21B50000664000175000017500000000060312527206476011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-21B5 A If the vessel is beyond range of NAVTEX broadcasts and the Sat-C system fails, the GMDSS operator must: A. Select an HF MSI frequency and FEC TELEX mode to receive MSI. B. Select 518 kHz ARQ TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. C. Request repairs of the Sat-C system and wait until within range of NAVTEX. D. Select 518 kHz FEC TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. share/E9/9-27C50000664000175000017500000000037312527206476011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-27C5 B What is the configuration Thrane & Thrane F500 for standard voice telephone operation? A. RJ11 Port 1 and 2 set to 3.1 kHz. B. RJ11 Port 1 and 2 set to standard voice. C. ISDN Port set to 3.1 kHz. D. ISDN Port 1 and 2 set to standard voice. share/E9/9-22B30000664000175000017500000000054212527206476011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-22B3 B What is the electrical effect of a capacitance in series with the antenna? A. It electrically lengthens a physically fixed length antenna. B. It electrically shortens a physically fixed length antenna. C. It lowers the resonant frequency of a physically fixed length antenna. D. It increases the bandwidth of a physically fixed length antenna. share/E9/9-28C10000664000175000017500000000077712527206476011343 0ustar jtnjtn9-28C1 B What is the usual arrangement of GPS satellites? A. 18 satellites in 3 orbital planes, 6 satellites in each plane, 23,400 km altitude and 55 degrees inclination. B. 24 satellites in 6 orbital planes, 4 satellites in each plane, 20,200 km altitude and 55 degrees inclination. C. 30 satellites in 5 orbital planes, 6 satellites in each plane, 20,200 km altitude and 60 degrees inclination. D. 36 satellites in 6 orbital planes, 6 satellites in each plane, 23,600 km altitude and 60 degrees inclination. share/E9/9-20B30000664000175000017500000000126312527206476011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-20B3 D Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode: A. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters twice and then waits for an "RQ" signal to indicate proper receipt before transmission of the next 3 characters. B. The Ship station sends each character twice, using a time diversity system to ensure proper parity. C. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters, the shore station checks for proper parity and then requests the same group be resent to enable error correction. D. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters, the shore station checks for proper parity. If parity is OK, the shore station indicates readiness for transmission of the next 3 characters. share/E9/9-26C40000664000175000017500000000065012527206476011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-26C4 C Which of the following is the best procedure to test the Inmarsat Distress Alarm? A. Lift the plastic cover and depress the "DISTRESS" button. B. Advise the US Coast Guard you are going to test the Distress Alarm. C. Use service number 33 to arrange a Distress Alarm test transmission with the LES in advance. D. Broadcast a SAFETY priority call to all stations immediately prior to initiating the Distress Alarm. share/E9/9-15B30000664000175000017500000000051612527206476011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-15B3 A The MF/HF transceiver produces strong AF output but no signals are heard on any frequency. What is the most likely cause? A. The transceiver is connected to a "Dummy Load." B. A high Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) in the antenna system. C. A "crowbar" circuit in the power supply is activated. D. The squelch circuit has failed. share/E9/9-37E20000664000175000017500000000054312527206477011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-37E2 B What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of lead acid batteries? A. Higher temperature results in a higher specific gravity reading. B. Higher temperature results in a lower specific gravity reading. C. Temperature has no effect on the specific gravity reading. D. Lower temperature results in a lower specific gravity reading. share/E9/9-35D30000664000175000017500000000015712527206477011335 0ustar jtnjtn9-35D3 A What is the minimum required effective radiated power? A. 0.25 watt B. 0.5 watt C. 1 watt D. 2 watts share/E9/9-45F50000664000175000017500000000043712527206477011343 0ustar jtnjtn9-45F5 A How does the Ship Security Alert System operate? A. It sends an alert to specific addresses via the Inmarsat-C terminal. B. It sends an all ships alert via the VHF-DSC unit. C. It sends an alert to the RCC via the Inmarsat-C terminal. D. It sends an all ships alert via MF-HF. share/E9/9-38E30000664000175000017500000000076712527206477011350 0ustar jtnjtn9-38E3 B What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system? A. All of these symptoms would indicate a potential battery charger malfunction. B. A constant 30 volt reading on the GMDSS console voltmeter. C. After testing the station on battery power, a voltmeter reading of 30 volts for a brief period followed by a steady 26 volt reading. D. After testing the station on battery power, the ammeter reading indicates a high rate of charge that then declines. share/E9/9-17B50000664000175000017500000000076512527206476011341 0ustar jtnjtn9-17B5 A Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz SSB radiotelephone? A. No indication of power output when speaking into the microphone. B. Much higher noise level observed during daytime operation. C. When testing a radiotelephone alarm on 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna, the Distress frequency watch receiver becomes un-muted, an improper testing procedure. D. Failure to contact a shore station 600 nautical miles distant during daytime operation. share/E9/9-19B60000664000175000017500000000073112527206476011335 0ustar jtnjtn9-19B6 C What statement is false concerning DSC calls addressed to MMSI 003669999? A. MMSI 003669999 is an established group call that includes all U.S. Coast Guard Stations. B. DSC calls to MMSI 003669999 will be received by all DSC-equipped USCG coast stations within radio range. C. DSC calls to MMSI 003669999 may not be used to test MF/HF DSC equipment aboard ships. D. DSC calls to MMSI 003669999 may result in an automated acknowledgement from USCG coast stations. share/E9/9-17B10000664000175000017500000000042512527206476011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-17B1 A An MF-HF transceiver works properly on voice but not SITOR (NBDP). What is the most likely source of the problem? A. The 500 Hz I.F. filter has failed. B. The audio amplifier has failed. C. The phase locked loop circuit has failed. D. The R.F. amplifier has failed. share/E9/9-22B60000664000175000017500000000025312527206476011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-22B6 D Which of the following connectors is often used in GMDSS MF/HF antenna systems? A. "F" Connector B. "SMA" Connector C. "EIA-232" Connector D. "PL-259" Connector share/E9/9-9A30000664000175000017500000000063312527206475011250 0ustar jtnjtn9-9A3 C How might a DSC radio check be accomplished with a coast station? A. Enter the station's MMSI, and press the button under the red plastic cover for 5 seconds. B. Select DSC menu item TEST, enter the Coast Station's FCC call letters, and send the test call. C. Select DSC menu item TEST, enter the Coast Station's MMSI number, and send the test. D. Select DSC menu ALL SHIPS, and send the test message. share/E9/9-34D30000664000175000017500000000045612527206477011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-34D3 B What causes the SART to begin a transmission? A. When activated manually, it begins radiating immediately. B. After being activated the SART responds to RADAR interrogation. C. It is either manually or water activated before radiating. D. It begins radiating only when keyed by the operator. share/E9/9-1A30000664000175000017500000000015012527206475011232 0ustar jtnjtn9-1A3 C What is the assigned channel spacing for VHF channels? A. 10 kHz B. 15 kHz C. 25 kHz D. 50 kHz share/E9/9-39E60000664000175000017500000000055012527206477011342 0ustar jtnjtn9-39E6 C Power supplies with capacitive input filters have the following characteristics: A. Relatively high output voltage with low rectifier peak currents. B. High transformer utilization factor with good voltage regulation. C. Poor voltage regulation and high rectifier peak currents. D. Good voltage regulation with high transformer utilization factor. share/E9/9-30C20000664000175000017500000000070112527206476011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-30C2 A How can a LES/RCC (Rescue Coordination Centre) determine if an Inmarsat-C Distress Alert is a TEST transmission? A. A flag in the message is set to identify the transmission as a test alert. B. The validity of each Distress alert must be manually verified by LES/RCC personnel. C. A Distress acknowledgement is sent from the LES/RCC to the originating station. D. LES/RCC personnel cannot distinguish between valid and TEST transmissions. share/E9/9-17B20000664000175000017500000000100712527206476011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-17B2 B Which of the following conditions would indicate the malfunction of a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system? A. No discernable traffic has been heard on the 2182 kHz during the radiotelephone silent periods. B. Failure to contact another station 60 miles distant during daytime operation. C. Dramatic decrease in noise level observed during night and early morning hours. D. The visual indication of power to the antenna fluctuates while testing the radiotelephone alarm signal generator into an artificial antenna. share/E9/9-28C40000664000175000017500000000054312527206476011335 0ustar jtnjtn9-28C4 A Which of the following statements is true? A. The L2 carrier of 1227.60 MHz is used to measure the ionospheric delay. B. The L1 carrier of 1650.5 MHz is used to measure the ionospheric delay. C. The L1 carrier of 1545.22 MHz is used to provide the navigation message. D. The L2 carrier of 1575.42 MHz is used to provide the navigation message. share/E9/9-46F20000664000175000017500000000033012527206477011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-46F2 A Which of the following lists of data inputs for an Electronic Chart System is incorrect? A. Radar, SSAS and Position. B. Speed, Depth and Position. C. Radar, Depth and Position. D. Speed, Radar and Depth. share/E9/9-26C50000664000175000017500000000040412527206476011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-26C5 C Which of the following is the correct Fax/Data configuration of a Fleet Broadband terminal? A. RJ11 Port 1 and 2 set to standard voice. B. ISDN Port set to standard voice. C. RJ11 Port 1 and 2 set to 3.1 kHz audio. D. LAN Ports set to 3.1 kHz audio. share/E9/9-2A40000664000175000017500000000040512527206475011237 0ustar jtnjtn9-2A4 C What is the proper adjustment of the squelch control for maximum sensitivity? A. Maximum clockwise rotation. B. Maximum counterclockwise rotation. C. Just below the point where the noise breaks through. D. The squelch has no effect on the sensitivity. share/E9/9-5A60000664000175000017500000000062012527206475011243 0ustar jtnjtn9-5A6 B What condition may cause noisy operation of a VHF receiver? A. An output signal that is larger than the input signal in an audio frequency amplifier stage. B. A defective potentiometer in the audio frequency amplifier stage. C. Low bias voltage to an intermediate frequency amplifier stage. D. An open winding in a secondary of a coupling transformer in the audio frequency amplifier stage. share/E9/9-49G40000664000175000017500000000025412527206477011344 0ustar jtnjtn9-49G4 D A good lab type signal generator for VHF measurements should be able to reduce its output to: A. 5.0 microvolt B. 1.0 microvolt C. 0.5 microvolt D. 0.1 microvolt share/E9/9-5A30000664000175000017500000000130312527206475011237 0ustar jtnjtn9-5A3 C Which of the following procedures may be used in many U.S. ports as a quick field test to determine if a shipboard VHF receiver is operating properly? A. Tune the VHF receiver to 158.6 MHz and listen for local U.S. Coast Guard announcements or radio traffic from other vessels. B. Set the VHF radio to a simplex channel, key the transmitter, and monitor the quality of the transmitted signal with the internal receiver. C. Tune the VHF radio to 162.550 MHz, 162.400 MHz or 162.475 MHz and listen for broadcasts from the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration. D. Connect appropriate test equipment to the radio and measure signal levels at the output of the receiver's RF amplifier stage. share/E9/9-26C30000664000175000017500000000064112527206476011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-26C3 B Which of the following best describes Inmarsat BGAN Streaming Data service? A. A service ideal for TCP/IP traffic such as e-mail, file transfers and Internet access. B. Exclusive, high-priority connection ideal for time critical applications. C. A service used by the Inmarsat terminal's web interface for operation and configuration. D. A high speed data service used for high speed connections via ISDN. share/E9/9-29C60000664000175000017500000000060312527206476011335 0ustar jtnjtn9-29C6 B What components does an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband RADOME typically include? A. Phased array antenna, gyro-stabilized platform, rotary joint, AC power supply. B. Stabilized antenna, RF unit, Antenna Control Unit, GPS antenna. C. Parabolic dish antenna, Main Control Unit, rotary joint, HV power supply. D. Parabolic dish antenna, rotary joint, AC power supply TDMA Control Unit. share/E9/9-49G30000664000175000017500000000030712527206477011342 0ustar jtnjtn9-49G3 C What is the most important specification for an R. F. Signal Generator used at VHF frequencies? A. Frequency accuracy B. Modulation percentage C. Low signal leakage D. Frequency modulation share/E9/9-5A10000664000175000017500000000103212527206475011234 0ustar jtnjtn9-5A1 A What condition may cause a significant loss in VHF receiver sensitivity? A. A reading of 9.6 when a voltmeter is connected between the positive side of the radio's DC line and ground. B. The presence of a -90dbm signal measured at the 2nd IF output with the receiver tuned to the desired input frequency. C. An internal signal that is very weak in comparison to the desired signal at the output of the second IF stage. D. Replacing (75 ohm) RG-59/U coaxial transmission line with a (50 ohm) RG-8/U or LMR-400 Ultraflex cable. share/E9/9-18B50000664000175000017500000000075512527206476011341 0ustar jtnjtn9-18B5 C Which of the following conditions could cause zero RF output in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode? A. The connection of a transceiver is connected to a "Dummy Load" antenna. B. The failure of the voice bandpass filter in the stage preceding the RF amplifier. C. The activation of a "crowbar" circuit in the power supply to prevent an unregulated voltage increase. D. The generation of a positive VCO feedback signal to a Phase Locked Loop circuit in the transmitter. share/E9/9-10A20000664000175000017500000000047112527206476011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-10A2 A Which of the following best describes a VHF collinear array? A. An antenna with phased elements, omni directional radiation pattern, offering up to 9 db gain. B. The cascade filters in the VHF radio's IF section. C. A shoreside directional VHF yagi antenna. D. A depth sounder phased array transducer. share/E9/9-50G30000664000175000017500000000037012527206477011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-50G3 B Which of the following statements about a logic probe is false? A. A "Red" LED indicates a "High" state. B. Both "Red" and "Green" LEDs on indicate a short. C. A "Green" LED indicates a "Low" state. D. An "Amber" LED indicates a "pulse". share/E9/9-38E10000664000175000017500000000053312527206477011335 0ustar jtnjtn9-38E1 D How often should high charging be use with a standard lead acid battery and a fully automatic GMDSS compliant Battery charger? A. Once every 24 hours for 1 hour. B. Once every month till the battery reaches 2.5V/cell. C. Never use High charging rate on a fully charged battery. D. Once a week till the battery reaches the gassing range. share/E9/9-48G60000664000175000017500000000042112527206477011341 0ustar jtnjtn9-48G6 A Which of the following is NOT a required VHF test during an annual inspection? A. Carrier deviation measurement. B. Power output and VSWR on Channels 6, 13 and 16. C. Equipment is within frequency tolerance. D. Equipment operates from all required power sources. share/E9/9-34D20000664000175000017500000000016612527206477011333 0ustar jtnjtn9-34D2 A In what frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 9 GHz B. 3 GHz C. S-band D. 406 MHz share/E9/9-16B50000664000175000017500000000071112527206476011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-16B5 D What are the major components of a phase locked loop frequency synthesizer? A. Ratio detector, master oscillator, limiting amplifier and voltage controlled oscillator. B. Phase comparator, loop filter, master oscillator and first mixer stage. C. High pass filter, master oscillator, double balanced mixer and voltage controlled oscillator. D. Master oscillator, frequency dividers, phase comparator, loop filter and voltage controlled oscillator. share/E9/9-15B10000664000175000017500000000043312527206476011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-15B1 C The MF/HF receiver fails to suppress the AF output in the absence of a sufficiently strong input signal. What is the most likely cause? A. The AGC circuit has failed. B. The BFO circuit has failed. C. The squelch circuit has failed. D. The AF amplifier circuit has failed. share/E9/9-12B40000664000175000017500000000016212527206476011322 0ustar jtnjtn9-12B4 A What mode is a MF/HF transceiver operating in when "TLX" displayed? A. SITOR (NBDP) B. SSB C. DSC D. AM share/E9/9-44F50000664000175000017500000000017012527206477011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-44F5 D When viewing NMEA 2000 data you must use the following. A. Voltmeter B. Converter C. HyperTerminal D. Gateway share/E9/9-9A50000664000175000017500000000024112527206475011245 0ustar jtnjtn9-9A5 A What is the time diversity reception interval for a VHF-DSC call? A. 33-1/3 milliseconds B. 40.5 milliseconds C. 66-2/3 milliseconds D. 91 milliseconds share/E9/9-47G40000664000175000017500000000021412527206477011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-47G4 B Bridge equipment separation recommendations generally refer to what instrument? A. GPS B. Magnetic compass C. ECDIS D. Auto Pilot share/E9/9-42F50000664000175000017500000000036512527206477011340 0ustar jtnjtn9-42F5 C What are the most commonly used IP addresses for routers? A. 198.162.1.1, 196.168.1.1 and 196.166.1.1 B. 194.166.1.0, 194.166.1.1 and 194.168.1.2 C. 192.168.1.1, 192.168.0.1 and 192.168.2.0 D. 192.166.1.0, 192.166.1.1 and 192.164.2.0 share/E9/9-11B50000664000175000017500000000056412527206476011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-11B5 B Which of the following are assigned frequencies for Digital Selective Calling? A. 2182 kHz, 4177.5 kHz, 6312 kHz, 8376.5 kHz, 12577 kHz, 16420 kHz. B. 2187.5 kHz, 4207.5 kHz, 6312 kHz, 8414.5 kHz, 12577 kHz, 16804.5 kHz. C. 2187.5 kHz, 4207.5 kHz, 6268 kHz, 8414.5 kHz, 12520 kHz, 16420. kHz. D. 2174.5 kHz, 4125 kHz, 6312 kHz, 8291 kHz, 12577 kHz, 16804.5 kHz share/E9/9-14B50000664000175000017500000000042412527206476011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-14B5 C You are able to hear signals in the SITOR (NBDP) mode but not in the voice/SSB mode. What is the most likely cause? A. The B.F.O. circuit has failed. B. The audio amplifier is defective. C. The 2.8 kHz filter has become defective. D. The R.F. amplifier has failed. share/E9/9-7A30000664000175000017500000000211512527206475011243 0ustar jtnjtn9-7A3 A A mismatched antenna system can degrade marine VHF radio performance. Antenna system matching can be analyzed by determining the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR). Which of the following is the best test procedure to determine the VHF antenna system SWR? A. Insert a directional wattmeter between the VHF transmitter and the coaxial transmission line connected to the antenna, activate the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit, observe the measured values of forward and reflected power. B. Insert a SWR meter between the VHF transmitter and the coaxial transmission line disconnected from the antenna, set the radio to an unused channel, activate the Push-To-Talk circuit, and read the measured value. C. Insert a directional wattmeter between the VHF radio and an artificial antenna, set the radio to any channel, key the microphone, and read the values of forward and reflected power. D. Insert an in-line RF Power meter between the VHF transmitter and the coaxial transmission line connected to a 50 ohm load, activate the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit, observe the measured value of reflected power. share/E9/9-8A20000664000175000017500000000111712527206475011244 0ustar jtnjtn9-8A2 C What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio cannot contact nearby stations, an inline wattmeter indicates less than 1 watt output (HIGH power mode), and nominal voltage (e.g., 12.8 vdc) is applied to the VHF radio power input line? A. The RF power applied to the input of the Power Amplifier (PA) stage is excessive. B. There is an open connection between the radio's PA stage and the antenna connector. C. The bias voltage applied to the Power Amplifier (PA) stage may be insufficient. D. A defective capacitor is blocking DC voltage from appearing at the antenna connector. share/E9/9-6A10000664000175000017500000000016612527206475011244 0ustar jtnjtn9-6A1 D What is the maximum allowable deviation of a marine VHF transmitter? A. 12 kHz B. 10 kHz C. 7.5 kHz D. 5 kHz share/E9/9-16B20000664000175000017500000000023612527206476011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-16B2 C What would be the most likely power level to use for initial MF-HF communications? A. 25 watts PEP B. 50 watts PEP C.150 watts PEP D. 600 watts PEP share/E9/9-10A50000664000175000017500000000022512527206475011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-10A5 C What type of coaxial cable would be most appropriate for a long transmission line run? A. "RG-58/U" B. "RG-59/U" C. "RG-8/U" D. "RG-174/U" share/E9/9-21B60000664000175000017500000000077612527206476011337 0ustar jtnjtn9-21B6 B If the vessel is experiencing atmospheric interference with NAVTEX broadcasts, especially in the tropics, the GMDSS operator should: A. Select one of the 6 HF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in ARQ TELEX mode. B. Select one of the 8 HF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. C. Select one of the 6 MF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. D. Select the MF MSI frequency dedicated to tropical MSI and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. share/E9/9-20B40000664000175000017500000000025412527206476011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-20B4 A Which of the following keystrokes or characters follows most commands in ARQ communications when working an automated Coast Station? A. + B. GA+? C. ENTER D. END share/E9/9-16B10000664000175000017500000000043012527206476011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-16B1 B How is a J3E signal generated? A. By using high-level modulation to produce a single sideband. B. By using a double balanced mixer and a sideband filter. C. By using the audio signal to phase modulate the carrier. D. By using low level modulation and a sideband filter. share/E9/9-42F10000664000175000017500000000023112527206477011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-42F1 D Nodes in an Ethernet network are interconnected using a cable making a "Home Run"back to the central: A. Router B. Backbone C. Computer D. Hub share/E9/9-34D50000664000175000017500000000100112527206477011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-34D5 C What are the characteristics of the SART transmitted signal? A. It starts with a sweep of 10.2 usec.followed by a sweep of 0.6 usec for a total of 10 sweeps. B. It starts with a sweep of 0.8 usec followed by a sweep of 12.6 usec for a total of 12 sweeps. C. It starts with a sweep of 0.4usec across the entire 3 cm radar band followed by a returning sweep of 7.5 usec back to the beginning for a total of 12 sweeps. D. It starts with a sweep of 8.5 usec followed by a sweep of 0.4 usec for 10 sweeps. share/E9/9-12B30000664000175000017500000000035512527206476011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-12B3 D What is the purpose of the "ENTER" function. A. To store any incoming DSC message in memory. B. To recall any previously received message. C. To transmit a DSC distress alert. D. To accept the previous selection or data input. share/E9/9-25C20000664000175000017500000000043512527206476011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-25C2 B LRIT Long Range Information Tracking data: A. Need not be transmitted if AMVER daily messages are sent. B. Is a separate tracking system for each flag state's security. C. Is shared for the Captain of the Port. D. Is broadcast on the Internet for company tracking purposes. share/E9/9-28C50000664000175000017500000000114012527206476011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-28C5 D Which of the following best describes the GPS satellite signals transmitted? A. The L2 carrier at 1650.5 MHz carries the navigation message and the L1 carrier at 1575.42 MHz is used to measure the ionospheric delay. B. The two carriers are combined in a mixer circuit to develop an intermediate signal which is transmitted. C. The main carrier of 1650.5 MHz and a sub-carrier of 1575.24 MHz containing the SPS code signals. D. The L1 carrier of 1575.42 MHz carries the navigation message and the SPS code signals and the L2 carrier 1227.60 MHz which is used to measure the ionospheric delay. share/E9/9-22B10000664000175000017500000000030212527206476011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-22B1 D What is the purpose of the antenna tuner? A. Minimizes the carrier output. B. Maximizes the sidebands. C. Provides for maximum VSWR. D. Match the antenna to the operating frequency. share/E9/9-44F30000664000175000017500000000040212527206477011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-44F3 D Which of the following are NOT components of a NMEA 2000 network? A. Tees, Drop Cables and terminating Resistors. B. Tees, Backbone Cables, Power Cables. C. Termination Resistors, Power Cables, Backbone Cables. D. Multiplexers, Combiners, Routers. share/E9/9-17B30000664000175000017500000000114212527206476011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-17B3 C Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output? A. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, power output is indicated. B. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes power meter to fluctuate slightly around the 60 watt reading. C. In SITOR (NBDP) communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF Power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. share/E9/9-38E60000664000175000017500000000054612527206477011346 0ustar jtnjtn9-38E6 D A fully automatic GMDSS compliant Battery charger/ Power supply's high (Full) charging mode must be disabled during setup for what type batteries? A. When the batteries are Ni Cadmium type. B. When the Batteries are standard lead acid type. C. When the batteries are lithium ion type. D. When the batteries are Maintenance free lead acid gel type. share/E9/9-46F40000664000175000017500000000032012527206477011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-46F4 C What inputs are normally required for an Auto Pilot? A. Course information and GPS. B. Rudder feedback and Radar data. C. Course information and rudder feedback. D. Rudder feedback and yaw sensors. share/E9/9-44F20000664000175000017500000000025412527206477011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-44F2 C NMEA 2000 Certified Device identify their current requirements in terms of LENs (load Equivalent Number). 1 LEN is equal to: A. 1 Amp B. 500 mA C. 50 mA D. 25 mA share/E9/9-5A20000664000175000017500000000156712527206475011252 0ustar jtnjtn9-5A2 B Which of the following test procedures may be used to determine a VHF receiver's minimum discernible signal? A. Connect an oscilliscope to the antenna input and observe the amplitude of minimum signal voltage plotted on the display's vertical axis as a function of time on the horizontal axis. B. Set a signal generator to the frequency of the VHF receiver, adjust the output signal to near zero, and increase the signal level until an audio voltmeter connected to the AF output point indicates a 3-dB increase. C. Connect a spectrum analyzer to the antenna input and apply the maximum amount of attentuation to detect minimum signal level plotted on the display's vertical axis as a function of frequency on the horizontal axis. D. Connect a 156.3 Mhz signal generator to the antenna input, set the VHF receiver to channel 06 and measure dynamic range using an oscilliscope. share/E9/9-27C60000664000175000017500000000070512527206476011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-27C6 C Which of the following best describes a Subscriber Identity Module (SIM)? A. A removable device to implement Inmarsat digital rights management (DRM). B. A non-volatile device to implement high-speed data and other advanced terminal features. C. An integrated circuit device that securely stores the Inmarsat identity and an authentication key. D. A Read/Write data device that uses x.25 protocol to limit terminal access to authorized users. share/E9/9-2A20000664000175000017500000000063612527206475011243 0ustar jtnjtn9-2A2 A What may happen if the USA-INT control is left on INT when in U.S. waters? A. Your signals will be heard but other station replies will not be heard on certain channels. B. You will be able to communicate with public correspondence stations on Channel 5. C. Other stations will not be able to hear your transmissions and you will not hear any signals. D. You will not be able to operate on channel 13. share/E9/9-50G40000664000175000017500000000034712527206477011337 0ustar jtnjtn9-50G4 C An analog RF wattmeter provides the most accurate reading: A. At the middle one third of the dial. B. At the lower one third of the dial. C. At the upper one third of the dial. D. The accuracy is uniform the whole scale. share/E9/9-15B50000664000175000017500000000052712527206476011333 0ustar jtnjtn9-15B5 B The MF/HF transceiver fails to produce AF output but the radio is powered on and "TX" is illuminated. What is the most likely cause? A. The speaker is shorted out. B. A shorted Push-To-Talk circuit in the microphone. C. A "crowbar" circuit in the power supply has engaged. D. The final stage of the AF amplifier circuit has failed. share/E9/9-32C60000664000175000017500000000061712527206477011335 0ustar jtnjtn9-32C6 A What condition will lower the observed bit rate on a Fleet Broadband terminal? A. A standard IP satellite channel that is "busy" with many active users. B. Selection of an upstream IP data service for downstream high-speed data transmission. C. Use of the FTP, POP, SMTP or HTTP protocol instead of TCP/IP. D. Use of highly contended connections instead of store-and-forward IP circuits. share/E9/9-7A60000664000175000017500000000061512527206475011251 0ustar jtnjtn9-7A6 C What condition may exist if a VHF radio is operational in receive mode but unable to transmit? A. Excessive bias is being applied to switching transistors in the transmitter output stage. B. The solid-state antenna relay is no longer functioning properly. C. A component in the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit has failed. D. The SWR protection circuit has engaged to prevent transmission. share/E9/9-10A10000664000175000017500000000026612527206476011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-10A1 D It becomes necessary to construct a temporary VHF marine antenna. What should be the approximate length of the antenna? A. 10 inches B. 12 inches C. 15 inches D. 18 inches share/E9/9-37E50000664000175000017500000000075512527206477011346 0ustar jtnjtn9-37E5 A What is a gel cell battery and how is it maintained & cared for? A. Gel cell batteries are typically sealed, special charging rates and voltages may be required. B. Gel cell batteries are lead acid with a solid electrolyte, each cell is checked with a voltmeter. C. Gel cell batteries are NICAD with a solid electrolyte, each cell is checked with a voltmeter. D. Gel cell batteries are have special liquid electrolytes, they are charged with the NICAD charging rates and voltages. share/E9/9-33D30000664000175000017500000000023212527206477011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-33D3 C How often must the EPIRB battery be replaced? A. Every 2 years. B. Every 3 years or after use. C. Every 5 years or after use. D. Every 8 years. share/E9/9-40E40000664000175000017500000000057412527206477011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-40E4 A Which of the following statements about switching power supplies is the most accurate? A. Transformers use a ferrite core to reduce losses at high frequencies. B. Transformers use a laminated steel core to reduce losses at high frequencies. C. Lower switching frequencies provide better voltage regulation. D. Higher switching frequencies are more difficult to filter. share/E9/9-10A60000664000175000017500000000033512527206475011322 0ustar jtnjtn9-10A6 D What is a disadvantage when using high gain VHF antennas? A. Poor horizontal radiation pattern. B. Very high radiation pattern. C. Very low radiation pattern. D. Signal dropout in severe weather on small craft. share/E9/9-4A50000664000175000017500000000075312527206475011250 0ustar jtnjtn9-4A5 D What condition may prevent a VHF radio receiver from receiving a weak signal? A. The local oscillator frequency is beating against the incoming signal to produce an Intermediate Frequency (IF). B. The output signal of the Phase Locked Loop (PLL) circuit in the frequency synthesizer has become unlocked. C. The output signal of an AF amplifier stage is greater than the input signal. D. The weak RF signal has been suppressed at the limiter stage of the received by capture effect. share/E9/9-50G20000664000175000017500000000054312527206477011333 0ustar jtnjtn9-50G2 A a SINAD meter consists of a multi-range audio frequency voltmeter: A. Calibrated in decibels with a sharp internal 1000 Hz bandstop filter. B. Calibrated in millivolts with a medium 1000 Hz bandpass filter. C. Calibrated in decibels with an internal 1000 Hz highpass filter. D. Calibrated in decibels with an internal 1000 Hz lowpass filter. share/E9/9-25C40000664000175000017500000000057612527206476011340 0ustar jtnjtn9-25C4 D When a compulsory equipped IMO ship is not correctly broadcasting LRIT Info what action should be taken? A. Check the power fuse on the Sat D box located on the bridge. B. Can re-boot the AIS broadcasting unit. C. Verify the Ship Security Alerting System has not been accidentally activated. D. Double check the GMDSS Console's Inmarsat-C terminal for regular operation. share/E9/9-50G60000664000175000017500000000040412527206477011333 0ustar jtnjtn9-50G6 D What would be the most likely reason to observe the transmitter output with a spectrum analyzer? A. Measure frequency modulation deviation. B. Measure percentage of amplitude modulation. C. Measure the carrier frequency. D. Measure spurious signals. share/E9/9-14B30000664000175000017500000000044012527206476011322 0ustar jtnjtn9-14B3 B You are able to hear signals in the voice/SSB mode but not in the SITOR (NBDP) mode. What is the most likely cause? A. The phase locked loop circuit has failed. B. The 500 Hz I.F. filter has become defective. C. The R.F. amplifier has failed. D. The B.F.O. circuit has failed. share/E9/9-11B30000664000175000017500000000016612527206476011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-11B3 A What is the allowable frequency tolerance for GMDSS MF-HF transmitters? A. 10 Hz B. 15 Hz C. 20 Hz D. 30 Hz share/E9/9-6A20000664000175000017500000000053212527206475011242 0ustar jtnjtn9-6A2 A What is the modulation index? A. The maximum carrier deviation divided by the maximum modulation frequency. B. The maximum modulation frequency divided by the maximum carrier frequency. C. The maximum carrier deviation multiplied by the maximum carrier frequency. D. The maximum carrier deviation divided by the amount of pre-emphasis. share/E9/9-1A40000664000175000017500000000016712527206475011243 0ustar jtnjtn9-1A4 D What is the allowed frequency tolerance for the DSC carrier frequencies? A. 10 Hz B. 20 Hz C. 5 ppm D. 10 ppm share/E9/9-8A40000664000175000017500000000041412527206475011245 0ustar jtnjtn9-8A4 A Which in-line RF power reading indicates the proper operation of a VHF marine transmitter? A. 25 watts forward/1.5 watts reflected. B. 25 watts forward/25 watts reflected. C. 27.5 watts forward/1.5 watts reflected. D. 2.5 watts forward/1.5 watts reflected. share/E9/9-27C40000664000175000017500000000057412527206476011340 0ustar jtnjtn9-27C4 B What is the configuration for Thrane & Thrane F250 & F500 facsimile operation? A. Fax - Group 3 fax via standard voice channel for analog fax applications. B. Fax - Group 3 fax via 3.1 kHz audio channel for analog fax applications. C. Fax - Group 5 fax via 5.1 kHz audio channel for efax applications. D. Fax - Group 3 fax via ISDN channel for analog fax applications. share/E9/9-42F40000664000175000017500000000067712527206477011345 0ustar jtnjtn9-42F4 C What initial steps should be taken when installing a router? A. Connect the router to your computer and boot up the router with the setup software. B. Open web browser, access the internet, enter username and password and download instructions. C. Open web browser, enter router's address for network admin and enter username and password. D. Connect the router to your computer and enter the addresses for all stations in the system. share/E9/9-40E30000664000175000017500000000132412527206477011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-40E3 D What is the configuration for a mains operated switching power supply with output regulation? A. Input rectifier and filter, Inverter (chopper), output transformer, feedback loop to a chopper controller and inverter and output rectifier and filter to DC output. B. Line, Inverter (chopper), input rectifier and filter, output transformer, output rectifier and filter to DC output. C. Input rectifier and filter, output transformer, output rectifier and filter to DC output with feedback loop to the input followed by the chopper controller. D. Input rectifier and filter, Inverter (chopper), output transformer, output rectifier and filter to DC output with feedback loop to a chopper controller and the inverter. share/E9/9-27C20000664000175000017500000000053312527206476011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-27C2 D When is a PIN Unlock Key (PUK) used with an Inmarsat terminal? A. To place a credit card telephone call via the Inmarsat terminal. B. To input the Personal Identification Number (PIN) applied to a telephone extension. C. To override a long distance block on an Inmarsat terminal. D. To unlock the SIM card in a Fleet broadband terminal. share/E9/9-17B60000664000175000017500000000113612527206476011333 0ustar jtnjtn9-17B6 B Which would indicate proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 Watt PEP output in J3E mode? A. In SITOR communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. B. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, no power output is indicated. C. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes the power meter to fluctuate well above the 60 watt reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. share/E9/9-23C20000664000175000017500000000017012527206476011322 0ustar jtnjtn9-23C2 D What is an LNA? A. Line noise amplifier B. Low number algorithm C. Low noise antenna D. Low noise amplifier share/E9/9-29C10000664000175000017500000000054212527206476011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-29C1 A Which of the following best describes the polarization of a satellite signal? A. The orientation of the RF signal's electric field component. B. The orientation of the RF signal relative to a dipole antenna. C. The orientation of the RF signal relative to a parabolic antenna. D. The orientation of the RF signal's magnetic field component. share/E9/9-31C30000664000175000017500000000051012527206477011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-31C3 A An Inmarsat-C terminal will not "LOG IN" and shows an "Antenna not connected" alarm. What action would you take? A. Short one end of coax cable. If the resistance is above one ohm replace the cable. B. Change to a different satellite and try a new "LOG IN". C. Replace the antenna unit. D. Replace the AZ-EL board. share/E9/9-12B10000664000175000017500000000042212527206476011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-12B1 B What is the purpose of the "R.I.T." control on a MF/HF transceiver? A. Make slight adjustments to the transmit frequency. B. Make slight adjustments in the receiver frequency. C. Select the proper transmitter emissions. D. Select the proper paired duplex channel. share/E9/9-28C30000664000175000017500000000032512527206476011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-28C3 D How is the GPS usually interconnected with other bridge equipment? A. Through a 8-bit parallel line network. B. Through a USB port. C. Through an Ethernet LAN. D. Through a NMEA-0183 or NMEA-2000 LAN. share/E9/9-1A20000664000175000017500000000023012527206475011230 0ustar jtnjtn9-1A2 B What is the frequency separation between Transmit and Receive frequencies on a duplex channel? A. 2.8 MHz B. 4.6 MHz C. 6.4 MHz D. 10.7 MHz share/E9/9-4A10000664000175000017500000000105212527206475011235 0ustar jtnjtn9-4A1 B What condition may prevent a VHF radio receiver from staying tuned to the desired channel? A. The local oscillator frequency is beating against the incoming signal to produce an Intermediate Frequency (IF). B. The output signal of the Phase Locked Loop (PLL) circuit in the frequency synthesizer has become unlocked. C. The discriminator circuit is alternately developing positive and negative voltages at the modulation frequency. D. The ratio detector circuit is producing a variable output that deviates across the receiver's dynamic range. share/E9/9-37E10000664000175000017500000000017212527206477011333 0ustar jtnjtn9-37E1 A What is the normal voltage of a single NICAD battery cell? A. 1.2 volts B. 1.5 volts C. 2.1 volts D. 2.5 volts share/E9/9-49G20000664000175000017500000000043312527206477011341 0ustar jtnjtn9-49G2 B A 4 digit multi-meter with an accuracy of 0.15% and 2 counts is set on the 60 volt scale. What range of readings may be expected when measuring a 24 volt DC source? A. 23.74 to 24.52 volts DC B. 23.62 to 24.38 volts DC C. 23.56 to 24.28 volts DC D. 23.42 to 24.52 volts DC share/E9/9-26C10000664000175000017500000000062012527206476011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-26C1 D Which of the following Inmarsat units stores configuration data and contains all user interfaces and LED indicators? A. Main Control Unit - an element of the Pedestal Control Assembly. B. Master Communications Unit - an element of the antenna control unit. C. Master Communications Unit - an element of the RF transceiver. D. Fleet Broadband terminal - a component of below deck equipment. share/E9/9-2A30000664000175000017500000000050712527206475011241 0ustar jtnjtn9-2A3 B What is the purpose of the Dual Watch function? A. Allows simultaneous reception on two different channels. B. To rapidly switch the radio's receiver between two channels. C. Allows reception and transmission at the same time. D. It allows you to monitor both sides of a public correspondence station's communication. share/E9/9-27C30000664000175000017500000000056512527206476011337 0ustar jtnjtn9-27C3 A Which of the following is NOT a function of the LAN port on a Fleet Broadband terminal? A. To provide connectivity to an ISDN telephone handset. B. To provide IP connectivity for terminal configuration and troubleshooting. C. To provide connectivity for Internet browsing with a computer. D. To provide connectivity for a Voice Over IP (VOIP) telephone Handset. share/E9/9-43F20000664000175000017500000000026512527206477011335 0ustar jtnjtn9-43F2 D what is the maximum signal voltage range that an NMEA-0183 unit must be capable of handling without damage? A. +/- 5 volts B. +/- 10 volts C. +/- 12 volts D. +/- 15 volts share/E9/9-29C20000664000175000017500000000044412527206476011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-29C2 B Which of the following is characteristic of the parabolic dish antenna? A. Feedhorn located behind the parabolic reflector. B. Feedhorn adjusted to the focal point of the antenna. C. Most often used on high frequencies (3-30 MHz). D. Low gain, highly directional radiation pattern. share/E9/9-16B40000664000175000017500000000101012527206476011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-16B4 A What is the most common method of generating a SITOR (NBDP) signal on shipboard GMDSS equipment? A. Two alternating sidebands of 1615 Hz and 1785 Hz are offset from the carrier frequency by 1700 Hz. B. The carrier frequency is alternately shifted from + 85 Hz to - 85 Hz while suppressing the sidebands. C. There is one 1500 Hz sideband which is shifted from +170 Hz to - 170 Hz with a suppressed carrier. D. Two alternating sidebands of 1500 Hz and 2300 Hz are offset from the carrier frequency by 1900 Hz. share/E9/9-20B60000664000175000017500000000023612527206476011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-20B6 A What are the characters that are transmitted to terminate a direct TELEX connection in SITOR (NBDP) operations? A. KKKK B. . . . . . C. END+ D. EOM share/E9/9-25C60000664000175000017500000000014712527206476011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-25C6 B What satellite system does not support LRIT? A. Inmarsat-C B. GPS C. IRIDIUM D. Inmarsat-D+ share/E9/9-23C10000664000175000017500000000056212527206476011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-23C1 C What are the frequencies for Inmarsat-C shipboard satellite operation? A. Reception: 1526.5 - 1560.5 MHz and Transmission: 1625.0 - 1659.0 MHz B. Reception: 1625.0 - 1659.0 MHz and Transmission: 1526.5 - 1560.5 MHz C. Reception: 1530.0 - 1545.0 MHZ and Transmission: 1626.5 - 1645.5 MHz D. Reception: 1625.0 - 1659.0 MHz and Transmission: 1526.5 - 1560.5 MHz share/E9/9-23C30000664000175000017500000000034412527206476011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-23C3 A What function does the LNA perform? A. Receives and amplifies a very weak signal from the satellite. B. Calculates data received. C. Increases the receiver's noise figure. D. Provides degenerative feedback to the LNB. share/E9/9-46F50000664000175000017500000000050612527206477011341 0ustar jtnjtn9-46F5 C Which of the following is not an accurate list of functions/data recorded by the Vessel Data Recorder? A. Position, Date, Time and Speed. B. Heading, VHF radio communications, Position and Depth of water. C. Heading, Depth of water, EGC data and Radar. D. Depth of water, Audio from the bridge, Speed and Position. share/E9/9-25C10000664000175000017500000000047212527206476011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-25C1 A The U.S. National Data Center that monitors polling input for each US Flag ship: A. Must receive at least 4 position reports daily. B. Must receive LRIT position reports each hour. C. Must receive at least 1 position report daily including the number of crew aboard. D. Is a double check on AIS output. share/E9/9-32C20000664000175000017500000000064012527206477011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-32C2 C What condition would cause failure of an Inmarsat-C terminal to power up when AC voltage is present at the input terminals of the power supply? A. A defective coaxial cable connecting the terminal to the antenna. B. The failure of an I.F. amplifier stage in the terminal's receiver. C. A component failure within the power supply itself. D. A defective video monitor connected to the Inmarsat-C terminal. share/E9/9-19B50000664000175000017500000000067512527206476011343 0ustar jtnjtn9-19B5 B A MF/HF Distress priority DSC call may be formatted to include the following: A. MMSI, vessel position, nature of distress, follow-on communications by J3E only. B. MMSI, vessel position, nature of distress, follow-on communications by J3E or F1B. C. Call sign, vessel position, nature of distress, follow-on communications by J3E or F1B. D. Name of vessel, vessel position, nature of distress, follow-on communications by J3E or F1B. share/E9/9-12B60000664000175000017500000000051012527206476011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-12B6 A What is the function of an "AGC" button? A. To maintain a relatively constant AF output when the input signal varies. B. To reduce AF output when the input signal becomes weak. C. To increase the gain of the RF amplifier when the input signal is strong. D. To increase RF output when the input signal becomes strong. share/E9/9-26C20000664000175000017500000000033712527206476011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-26C2 A Which of the following is not a function of an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband IP handset? A. Polling and Data Reporting. B. Voice over IP telephone calls. C. Displaying terminal status. D. Changing terminal parameters. share/E9/9-41F60000664000175000017500000000052712527206477011340 0ustar jtnjtn9-41F6 B What are important considerations when replacing a CD-ROM drive? A. The speed must be identical to the drive it is replacing. B. The replacement drive should use the same interface system as the old drive. C. The amount of RAM in the replacement unit must match the old drive. D. The rate of data transfer must match the old drive. share/E9/9-9A40000664000175000017500000000101412527206475011243 0ustar jtnjtn9-9A4 D You attempt to program a new MMSI into a VHF radio with an existing MMSI. The radio will not accept the entry. What is the best course of action to correct this problem? A. You must RESET the DSC memory by holding down two buttons as described in the user manual. B. You can never change a number, once one is already programmed. C. Re-register the old MMSI with the new owner and make no programming changes to the radio. D. Contact the manufacturer for action to clear the MMSI memory and accept the new number. share/E9/9-14B10000664000175000017500000000040512527206476011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-14B1 D The voice is garbled and unreadable on MF/HF SSB channels. What is the most likely cause? A. The R.I.T circuit has failed. B. The first RF stage has failed. C. The frequency synthesizer has failed. D. The beat frequency oscillator circuit has failed. share/E9/9-21B10000664000175000017500000000064712527206476011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-21B1 A If a vessel is within range of NAVTEX broadcasts and both the Inmarsat-C and the NAVTEX receiver are inoperative the GMDSS operator should: A. Select 518 kHz FEC TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. B. Select 518 kHz ARQ TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. C. Request repairs of the Sat-C system and wait until within range of NAVTEX. D. Select an HF MSI frequency and ARQ TELEX mode to receive MSI. share/E9/9-46F60000664000175000017500000000061212527206477011340 0ustar jtnjtn9-46F6 D Which of the following statements about Vessel Data Recorders is NOT true? A. The "Crash Survivable Module" (CSM) retains data for up to 12 hours. B. The "Data Acquisition Unit" (DAU) may have data storage for as long as 30 days. C. Data input may include Rudder feedback, Depth of water and Radar. D. Data input may include Position, Date, MSI information and Audio from the bridge. share/E9/9-6A40000664000175000017500000000031312527206475011241 0ustar jtnjtn9-6A4 C A modulation index set to less than 1 to 1 may result in what? A. Excessive deviation B. Unstable signal excursions C. Unusually low level transmit audio D. Unusually high pitch audio response share/E9/9-16B30000664000175000017500000000051012527206476011322 0ustar jtnjtn9-16B3 D How is the lower sideband eliminated? A. By using a double balanced mixer to block the lower sideband. B. By using a filter to pass the lower sideband and block the upper sideband. C. By using a double balanced mixer to insert the carrier. D. By using a filter to pass the upper sideband and block the lower sideband. share/E9/9-36D50000664000175000017500000000037112527206477011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-36D5 D How is accuracy insured in NAVTEX broadcasts? A. A parity check character is sent at the end of each line. B. Each message is retransmitted. C. Selective FEC is used to prevent errors. D. Each character is sent twice with a time interval. share/E9/9-47G20000664000175000017500000000053612527206477011343 0ustar jtnjtn9-47G2 D What is the most important consideration for installing a Full-Duplex VHF radiotelephone. A. Maximum separation between the transmitter and receiver. B. Minimum separation between transmitting antennas. C. Maximum separation between transmitting antennas. D. Maximum separation between transmitting antenna and the duplex receiver antenna. share/E9/9-45F40000664000175000017500000000076012527206477011341 0ustar jtnjtn9-45F4 D What are the principles of operation of a fiber-optic gyro compass? A. A fiber-optic coil and three accelerometers determine the speed of rotation of the earth. B. Two fiber-optic coils with one accelerometer and a level sensor determine the direction of true north. C. Three fiber-optic coils with a dual accelerometer and a yaw detector determines the direction of true north. D. Three fiber-optic coils and a dual-axis electronic level sensor determine the direction of true north. share/E9/9-33D40000664000175000017500000000032512527206477011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-33D4 D What feature is not a component of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. 121.5 MHz emergency homing transmitter. B. Emergency transmission on 406.025 MHz. C. Float-free release bracket. D. Aural locator signal. share/E9/9-47G10000664000175000017500000000052012527206477011333 0ustar jtnjtn9-47G1 C What is the best method for grounding an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. Number 10 copper wire between terminal and the ship/s steel hull. B. A good ground at the antenna is sufficient. C. Copper strap brazed to the steel terminal and ship's steel hull. D. An aluminum strap bolted to both the steel terminal and ship's steel hull. share/E9/9-22B20000664000175000017500000000054312527206476011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-22B2 A What is the electrical effect of an inductance in series with the antenna? A. It electrically lengthens a physically fixed length antenna. B. It electrically shortens a physically fixed length antenna. C. It raises the resonant frequency of a physically fixed length antenna. D. It increases the bandwidth of a physically fixed length antenna. share/E9/9-41F30000664000175000017500000000047012527206477011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-41F3 C What are the four main functions of the "BIOS" in most computers? A. BIOS Drivers, Bootstrap Loader, Printer Driver and BIOS Setup. B. CPU Setup, Disc Partition, USB driver and BIOS Setup. C. P.O.S.T., Bootstrap Loader, BIOS Drivers and BIOS Setup. D. BIOS Setup, P.O.S.T., CPU Setup and RAM Setup. share/E9/9-47G60000664000175000017500000000045312527206477011345 0ustar jtnjtn9-47G6 C What action must be taken after an Inmarsat-C system is fully installed? A. Advise the nearest RCC that your terminal is active. B. Send a distress alert and then cancel it. C. Your Inmarsat Mobile Number must be entered in the terminal. D. Send a brief test message to your own terminal. share/E9/9-33D50000664000175000017500000000021312527206477011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-33D5 A How often must the automatic release mechanism be replaced. A. Every 2 years B. Every 3 years C. Every 5 years D. Every 8 years share/E9/9-36D40000664000175000017500000000050712527206477011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-36D4 A How can reception of certain NAVTEX broadcasts be prevented? A. The receiver can be programmed to reject certain stations and message categories. B. Stations are limited to daytime operation only. C. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. D. Automatic receiver desensitization during night hours. share/E9/9-18B20000664000175000017500000000103612527206476011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-18B2 A Which of the following conditions indicate the proper operation of a 250 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B FEC mode? A. The RF power meter indicates constant output at a level between 225 watts and 250 watts during transmission. B. The RF power meter indicates power output only when characters are typed on the NBDP keyboard. C. The RF "S" meter indicates a signal level between 225 watts and 250 watts during NBDP reception. D. The RF power meter indicates an output that fluctuates between 0 and 250 watts during transmission. share/E9/9-1A50000664000175000017500000000050312527206475011236 0ustar jtnjtn9-1A5 A Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 2 ppm, which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 156.800 MHz and 156.525 MHz? A. 156,798.758 kHz and 156.526.243 kHz. B. 156,798.735 kHz and 156,526.258 kHz. C. 156,801.567 kHz and 156,526.476 kHz. D. 156,798.635 kHz and 156,523.352 kHz share/E9/9-23C40000664000175000017500000000060112527206476011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-23C4 B What is the fade margin factor? A. A design allowance that provides for the sun to accommodate expected fading for the purpose of ensuring that the required quality of service is maintained. B. A design allowance to accommodate expected fading. C. The increase in fade over a receiver's noise floor. D. The ratio between the largest and smallest values of a received signal. share/E9/9-13B10000664000175000017500000000043712527206476011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-13B1 A What is the purpose of the BFO? A. Re-injects the carrier frequency in the receiver's detector to demodulate the SSB signal. B. Replace the missing sideband and carrier frequency. C. Remove the carrier from H3E transmissions. D. Inverts the SSB signal to remove interference. share/E9/9-21B30000664000175000017500000000076712527206476011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-21B3 C Selective FEC communications (SFEC) are employed when: A. Multiple stations without a group SELCALL must receive communications without using their transmitters. B. Multiple stations must receive communications by using their transmitters to achieve phasing. C. An individual station must receive communications without transmitting (Radio Silence). D. An individual station must receive communications by using their transmitter to achieve phasing and block other stations from breaking in. share/E9/9-11B20000664000175000017500000000027212527206476011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-11B2 D What is the assigned bandwidth and channel spacing for J2B SITOR (NBDP) transmissions? A. 3.1 kHz and 4.0 kHz B. 2.8 kHz and 3.0 kHz C. 170 Hz and 300 Hz D. 300 Hz and 500 Hz share/E9/9-44F40000664000175000017500000000014412527206477011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-44F4 A The NMEA 2000 backbone operating speed is: A. 250 bps B. 500 bps C. 1500 bps D. 2000 bps share/E9/9-5A50000664000175000017500000000066712527206475011255 0ustar jtnjtn9-5A5 A What condition may indicate a VHF receiver fault? A. The same voltage reading between each lead of a 100K-ohm resistor and ground in a bias circuit. B. A "click" is heard when an ohmmeter set to R X 1 is touched across loudspeaker terminals. C. A voltage drop across the leads of a 47K ohm resistor in an intermediate frequency amplifier stage. D. The presence of an AC signal on the output of an audio frequency amplifier stage. share/E9/9-13B30000664000175000017500000000056612527206476011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-13B3 C If you are listening to another vessel's HF transmission and it sounds garbled what should you do? A. Change the receive frequency to either adjacent channel. B. Advise the other vessel that his transmission is faulty. C. Use the "R.I.T." or "Clarifier" control to adjust the frequency of the receiver. D. Adjust the squelch control to clear up the sound quality. share/E9/9-39E20000664000175000017500000000123012527206477011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-39E2 D Which of the following statements concerning power supply filters is true? A. A capacitor input has high output voltage, good voltage regulation, low rectifier peak currents and low transformer utilization factor. B. A capacitor input has low output voltage, poor voltage regulation, high rectifier peak currents and low transformer utilization factor. C. An Inductive input has poor voltage regulation, low transformer utilization factor, high rectifier peak currents and relative low output voltage. D. An Inductive input has good voltage regulation, high transformer utilization factor, low rectifier peak currents and relatively low output voltage. share/E9/9-31C50000664000175000017500000000046112527206477011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-31C5 B The antenna creeps up and down after initialization. What action would you take? A. Check AZ step motor with power off. If it is stiff replace the motor. B. Check EL step motor with power off. If it is stiff replace the motor. C. Replace the platform sensor. D. Replace the gyro repeater motor. share/E9/9-45F60000664000175000017500000000060512527206477011341 0ustar jtnjtn9-45F6 B AIS units use the following: A. VHF channels 65B ( 160.875 MHz) and 66B ( 160.925 MHz) and 9.6 kbs GMSK modulation. B. VHF channels 87B (161.975 MHz) and 88B (162.025 MHz) and 9.6 kbs GMSK modulation. C. VHF channels 16 ( 158.800 MHz) and 70 ( 156.525 MHz) and 4.8 kbs GMSK modulation. D. VHF channels 18B ( 161.500 MHz) and 19B ( 161.550 MHz) and 4.8 kbs GMSK modulation. share/E9/9-33D60000664000175000017500000000063412527206477011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-33D6 B Which of the following is normally part of 406 MHz satellite EPIRBs? A. A strobe light, automatic float-free bracket, 1-watt 406-MHz alert beacon. B. A 5-watt 406-MHz alert beacon, Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), strobe light. C. Automatic float-free bracket, 5-watt 121.5 MHz homing beacon, strobe light. D. Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), 1-watt 121.5 MHz alerting beacon, strobe light. share/E9/9-44F60000664000175000017500000000020712527206477011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-44F6 A What is the maximum length for a drop cable to a single NMEA 2000 device? A. 6 meters B. 12 meters C. 18 meters D. 24 meters share/E9/9-11B10000664000175000017500000000026212527206476011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-11B1 C What is the assigned bandwidth and channel spacing for J3E voice transmissions? A. 170 Hz and 300 Hz B. 300 Hz and 500 Hz C. 2.8 kHz and 3.0 kHz D. 3.1 kHz and 4.0 kHz share/E9/9-46F30000664000175000017500000000020612527206477011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-46F3 B Which of the following is a necessary component of an auto pilot? A. GPS B. Rudder feedback unit C. Engine RPM data D. SSAS share/E9/9-13B60000664000175000017500000000057112527206476011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-13B6 B How does a noise blanker circuit work in a HF receiver? A. A limiter circuit clips the peaks of the noise pulses. B. The noise pulses are used to develop a blanking pulse for the I.F. amplifier. C. The noise pulses operate on the ratio detector to blank the audio output. D. A Noise blanker briefly reduces the gain of the RF amplifier when the noise pulses occur. share/E9/9-9A60000664000175000017500000000041212527206475011246 0ustar jtnjtn9-9A6 B What might a voltmeter indicate when testing a DSC circuit for an outgoing message data stream? A. Steady reading of 12 volts DC. B. Fluctuating reading from 0 to 2 volts DC. C. There will be an absence of voltage. D. Voltage swing from -12 VDC to +12 VDC. share/E9/9-43F10000664000175000017500000000024612527206477011333 0ustar jtnjtn9-43F1 C A typical PC program that is used widely for logging and troubleshooting NMEA 0183 data is: A. Excel B. Windows Explorer C. HyperTerminal D. Microsoft Word share/E9/9-49G50000664000175000017500000000045112527206477011344 0ustar jtnjtn9-49G5 A The characteristics of a 10:1 attenuation probe for an oscilloscope is as follows: A. A load of about 10 megohms shunted by 12 pF. B. A load of about 20 megohms shunted by a 12 mH coil. C. A load of about 5 megohms shunted by 6 pF. D. A load of about 5 megohms shunted by a 6 mH coil. share/E9/9-4A60000664000175000017500000000103312527206475011241 0ustar jtnjtn9-4A6 A Which of the following is the best test procedure to isolate the source of distortion in the audio output of a receiver? A. Use an oscilloscope to visually display AC signals on the output of each AF amplifier stage. B. Use a spectrum analyzer to visually display the amplitude and frequency of each AF amplifier stage input. C. Use a signal generator to inject a 1 KHz signal into the first AF amplifier stage and evaluate audio output. D. Use a digital voltmeter to measure transistor bias voltages in each AF amplifier stage. share/E9/9-30C40000664000175000017500000000073212527206476011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-30C4 C What condition can indicate a communication failure between the second receiver (RX2) and the Antenna Control Unit (ACU) in an Inmarsat Fleet 77 terminal? A. The terminal will indicate RX2 is locked onto a signal on the Inmarsat NCSC channel. B. The terminal will indicate receipt of a valid frame on the Inmarsat NCSC channel. C. The message "RX2 Comm error" or "ACU Comm error" will be displayed. D. The DCE/DTE communication protocol is improperly configured. share/E9/9-9A20000664000175000017500000000027112527206475011245 0ustar jtnjtn9-9A2 B What is the correct modulation rate and index of modulation for VHF-DSC? A. 800 baud, 3.0 +/- 10% B. 1200 baud, 2.0 +/- 10% C. 1500 baud, 2.0 +/- 5% D. 1800 baud, 3.0 +/- 5% share/E9/9-17B40000664000175000017500000000052512527206476011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-17B4 D An MF-HF transceiver is functioning correctly in voice mode/SSB but not in SITOR (NBDP). What is the most likely source of the problem? A. The second I.F. amplifier has become defective. B. The voltage controlled oscillator is defective. C. The 2.8 kHz filter has become defective. D. The 1615 kHz audio oscillator is not working. share/E9/9-29C30000664000175000017500000000056712527206476011343 0ustar jtnjtn9-29C3 C Which of the following best describes a phased array antenna system? A. RF from the feedline array is dissipated by a single antenna element. B. RF from a multiple feedline array is dissipated by a single antenna element. C. RF from multiple antennas is varied to produce a desired radiation pattern. D. RF from multiple antennas is combined to produce unity gain. share/E9/9-15B60000664000175000017500000000060712527206476011333 0ustar jtnjtn9-15B6 C A received signal on a MF/HF transceiver breaks up rapidly and repeatedly. The signal alternates between mid scale and zero on the "Signal" meter. What is the most likely cause? A. Intermittent gain in the AF amplifier circuit. B. The squelch sensitivity control is set too high. C. An intermittent connection between the antenna and coupler. D. The AGC circuit has malfunctioned. share/E9/9-49G10000664000175000017500000000042112527206477011335 0ustar jtnjtn9-49G1 A A 4 digit multi-meter with an accuracy of 0.15% and 2 counts is set on the 6 volt scale. What range of readings may be expected when measuring a 5 volt DC source? A. 4.99 to 5.01 volts DC B. 4.98 to 5.02 volts DC C. 4.97 to 5.02 volts DC D. 4.95 to 5.05 volts DC share/E9/9-12B20000664000175000017500000000037112527206476011322 0ustar jtnjtn9-12B2 C What is the function of the "TUNE" button on a MF/HF transceiver? A. To tune in a new ITU channel. B. To tune the frequency of the receiver. C. To tune the antenna to the transmit frequency. D. To tune the frequency of the AF amplifier. share/E9/9-44F10000664000175000017500000000027512527206477011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-44F1 B The Voltage of the NMEA 2000 backbone power supply pair must be maintained to within the following range. A. 0 to 5 volts B. 9 to 16 volts C. 10.5 to 13.6 volts D. 12 to 24 volts share/E9/9-45F30000664000175000017500000000026112527206477011334 0ustar jtnjtn9-45F3 C What is the purpose of the "carbon pile" on an older gyro compass? A. Ballast regulation B. Precession control C. Voltage regulation D. Prevent pendulum effect errors share/E1/0000775000175000017500000000000012527145216010604 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E1/1-17C30000664000175000017500000000030612527145216011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C3 A Under GMDSS, a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at sea? A. Daily. B. Annually, by a representative of the FCC. C. Weekly. D. Monthly. share/E1/1-15C50000664000175000017500000000050312527145216011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C5 B To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a TELEX call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR operations. B. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. C. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether ARQ or FEC is preferred. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-15C60000664000175000017500000000051112527145216011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C6 A What is the purpose of the Receiver Incremental Tuning (RIT) or "Clarifier" control? A. It acts as a "fine-tune" control on the receive frequency. B. It acts as a "fine-tune" control on the transmitted frequency. C. It acts as a "fine-tune" control on both the receive and transmitted frequencies. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-22D50000664000175000017500000000061612527145216011304 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D5 C At what point does a SART begin transmitting? A. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the "on" position. B. It must be manually activated. C. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz RADAR signal. D. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in water. share/E1/1-7B60000664000175000017500000000036012527145215011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B6 C The primary purpose of bridge-to-bridge communications is: A. Search and rescue emergency calls only. B. All short-range transmission aboard ship. C. Navigational communications. D. Transmission of Captain's orders from the bridge. share/E1/1-3A30000664000175000017500000000023412527145215011211 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A3 D What channel must all compulsory, non-GMDSS vessels monitor at all times in the open sea? A. Channel 8. B. Channel 70. C. Channel 6. D. Channel 16. share/E1/1-20D30000664000175000017500000000055612527145216011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D3 B Which of the following terms is defined as a back-up power source that provides power to radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications when the vessel's main and emergency generators cannot? A. Emergency Diesel Generator. B. Reserve Source of Energy. C. Reserve Source of Diesel Power. D. Emergency Back-up Generator. share/E1/1-8B60000664000175000017500000000037512527145215011230 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B6 B What is the priority of communications? A. Safety, Distress, Urgency and radio direction-finding. B. Distress, Urgency and Safety. C. Distress, Safety, radio direction-finding, search and rescue. D. Radio direction-finding, Distress and Safety. share/E1/1-14C50000664000175000017500000000020212527145216011273 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C5 B Which channel would most likely be used for routine ship-to-ship voice traffic? A. Ch-16. B. Ch-08. C. Ch-70. D. Ch-22A. share/E1/1-16C10000664000175000017500000000074212527145216011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C1 B On what frequency would a vessel normally call another ship station when using a radiotelephony emission? A. Only on 2182 kHz in ITU Region 2. B. On 2182 kHz or Ch-16, unless the station knows that the called vessel maintains a simultaneous watch on another intership working frequency. C. On the appropriate calling channel of the ship station at 15 minutes past the hour. D. On the vessel's unique working radio channel assigned by the Federal Communications Commission. share/E1/1-4A10000664000175000017500000000057612527145215011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A1 B Who is required to make entries in a required service or maintenance log? A. The licensed operator or a person whom he or she designates. B. The operator responsible for the station operation or maintenance. C. Any commercial radio operator holding at least a Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit. D. The technician who actually makes the adjustments to the equipment. share/E1/1-18C40000664000175000017500000000067112527145216011310 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C4 A What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system? A. A constant 30 volt reading on the GMDSS console voltmeter. B. After testing the station on battery power, the ammeter reading indicates a high rate of charge that then declines. C. After testing the station on battery power, a voltmeter reading of 30 volts for brief period followed by a steady 26 volt reading. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-22D20000664000175000017500000000042012527145216011272 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D2 C How should the signal from a Search And Rescue Radar Transponder appear on a RADAR display? A. A series of dashes. B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART. C. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. D. A series of twenty dashes. share/E1/1-6A30000664000175000017500000000062312527145215011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A3 C Where do you make an application for inspection of a ship GMDSS radio station? A. To a Commercial Operator Licensing Examination Manager (COLE Manager). B. To the Federal Communications Commission, Washington, DC 20554. C. To the Engineer-in-Charge of the FCC District Office nearest the proposed place of inspection. D. To an FCC-licensed technician holding a GMDSS Radio Maintainer's License. share/E1/1-3A20000664000175000017500000000046312527145215011214 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A2 A All compulsory equipped cargo ships (except those operating under GMDSS regulations or in a VTS) while being navigated outside of a harbor or port, shall keep a continuous radiotelephone watch on: A. 2182 kHz and Ch-16. B. 2182 kHz. C. Ch-16. D. Cargo ships are exempt from radio watch regulations. share/E1/1-11B20000664000175000017500000000046412527145215011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B2 B What is the internationally recognized Urgency signal? A. The letters "TTT" transmitted three times by radiotelegraphy. B. The words "PAN PAN" spoken three times before the Urgency call. C. Three oral repetitions of the word "Safety" sent before the call. D. The pronouncement of the word "Mayday." share/E1/1-13C10000664000175000017500000000066412527145216011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C1 C What is the purpose of the INT-USA control settings on a VHF? A. To change all VTS frequencies to Duplex so all vessels can receive maneuvering orders. B. To change all VHF channels from Duplex to Simplex while in U.S. waters. C. To change certain International Duplex channel assignments to simplex in the U.S. for VTS and other purposes. D. To change to NOAA weather channels and receive weather broadcasts while in the U.S. share/E1/1-8B40000664000175000017500000000106012527145215011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B4 A What is required of a ship station which has established initial contact with another station on 2182 kHz or Ch-16? A. The stations must change to an authorized working frequency for the transmission of messages. B. The stations must check the radio channel for Distress, Urgency and Safety calls at least once every ten minutes. C. Radiated power must be minimized so as not to interfere with other stations needing to use the channel. D. To expedite safety communications, the vessels must observe radio silence for two out of every fifteen minutes. share/E1/1-16C20000664000175000017500000000017512527145216011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C2 C What is the MF radiotelephony calling and Distress frequency? A. 2670 kHz. B. Ch-06 VHF. C. 2182 kHz. D. Ch-22 VHF. share/E1/1-6A60000664000175000017500000000061612527145215011223 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A6 D By international agreement, which ships must carry radio equipment for the safety of life at sea? A. All ships traveling more than 100 miles out to sea. B. Cargo ships of more than 100 gross tons and passenger vessels on international deep-sea voyages. C. All cargo ships of more than 100 gross tons. D. Cargo ships of more than 300 gross tons and vessels carrying more than 12 passengers. share/E1/1-2A20000664000175000017500000000075412527145215011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A2 C When is a Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher license required for aircraft communications? A. When operating on frequencies below 30 MHz allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. B. When operating on frequencies above 30 MHz allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. C. When operating on frequencies below 30 MHz not allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. D. When operating on frequencies above 30 MHz not assigned for international use. share/E1/1-12B50000664000175000017500000000117012527145215011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B5 C What is the responsibility of vessels under GMDSS? A. Vessels over 300 gross tons may be required to render assistance if such assistance does not adversely affect their port schedule. B. Only that vessel, regardless of size, closest to a vessel in Distress, is required to render assistance. C. Every ship is able to perform those communications functions that are essential for the Safety of the ship itself and of other ships. D. Vessels operating under GMDSS, outside of areas effectively serviced by shoreside authorities, operating in sea areas A2, and A4 may be required to render assistance in Distress situations. share/E1/1-17C60000664000175000017500000000044112527145216011304 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C6 C When may you test a radiotelephone transmitter on the air? A. Between midnight and 6:00 AM local time. B. Only when authorized by the Commission. C. At any time (except during silent periods) as necessary to assure proper operation. D. After reducing transmitter power to 1 watt. share/E1/1-21D20000664000175000017500000000045412527145216011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D2 B When are EPIRB batteries changed? A. After emergency use; after battery life expires. B. After emergency use or within the month and year replacement date printed on the EPIRB. C. After emergency use; every 12 months when not used. D. Whenever voltage drops to less than 20% of full charge. share/E1/1-13C20000664000175000017500000000022012527145215011266 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C2 A VHF ship station transmitters must have the capability of reducing carrier power to: A. 1 watt. B. 10 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 50 watts. share/E1/1-1A10000664000175000017500000000070312527145215011206 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A1 A What is a requirement of all marine transmitting apparatus used aboard United States vessels? A. Only equipment that has been certified by the FCC for Part 80 operations is authorized. B. Equipment must be type-accepted by the U.S. Coast Guard for maritime mobile use. C. Certification is required by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). D. Programming of all maritime channels must be performed by a licensed Marine Radio Operator. share/E1/1-24D30000664000175000017500000000040412527145216011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D3 A Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 518 kHz. B. 2187.5 kHz. C. 4209.5 kHz. D. VHF channel 16 when the vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2. share/E1/1-5A40000664000175000017500000000052212527145215011214 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A4 A Which of the following statements is true? A. Key letters or abbreviations may be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks if their meaning is noted in the log. B. Key letters or abbreviations may not be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks under any circumstances. C. All Urgency communications must be entered in the logbook. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-20D40000664000175000017500000000052312527145216011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D4 C In the event of failure of the main and emergency sources of electrical power, what is the term for the source required to supply the GMDSS console with power for conducting distress and other radio communications? A. Emergency power. B. Ship's emergency diesel generator. C. Reserve source of energy. D. Ship's standby generator share/E1/1-9B10000664000175000017500000000056212527145215011222 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B1 A Under what circumstances may a ship or aircraft station interfere with a public coast station? A. In cases of distress. B. Under no circumstances during on-going radiocommunications. C. During periods of government priority traffic handling. D. When it is necessary to transmit a message concerning the safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. share/E1/1-23D10000664000175000017500000000053312527145216011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D1 C Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 watts. C. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. share/E1/1-13C30000664000175000017500000000042012527145215011271 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C3 D The Dual Watch (DW) function is used to: A. Listen to Ch-70 at the same time while monitoring Ch-16. B. Sequentially monitor 4 different channels. C. Sequentially monitoring all VHF channels. D. Listen on any selected channel while periodically monitoring Ch-16. share/E1/1-17C50000664000175000017500000000046112527145216011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C5 A The best way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal is? A. Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal. B. Send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation. C. Send a message to another ship terminal. D. If the "Send" light flashes, proper operation has been confirmed. share/E1/1-22D40000664000175000017500000000070312527145216011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D4 D Which statement is true regarding the SART? A. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one S-band navigational RADAR system. B. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by another vessel's S-band navigational RADAR system. C. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one X-band navigational RADAR system. D. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by vessel's X-band navigational RADAR system. share/E1/1-17C20000664000175000017500000000027312527145216011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C2 D When testing is conducted on 2182 kHz or Ch-16, testing should not continue for more than ______ in any 5-minute period. A. 2 minutes. B. 1 minute. C. 30 seconds. D. 10 seconds. share/E1/1-6A10000664000175000017500000000077712527145215011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A1 B What regulations govern the use and operation of FCC-licensed ship stations in international waters? A. The regulations of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and Radio Officers Union. B. Part 80 of the FCC Rules plus the international Radio Regulations and agreements to which the United States is a party. C. The Maritime Mobile Directives of the International Telecommunication Union. D. Those of the FCC's Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, Maritime Mobile Service, Washington, DC 20554. share/E1/1-16C60000664000175000017500000000037612527145216011312 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C6 D For general communications purposes, simplex frequencies are: A. Normally used between ship stations and private coast stations. B. Normally used with public coast stations. C. Normally used between ship stations. D. Both a) and c) are correct. share/E1/1-7B40000664000175000017500000000032212527145215011215 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B4 D When is it legal to transmit high power on Channel 13? A. Failure of vessel being called to respond. B. In a blind situation such as rounding a bend in a river. C. During an emergency. D. All of these. share/E1/1-22D60000664000175000017500000000052512527145216011304 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D6 B How can a SART's effective range be maximized? A. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation. B. The SART should be held as high as possible. C. Switch the SART into the "high" power position. D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching RADAR signal. share/E1/1-7B30000664000175000017500000000046612527145215011225 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B3 A When may a bridge-to-bridge transmission be more than 1 watt? A. When broadcasting a distress message and rounding a bend in a river or traveling in a blind spot. B. When broadcasting a distress message. C. When rounding a bend in a river or traveling in a blind spot. D. When calling the Coast Guard. share/E1/1-11B50000664000175000017500000000017112527145215011273 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B5 B The Urgency signal has lower priority than: A. Ship-to-ship routine calls. B. Distress. C. Safety. D. Security. share/E1/1-11B30000664000175000017500000000055012527145215011272 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B3 A What is a Safety transmission? A. A communications transmission which indicates that a station is preparing to transmit an important navigation or weather warning. B. A radiotelephony warning preceded by the words "PAN PAN." C. Health and welfare traffic concerning the protection of human life. D. A voice call proceeded by the words "Safety Alert." share/E1/1-10B30000664000175000017500000000075612527145215011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B3 B What is a Distress communication? A. Communications indicating that the calling station has a very urgent message concerning safety. B. An internationally recognized communication indicating that the sender is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate assistance. C. Radio communications which, if delayed, will adversely affect the safety of life or property. D. An official radio communication notification of approaching navigational or meteorological hazards. share/E1/1-24D40000664000175000017500000000053612527145216011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D4 C What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system? A. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours. B. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. C. Programming the receiver to reject unwanted broadcasts. D. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours. share/E1/1-10B50000664000175000017500000000067212527145215011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B5 D The radiotelephone Distress call and message consists of: A. MAYDAY spoken three times, followed by the name of the vessel and the call sign in phonetics spoken three times. B. Particulars of its position, latitude and longitude, and other information which might facilitate rescue, such as length, color and type of vessel, and number of persons on board. C. Nature of distress and kind of assistance required. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-14C40000664000175000017500000000033312527145216011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C4 C Which channel is utilized for the required bridge-to-bridge watch? A. DSC on Ch-70. B. VHF-FM on Ch-16. C. VHF-FM on Ch-13 in most areas of the continental United States. D. The vessel's VHF working frequency. share/E1/1-4A20000664000175000017500000000043612527145215011215 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A2 D Who is responsible for the proper maintenance of station logs? A. The station licensee. B. The commercially-licensed radio operator in charge of the station. C. The ship's master and the station licensee. D. The station licensee and the radio operator in charge of the station. share/E1/1-5A50000664000175000017500000000071012527145215011214 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A5 B Which of the following logkeeping statements is true? A. Entries relating to pre-voyage, pre-departure and daily tests are required. B. Both a) and c) C. A summary of all required Distress communications heard and Urgency communications affecting the station's own ship. Also, all Safety communications (other than VHF) affecting the station's own ship must be logged. D. Routine daily MF-HF and Inmarsat-C transmissions do not have to be logged. share/E1/1-13C40000664000175000017500000000070212527145215011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C4 A Which of the following statements best describes the correct setting for manual adjustment of the squelch control? A. Adjust squelch control to the minimum level necessary to barely suppress any background noise. B. Always adjust squelch control to its maximum level. C. Always adjust squelch control to its minimum level. D. Adjust squelch control to approximately twice the minimum level necessary to barely suppress any background noise. share/E1/1-9B50000664000175000017500000000063012527145215011222 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B5 B On what frequency should a ship station normally call a coast station when using a radiotelephony emission? A. On a vacant radio channel determined by the licensed radio officer. B. Calls should be initiated on the appropriate ship-to-shore working frequency of the coast station. C. On any calling frequency internationally approved for use within ITU Region 2. D. On 2182 kHz or Ch-16 at any time. share/E1/1-20D60000664000175000017500000000101512527145216011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D6 A What is the meaning of "Reserve Source of Energy"? A. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship's main and emergency sources of electrical power. B. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. C. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements. D. None of these. share/E1/1-18C20000664000175000017500000000113212527145216011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C2 B Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output? A. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, power output is indicated. B. In SITOR communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. C. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes power meter to fluctuate slightly around the 60 watt reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF Power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. share/E1/1-15C10000664000175000017500000000025312527145216011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C1 D Which modes could be selected to receive vessel traffic lists from high seas shore stations? A. AM and VHF-FM. B. ARQ and FEC. C. VHF-FM and SSB. D. SSB and FEC. share/E1/1-12B10000664000175000017500000000077012527145215011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B1 D What is the fundamental concept of the GMDSS? A. It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques. B. It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost commercial communications. C. It is intended to provide compulsory vessels with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels. D. It is intended to automate and improve emergency communications in the maritime industry. share/E1/1-3A10000664000175000017500000000033312527145215011207 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A1 C Radio watches for compulsory radiotelephone stations will include the following: A. VHF channel 22a continuous watch at sea. B. 121.5 MHz continuous watch at sea. C. VHF channel 16 continuous watch. D. 500 kHz. share/E1/1-2A60000664000175000017500000000106512527145215011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A6 B What is a requirement of every commercial operator on duty and in charge of a transmitting system? A. A copy of the Proof-of-Passing Certificate (PPC) must be in the station's records. B. The original license or a photocopy must be posted or in the operator's personal possession and available for inspection. C. The FCC Form 605 certifying the operator's qualifications must be readily available at the transmitting system site. D. A copy of the operator's license must be supplied to the radio station's supervisor as evidence of technical qualification. share/E1/1-23D30000664000175000017500000000045012527145216011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D3 D With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate? A. Communication is permitted between survival craft. B. Communication is permitted between survival craft and ship. C. Communication is permitted between survival craft and rescue unit. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-3A40000664000175000017500000000024712527145215011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A4 A When a watch is required on 2182 kHz, at how many minutes past the hour must a 3 minute silent period be observed? A. 00, 30. B. 15, 45. C. 10, 40. D. 05, 35. share/E1/1-23D60000664000175000017500000000015512527145216011304 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D6 B What is the minimum power of the SCT A. Five watts. B. One watt. C. 1/4 watt. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-24D60000664000175000017500000000047612527145216011313 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D6 C What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations? A. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore. B. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime. C. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km). D. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km). share/E1/1-11B40000664000175000017500000000042512527145215011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B4 C The Urgency signal concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or person shall be sent only on the authority of: A. Master of ship. B. Person responsible for mobile station. C. Either Master of ship or person responsible for mobile station. D. An FCC-licensed operator. share/E1/1-10B40000664000175000017500000000073612527145215011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B4 C What is the order of priority of radiotelephone communications in the maritime services? A. Alarm and health and welfare communications. B. Navigation hazards, meteorological warnings, priority traffic. C. Distress calls and signals, followed by communications preceded by Urgency and Safety signals and all other communications. D. Government precedence, messages concerning safety of life and protection of property, and traffic concerning grave and imminent danger. share/E1/1-12B30000664000175000017500000000050612527145215011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B3 D What is the basic concept of GMDSS? A. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation with minimum delay. B. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a Distress situation. C. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress will be rapidly alerted. D. All of these. share/E1/1-1A40000664000175000017500000000026512527145215011214 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A4 C What equipment is programmed to initiate transmission of distress alerts and calls to individual stations? A. NAVTEX. B. GPS. C. DSC controller. D. Scanning Watch Receiver. share/E1/1-10B10000664000175000017500000000025412527145215011270 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B1 D What information must be included in a Distress message? A. Name of vessel. B. Location. C. Type of distress and specifics of help requested. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-23D20000664000175000017500000000042412527145216011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D2 A Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Operation on Ch-13. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. C. Simplex voice communications only. D. Operation on Ch-16. share/E1/1-14C30000664000175000017500000000020312527145216011272 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C3 A Which VHF channel is used only for digital selective calling? A. Channel 70. B. Channel 16. C. Channel 22A. D. Channel 6. share/E1/1-4A40000664000175000017500000000102112527145215011206 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A4 C What is the proper procedure for making a correction in the station log? A. The ship's master must be notified, approve and initial all changes to the station log. B. The mistake may be erased and the correction made and initialized only by the radio operator making the original error. C. The original person making the entry must strike out the error, initial the correction and indicate the date of the correction. D. Rewrite the new entry in its entirety directly below the incorrect notation and initial the change. share/E1/1-19D60000664000175000017500000000021212527145216011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D6 C A vertical whip antenna has a radiation pattern best described by? A. A figure eight. B. A cardioid. C. A circle. D. An ellipse. share/E1/1-5A30000664000175000017500000000025012527145215011211 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A3 C Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship? A. Captain's office. B. Sea cabin. C. At the GMDSS operating position. D. Anywhere on board the vessel. share/E1/1-15C30000664000175000017500000000053512527145216011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C3 C To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a voice call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR operations. B. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. C. Select J3E mode for proper voice operations. D. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether FEC or ARQ is preferred. share/E1/1-14C20000664000175000017500000000025712527145216011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C2 D What is the aircraft frequency and emission used for distress communications? A. 243.000 MHz - F3E. B. 121.500 MHz - F3E. C. 156.525 MHz - F1B. D. 121.500 MHz - A3E. share/E1/1-2A30000664000175000017500000000101212527145215011203 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A3 A Which of the following persons are ineligible to be issued a commercial radio operator license? A. Individuals who are unable to send and receive correctly by telephone spoken messages in English. B. Handicapped persons with uncorrected disabilities which affect their ability to perform all duties required of commercial radio operators. C. Foreign maritime radio operators unless they are certified by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). D. U.S. Military radio operators who are still on active duty. share/E1/1-1A20000664000175000017500000000073712527145215011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A2 B What transmitting equipment is authorized for use by a station in the maritime services? A. Transmitters that have been certified by the manufacturer for maritime use. B. Unless specifically excepted, only transmitters certified by the Federal Communications Commission for Part 80 operations. C. Equipment that has been inspected and approved by the U.S. Coast Guard. D. Transceivers and transmitters that meet all ITU specifications for use in maritime mobile service. share/E1/1-6A40000664000175000017500000000055412527145215011222 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A4 A Who has ultimate control of service at a ship's radio station? A. The master of the ship. B. A holder of a First Class Radiotelegraph Certificate with a six months' service endorsement. C. The Radio Officer-in-Charge authorized by the captain of the vessel. D. An appointed licensed radio operator who agrees to comply with all Radio Regulations in force. share/E1/1-2A40000664000175000017500000000102112527145215011204 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A4 D What are the radio operator requirements of a passenger ship equipped with a GMDSS installation? A. The operator must hold a General Radiotelephone Operator License or higher-class license. B. The operator must hold a Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit or higher-class license. C. The operator must hold a Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher-class license. D. Two operators on board must hold a GMDSS Radio Operator License or a Restricted GMDSS Radio Operator License, depending on the ship's operating areas. share/E1/1-20D10000664000175000017500000000042112527145216011270 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D1 D For a small passenger vessel inspection, reserve power batteries must be tested: A. At intervals not exceeding every 3 months. B. At intervals not exceeding every 6 months C. Before any new voyage D. At intervals not exceeding 12 months, or during the inspection. share/E1/1-3A60000664000175000017500000000040712527145215011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A6 B What are the mandatory DSC watchkeeping bands/channels? A. VHF Ch-70, 2 MHz MF DSC, 6 MHz DSC and 1 other HF DSC. B. 8 MHz HF DSC, 1 other HF DSC, 2 MHz MF DSC and VHF Ch-70. C. 2 MHz MF DSC, 8 MHz DSC, VHF Ch-16 and 1 other HF DSC. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-12B60000664000175000017500000000043112527145215011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B6 B GMDSS is required for which of the following? A. All vessels capable of international voyages. B. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. C. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coastal radio stations. D. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons. share/E1/1-1A50000664000175000017500000000072012527145215011211 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A5 B What is the minimum transmitter power level required by the FCC for a medium-frequency transmitter aboard a compulsorily fitted vessel? A. At least 100 watts, single-sideband, suppressed-carrier power. B. At least 60 watts PEP. C. The power predictably needed to communicate with the nearest public coast station operating on 2182 kHz. D. At least 25 watts delivered into 50 ohms effective resistance when operated with a primary voltage of 13.6 volts DC. share/E1/1-11B10000664000175000017500000000065312527145215011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B1 A What is a typical Urgency transmission? A. A request for medical assistance that does not rise to the level of a Distress or a critical weather transmission higher than Safety. B. A radio Distress transmission affecting the security of humans or property. C. Health and welfare traffic which impacts the protection of on-board personnel. D. A communications alert that important personal messages must be transmitted. share/E1/1-12B20000664000175000017500000000051312527145215011271 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B2 C The primary purpose of the GMDSS is to: A. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels. B. Provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications. C. Automate and improve emergency communications for the world's shipping industry. D. Provide effective and inexpensive communications. share/E1/1-9B20000664000175000017500000000044112527145215011217 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B2 B Ordinarily, how often would a station using a telephony emission identify? A. At least every 10 minutes. B. At the beginning and end of each transmission and at 15-minute intervals. C. At 15-minute intervals, unless public correspondence is in progress. D. At 20-minute intervals. share/E1/1-12B40000664000175000017500000000065312527145215011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B4 D GMDSS is primarily a system based on? A. Ship-to-ship Distress communications using MF or HF radiotelephony. B. VHF digital selective calling from ship to shore. C. Distress, Urgency and Safety communications carried out by the use of narrow-band direct printing telegraphy. D. The linking of search and rescue authorities ashore with shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress or in need of assistance. share/E1/1-9B40000664000175000017500000000062612527145215011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B4 A What should a station operator do before making a transmission? A. Except for the transmission of distress calls, determine that the frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting. B. Transmit a general notification that the operator wishes to utilize the channel. C. Check transmitting equipment to be certain it is properly calibrated. D. Ask if the frequency is in use. share/E1/1-10B20000664000175000017500000000055312527145215011273 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B2 C What are the highest priority communications from ships at sea? A. All critical message traffic authorized by the ship's master. B. Navigation and meteorological warnings. C. Distress calls are highest and then communications preceded by Urgency and then Safety signals. D. Authorized government communications for which priority right has been claimed. share/E1/1-22D10000664000175000017500000000017212527145216011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D1 D In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 3 GHz. B. S-band. C. 406 MHz. D. 9 GHz. share/E1/1-20D20000664000175000017500000000060412527145216011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D2 C What are the characteristics of the Reserve Source of Energy under GMDSS? A. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time. B. Cannot be independent of the propelling power of the ship. C. Must be independent of the ship's electrical system when the RSE is needed to supply power to the GMDSS equipment. D. Must be incorporated into the ship's electrical system. share/E1/1-1A60000664000175000017500000000022712527145215011214 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A6 D Shipboard transmitters using F3E emission (FM voice) may not exceed what carrier power? A. 500 watts. B. 250 watts. C. 100 watts. D. 25 watts. share/E1/1-6A20000664000175000017500000000062612527145215011220 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A2 C When may the operator of a ship radio station allow an unlicensed person to speak over the transmitter? A. At no time. Only commercially-licensed radio operators may modulate the transmitting apparatus. B. When the station power does not exceed 200 watts peak envelope power. C. When under the supervision of the licensed operator. D. During the hours that the radio officer is normally off duty. share/E1/1-8B10000664000175000017500000000067312527145215011224 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B1 C What is the best way for a radio operator to minimize or prevent interference to other stations? A. By using an omni-directional antenna pointed away from other stations. B. Reducing power to a level that will not affect other on-frequency communications. C. Determine that a frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting. D. By changing frequency when notified that a radiocommunication causes interference. share/E1/1-19D40000664000175000017500000000050312527145216011304 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D4 A What is the purpose of the antenna tuner? A. It alters the electrical characteristics of the antenna to match the frequency in use. B. It physically alters the length of the antenna to match the frequency in use. C. It makes the antenna look like a half-wave antenna at the frequency in use. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-24D20000664000175000017500000000017212527145216011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D2 D MSI can be obtained by one (or more) of the following: A. NAVTEX. B. SafetyNET. C. HF NBDP. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-18C60000664000175000017500000000106312527145216011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C6 B Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system that must be reported to the Master, then logged appropriately. A. Much higher noise level observed during daytime operation. B. No indication of power output when speaking into the microphone. C. When testing a radiotelephone alarm on 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna, the Distress frequency watch receiver becomes unmuted, an improper testing procedure. D. Failure to contact a shore station 600 nautical miles distant during daytime operation. share/E1/1-10B60000664000175000017500000000070512527145215011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B6 A What is Distress traffic? A. All messages relative to the immediate assistance required by a ship, aircraft or other vehicle threatened by grave or imminent danger, such as life and safety of persons on board, or man overboard. B. In radiotelephony, the speaking of the word, "Mayday." C. Health and welfare messages concerning property and the safety of a vessel. D. Internationally recognized communications relating to important situations. share/E1/1-9B30000664000175000017500000000044612527145215011225 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B3 D When using a SSB station on 2182 kHz or VHF-FM on channel 16: A. Preliminary call must not exceed 30 seconds. B. If contact is not made, you must wait at least 2 minutes before repeating the call. C. Once contact is established, you must switch to a working frequency. D. All of these. share/E1/1-6A50000664000175000017500000000061212527145215011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A5 C Where must the principal radiotelephone operating position be installed in a ship station? A. At the principal radio operating position of the vessel. B. In the chart room, master's quarters or wheel house. C. In the room or an adjoining room from which the ship is normally steered while at sea. D. At the level of the main wheel house or at least one deck above the ship's main deck. share/E1/1-8B30000664000175000017500000000107612527145215011224 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B3 C Who determines when a ship station may transmit routine traffic destined for a coast or government station in the maritime mobile service? A. Shipboard radio officers may transmit traffic when it will not interfere with ongoing radiocommunications. B. The order and time of transmission and permissible type of message traffic is decided by the licensed on-duty operator. C. Ship stations must comply with instructions given by the coast or government station. D. The precedence of conventional radiocommunications is determined by FCC and international regulation. share/E1/1-19D30000664000175000017500000000025612527145216011310 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D3 D What is the most common type of antenna for GMDSS VHF? A. Horizontally polarized circular antenna. B. Long wire antenna. C. Both of the above. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-18C10000664000175000017500000000041312527145216011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C1 C Under normal circumstances, what do you do if the transmitter aboard your ship is operating off-frequency, overmodulating or distorting? A. Reduce to low power. B. Reduce audio volume level. C. Stop transmitting. D. Make a notation in station operating log. share/E1/1-15C40000664000175000017500000000050012527145216011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C4 A MF/HF transceiver power levels should be set: A. To the lowest level necessary for effective communications. B. To the level necessary to maximize the propagation radius. C. To the highest level possible so as to ensure other stations cannot "break-in" on the channel during use. D. Both a) and c) are correct. share/E1/1-18C30000664000175000017500000000024712527145216011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C3 C If a ship radio transmitter signal becomes distorted: A. Reduce transmitter power. B. Use minimum modulation. C. Cease operations. D. Reduce audio amplitude. share/E1/1-4A50000664000175000017500000000064212527145215011217 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A5 B How long should station logs be retained when there are entries relating to distress or disaster situations? A. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them. B. For a period of three years from the last date of entry, unless notified by the FCC. C. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard. D. For a period of one year from the last date of entry. share/E1/1-16C40000664000175000017500000000045312527145216011304 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C4 A What emission must be used when operating on the MF distress and calling voice frequency? A. J3E - Single sideband telephony. B. A1A - On-off keying without modulation by an audio frequency. C. F3E - Frequency modulation telephony. D. A3E - Amplitude modulation telephony, double sideband. share/E1/1-24D50000664000175000017500000000023012527145216011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D5 B When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range? A. Local noontime. B. Middle of the night. C. Sunset. D. Post sunrise. share/E1/1-19D10000664000175000017500000000070312527145216011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D1 A What are the antenna requirements of a VHF telephony coast, maritime utility or ship station? A. The shore or on-board antenna must be vertically polarized. B. The antenna array must be type-accepted for 30-200 MHz operation by the FCC. C. The horizontally-polarized antenna must be positioned so as not to cause excessive interference to other stations. D. The antenna must be capable of being energized by an output in excess of 100 watts. share/E1/1-21D60000664000175000017500000000060712527145216011304 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D6 D What is an advantage of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. It is compatible with the COSPAS-SARSAT Satellites and Global Maritime Distress Safety System (GMDSS) regulations. B. Provides a fast, accurate method for the Coast Guard to locating and rescuing persons in distress. C. Includes a digitally encoded message containing the ship's identity and nationality. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-13C60000664000175000017500000000112412527145215011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C6 B Why must all VHF Distress, Urgency and Safety communications (as well as VTS traffic calls) be performed in Simplex operating mode? A. To minimize interference from vessels engaged in routine communications. B. To ensure that vessels not directly participating in the communications can hear both sides of the radio exchange. C. To enable an RCC or Coast station to only hear communications from the vessel actually in distress. D. To allow an RCC or Coast station to determine which transmissions are from other vessels and which transmissions are from the vessel actually in distress. share/E1/1-22D30000664000175000017500000000051012527145216011273 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D3 A What is the purpose of the SART's audible tone alarm? A. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby. B. It informs survivors when the battery's charge condition has weakened. C. It informs survivors when the SART switches to the "standby" mode. D. It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signaling on DSC. share/E1/1-9B60000664000175000017500000000031312527145215011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B6 C In the International Phonetic Alphabet, the letters E, M, and S are represented by the words: A. Echo, Michigan, Sonar. B. Equator, Mike, Sonar. C. Echo, Mike, Sierra D. Element, Mister, Scooter share/E1/1-5A10000664000175000017500000000033712527145215011215 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A1 D Radiotelephone stations required to keep logs of their transmissions must include: A. Station, date and time. B. Name of operator on duty. C. Station call signs with which communication took place. D. All of these. share/E1/1-21D40000664000175000017500000000050612527145216011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D4 C How do you cancel a false EPIRB distress alert? A. Transmit a DSC distress alert cancellation. B. Transmit a broadcast message to "all stations" canceling the distress message. C. Notify the Coast Guard or rescue coordination center at once. D. Make a radiotelephony "distress cancellation" transmission on 2182 kHz. share/E1/1-19D50000664000175000017500000000033512527145216011310 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D5 B What advantage does a vertical whip have over a long wire? A. It radiates more signal fore and aft. B. It radiates equally well in all directions. C. It radiates a strong signal vertically. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-17C10000664000175000017500000000074112527145216011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C1 B What is the proper procedure for testing a radiotelephone installation? A. A dummy antenna must be used to insure the test will not interfere with ongoing communications. B. Transmit the station's call sign, followed by the word "test" on the frequency being used for the test. C. Permission for the voice test must be requested and received from the nearest public coast station. D. Short tests must be confined to a single frequency and must never be conducted in port. share/E1/1-19D20000664000175000017500000000104012527145216011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D2 B What is the antenna requirement of a radiotelephone installation aboard a passenger vessel? A. The antenna must be located a minimum of 15 meters from the radiotelegraph antenna. B. The antenna must be vertically polarized and as non-directional and efficient as is practicable for the transmission and reception of ground waves over seawater. C. An emergency reserve antenna system must be provided for communications on 156.800 MHz. D. All antennas must be tested and the operational results logged at least once during each voyage. share/E1/1-24D10000664000175000017500000000037012527145216011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D1 B NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. Immediately following traffic lists. B. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. C. On request of maritime mobile stations. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. share/E1/1-4A60000664000175000017500000000064612527145215011224 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A6 C How long should station logs be retained when there are no entries relating to distress or disaster situations? A. For a period of three years from the last date of entry, unless notified by the FCC. B. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them. C. For a period of two years from the last date of entry. D. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard. share/E1/1-8B50000664000175000017500000000066212527145215011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B5 D How does a coast station notify a ship that it has a message for the ship? A. By making a directed transmission on 2182 kHz or 156.800 MHz. B. The coast station changes to the vessel's known working frequency. C. By establishing communications using the eight-digit maritime mobile service identification. D. The coast station may transmit, at intervals, lists of call signs in alphabetical order for which they have traffic. share/E1/1-21D50000664000175000017500000000051012527145216011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D5 B What is the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. A global satellite communications system for users in the maritime, land and aeronautical mobile services. B. An international satellite-based search and rescue system. C. A broadband military satellite communications network. D. A Wide Area Geostationary Satellite program (WAGS). share/E1/1-7B20000664000175000017500000000106412527145215011217 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B2 D What is a bridge-to-bridge station? A. An internal communications system linking the wheel house with the ship's primary radio operating position and other integral ship control points. B. An inland waterways and coastal radio station serving ship stations operating within the United States. C. A portable ship station necessary to eliminate frequent application to operate a ship station on board different vessels. D. A VHF radio station located on a ship's navigational bridge or main control station that is used only for navigational communications. share/E1/1-20D50000664000175000017500000000102712527145216011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D5 D What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? A. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries). B. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications. C. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a distress alert. D. All newly constructed ships under GMDSS must have both emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications. share/E1/1-21D10000664000175000017500000000044612527145216011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D1 A What is an EPIRB? A. A battery-operated emergency position-indicating radio beacon that floats free of a sinking ship. B. An alerting device notifying mariners of imminent danger. C. A satellite-based maritime distress and safety alerting system. D. A high-efficiency audio amplifier. share/E1/1-21D30000664000175000017500000000047312527145216011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D3 A If a ship sinks, what device is designed to float free of the mother ship, is turned on automatically and transmits a distress signal? A. An emergency position indicating radio beacon. B. EPIRB on 2182 kHz and 405.025 kHz. C. Bridge-to-bridge transmitter on 2182 kHz. D. Auto alarm keyer on any frequency. share/E1/1-13C50000664000175000017500000000036412527145215011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C5 D The "Scan" function is used to: A. Monitor Ch-16 continuously and switching to either Ch-70 or Ch-13 every 5 seconds. B. Scan Ch-16 for Distress calls. C. Scan Ch-70 for Distress alerts. D. Sequentially scan all or selected channels. share/E1/1-14C10000664000175000017500000000023612527145216011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C1 B What channel must VHF-FM-equipped vessels monitor at all times when the vessel is at sea? A. Channel 8. B. Channel 16. C. Channel 5A. D. Channel 1A. share/E1/1-8B20000664000175000017500000000062412527145215011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B2 B Under what circumstances may a coast station using telephony transmit a general call to a group of vessels? A. Under no circumstances. B. When announcing or preceding the transmission of Distress, Urgency, Safety or other important messages. C. When the vessels are located in international waters beyond 12 miles. D. When identical traffic is destined for multiple mobile stations within range. share/E1/1-14C60000664000175000017500000000016212527145216011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C6 C What channel would you use to place a call to a shore telephone? A. Ch-16. B. Ch-70. C. Ch-28. D. Ch-06. share/E1/1-18C50000664000175000017500000000071312527145216011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C5 D Your antenna tuner becomes totally inoperative. What would you do to obtain operation on both the 8 MHz and 22 MHz frequency bands? A. Without an operating antenna tuner, transmission is impossible. B. It is impossible to obtain operation on 2 different HF bands, without an operating antenna tuner. C. Bypass the antenna tuner and shorten the whip to 15 ft. D. Bypass the antenna tuner. Use a straight whip or wire antenna approximately 30 ft long. share/E1/1-1A30000664000175000017500000000036012527145215011207 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A3 D Small passenger vessels that sail 20 to 150 nautical miles from the nearest land must have what additional equipment? A. Inmarsat-B terminal. B. Inmarsat-C terminal. C. Aircraft Transceiver with 121.5 MHz. D. MF-HF SSB Transceiver. share/E1/1-11B60000664000175000017500000000036612527145215011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B6 D What safety signal call word is spoken three times, followed by the station call letters spoken three times, to announce a storm warning, danger to navigation, or special aid to navigation? A. PAN PAN. B. MAYDAY. C. SAFETY. D. SECURITE. share/E1/1-4A30000664000175000017500000000052612527145215011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A3 A Where must ship station logs be kept during a voyage? A. At the principal radiotelephone operating position. B. They must be secured in the vessel's strongbox for safekeeping. C. In the personal custody of the licensed commercial radio operator. D. All logs are turned over to the ship's master when the radio operator goes off duty. share/E1/1-16C50000664000175000017500000000034612527145216011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C5 C Which of the following defines high frequency "ITU Channel 1212"? A. Ch-12 in the 16 MHz band. B. Ch-1216 in the MF band. C. The 12th channel in the 12 MHz band. D. This would indicate the 1st channel in the 12 MHz band. share/E1/1-7B50000664000175000017500000000046212527145215011223 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B5 A A ship station using VHF bridge-to-bridge Channel 13: A. May be identified by the name of the ship in lieu of call sign. B. May be identified by call sign and country of origin. C. Must be identified by call sign and name of vessel. D. Does not need to identify itself within 100 miles from shore. share/E1/1-23D40000664000175000017500000000032012527145216011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D4 A Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on Ch-16. B. Operation on 457.525 MHz. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Any one of these. share/E1/1-5A60000664000175000017500000000044312527145215011220 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A6 A Which of the following statements concerning log entries is false? A. All Safety communications received on VHF must be logged. B. All required equipment tests must be logged. C. The radio operator must log on and off watch. D. The vessels daily position must be entered in the log. share/E1/1-15C20000664000175000017500000000107412527145216011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C2 B Why must all MF-HF Distress, Urgency and Safety communications take place solely on the 6 assigned frequencies and in the simplex operating mode? A. For non-GMDSS ships, to maximize the chances for other vessels to receive those communications. B. Answers a) and c) are both correct. C. For GMDSS or DSC-equipped ships, to maximize the chances for other vessels to receive those communications following the transmission of a DSC call of the correct priority. D. To enable an RCC or Coast station to only hear communications from the vessel actually in distress. share/E1/1-23D50000664000175000017500000000031212527145216011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D5 D Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristic(s)? A. Operation on Ch-16. B. Watertight. C. Permanently-affixed antenna. D. All of these. share/E1/1-2A10000664000175000017500000000061512527145215011211 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A1 D Which commercial radio operator license is required to operate a fixed-tuned ship RADAR station with external controls? A. A radio operator certificate containing a Ship RADAR Endorsement. B. A Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher. C. Either a First or Second Class Radiotelegraph certificate or a General Radiotelephone Operator License. D. No radio operator authorization is required. share/E1/1-7B10000664000175000017500000000052712527145215011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B1 B What traffic management service is operated by the U.S. Coast Guard in certain designated water areas to prevent ship collisions, groundings and environmental harm? A. Water Safety Management Bureau (WSMB). B. Vessel Traffic Service (VTS). C. Ship Movement and Safety Agency (SMSA). D. Interdepartmental Harbor and Port Patrol (IHPP). share/E1/1-3A50000664000175000017500000000066412527145215011222 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A5 D Which is true concerning a required watch on VHF Ch-16? A. It is compulsory at all times while at sea until further notice, unless the vessel is in a VTS system. B. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is not required on Ch-16, provided the vessel monitors both Ch-13 and VTS channel. C. It is always compulsory in sea areas A2, A3 and A4. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-5A20000664000175000017500000000030412527145215011210 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A2 B Which of the following is true? A. Battery test must be logged daily. B. EPIRB tests are normally logged monthly. C. Radiotelephone tests are normally logged weekly. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-2A50000664000175000017500000000043612527145215011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A5 C What is the minimum radio operator requirement for ships subject to the Great Lakes Radio Agreement? A. Third Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate. B. General Radiotelephone Operator License. C. Marine Radio Operator Permit. D. Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit. share/E1/1-16C30000664000175000017500000000040312527145216011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C3 D For general communications purposes, paired frequencies are: A. Normally used with private coast stations. B. Normally used between ship stations. C. Normally used between private coast and ship stations. D. Normally used with public coast stations. share/E1/1-17C40000664000175000017500000000056312527145216011307 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C4 D The best way to test the MF-HF NBDP system is? A. Make a radiotelephone call to a coast station. B. Initiate an ARQ call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. C. Initiate an FEC call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. D. Initiate an ARQ call to a Coast Station and wait for the automatic exchange of answerbacks. share/split.awk0000664000175000017500000000710112527424053012174 0ustar jtnjtn# split question pool file into separate file for each question # Copyright (C) 2012-2015 John Nogatch # discard empty lines (NF == 0){ next} # change all tab to space {gsub( /\t/, " ")} # remove leading whitespace {sub( /^[ ]*/, "")} # remove spurious \r {gsub( /\r/, "")} # replace \222 apostrophes {gsub( /\222/, "\47")} # replace 3-char hyphen {gsub( /\342\200\223/, "-")} # replace \223 quotes {gsub( /\223/, "\42")} # replace \224 quotes {gsub( /\224/, "\42")} # replace \226 hyphen {gsub( /\226/, "-")} # replace \240 space {gsub( /\240/, " ")} # replace 3-char exponent leader {gsub( / \342\200.E/, "^")} # replace 3-char apostrophes {gsub( /\342\200\231/, "\47")} # replace 3-char quotes {gsub( /\342\200\234/, "\42")} # replace 3-char quotes {gsub( /\342\200\235/, "\42")} # recognize answer/distractor lines /^[ABCD]\./{ # output answer/distractor to file print $0 > question next } # recognize answer/distractor lines (elements 7, 7R) /^[a-f])/{ # output answer/distractor to file print $0 > question next } # anything other than answer/distractor line { close( question) # avoid leaving too many descriptors open question = "" # no current output file } # recognize answer key lines (elements 1, 3, 8) /^Answer Key:/{ sub( /^Answer Key:/, "") gsub( /:/, "") for (i = NF - 1; i > 0; i -= 2) { print $i " " $(i+1) > "answer" close( "answer") system( "cat " $i " >> answer") system( "mv answer " $i) } next } # recognize answer key lines (element 9) /^Answers:[^-]+$/{ sub( /^Answers:/, "") gsub( /:/, "") for (i = NF - 1; i > 0; i -= 2) { print "9-" $i " " $(i+1) > "answer" close( "answer") system( "cat 9-" $i " >> answer") system( "mv answer 9-" $i) } next } # discard "Section-.:" line (elements 7, 7R) /^Section-[A-Z]: /{ next} # discard page number line (elements 7, 7R) /^- [0-9]+ -$/{ next} # recognize answer key lines (elements 7, 7R) /^Answers:[ ]+[0-9]+[A-Z][0-9]+ - [A-D]/{ sub( /^Answers:/, "") gsub( /-/, "") for (i = NF - 1; i > 0; i -= 2) { print $i " " $(i+1) > "answer" close( "answer") system( "cat " $i " >> answer") system( "mv answer " $i) } next } # recognize new question (elements 1, 3, 8) /^[0-9]-[0-9]*/{ question = $1 # new current output file $1 = "" # remove # from question text sub( /^ /, "") # output question to file print $0 > question next } # recognize new question (elements 5 & 6) /^[0-9][AB][0-9]*$/{ question = $1 # new current output file if (getline != 1) print "unable to read answer line " NR # read another line & exit if error if (NF != 1) print "invalid answer line " NR # expecting answer print question " " $1 > question # output # & answer to file if (getline != 1) print "unable to read question line " NR # read another line & exit if error print $0 > question # output question text to file next } # recognize new question (elements 7, 7R) /^[0-9]+[A-Z][0-9]+ /{ question = $1 # new current output file sub( /-/, "", question) # remove "-" # print "e7: " $0 # display question # to help correct typos $1 = "" # remove question # from question text print $0 > question # output question text to question file next } # recognize new question (element 9) /^[0-9]+[A-Z][0-9]* */{ question = "9-" $1 # new current output file sub( /^[0-9]+[A-Z][0-9]*/, "") # remove question # print $0 > question # output complete question text to file next } # display any line that did not get captured { print $0} share/E5/0000775000175000017500000000000012527167305010613 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E5/5B1570000664000175000017500000000030412527167305011236 0ustar jtnjtn5B157 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I search for (1. Aircraft; 2. Ship; 3. a survival craft;) in the vicinity of ____ latitude ____ longitude?" A.QRZ B.QRT C.QUO D.None of the above share/E5/5A340000664000175000017500000000037312527167304011154 0ustar jtnjtn5A34 D In addition to distress, safety and urgency signals and messages, the International Distress Frequency is normally used for: A.Radiotelephone broadcasting at sea B.Transmitting public correspondence to aircraft C.Time signals D.General calling share/E5/5B1520000664000175000017500000000016712527167305011240 0ustar jtnjtn5B152 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Are your navigation lights working?" A.QRM B.QRV C.QUI D.None of the above share/E5/5B1420000664000175000017500000000021112527167305011225 0ustar jtnjtn5B142 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "What are the hours during which your station is open?" A.QTV B.QTH C.QSL D.None of the above share/E5/5B820000664000175000017500000000016112527167305011154 0ustar jtnjtn5B82 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation for all sent after a specific word is: A.AA B.AB C.AR D.None of the above share/E5/5B1370000664000175000017500000000016112527167305011235 0ustar jtnjtn5B137 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Have you left dock (or port)?" A.QSV B.QRT C.QTO D.None of the above share/E5/5B1470000664000175000017500000000022012527167305011232 0ustar jtnjtn5B147 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is the number of the last message you received from me?" A.QUM B.QUC C.QQQ D.None of the above share/E5/5B860000664000175000017500000000017712527167305011167 0ustar jtnjtn5B86 D Cipher language is composed of ____ of no apparent meaning. A.Words B.Names C.Combination of letters D.All of the above share/E5/5B1240000664000175000017500000000020312527167305011226 0ustar jtnjtn5B124 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I send each word or group more than once?" A.QSZ B.QRM C.QSL D.None of the above share/E5/5B1000000664000175000017500000000015312527167305011224 0ustar jtnjtn5B100 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I decrease power?" A.QRQ B.QRP C.QRV D.None of the above share/E5/5B1660000664000175000017500000000020212527167305011233 0ustar jtnjtn5B166 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is my true bearing from ____ (call sign)?" A.QRZ B.QSM C.QTE D.None of the above share/E5/5A320000664000175000017500000000035412527167304011151 0ustar jtnjtn5A32 D When receiving type A2 signals on a receiver: A.The audio volume must be set at maximum B.The crystal phasing switch must be on C.The antenna aligning control must be adjusted for maximum signal D.The BFO is generally turned off share/E5/5B660000664000175000017500000000017312527167305011161 0ustar jtnjtn5B66 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Prefix indicating a service telegram" is: A.SYS B.SVC C.SS D.None of the above share/E5/5A870000664000175000017500000000064212527167305011164 0ustar jtnjtn5A87 D What is an indicator that the receiver is being tuned to an image frequency? A.Hearing a given radiotelegraph transmitting station at more than one place on the tuning dial of the receiver B.The image frequency signal will be weaker than the signal level received when the receiver is set to the proper frequency of the transmitting station C.The station is transmitting on more than one frequency D.Both A & B share/E5/5A40000664000175000017500000000061212527167304011065 0ustar jtnjtn5A4 A When an operator license or permit has been sent to the FCC for renewal, duplication, replacement, endorsement, etc., the operator is required to exhibit at his operating place of duty in lieu of the original document: A.A signed copy of the application which has been filed with the FCC B.A letter of authorization from the FCC C.His photograph and finger prints D.His birth certificate share/E5/5B1530000664000175000017500000000023612527167305011236 0ustar jtnjtn5B153 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Will you indicate the true course for me to steer toward you with no wind?" A.QUJ B.QRK C.QRT D.None of the above share/E5/5B1490000664000175000017500000000022112527167305011235 0ustar jtnjtn5B149 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Have you received a distress signal sent by ____ (call sign)?" A.QLV B.QRL C.QUF D.None of the above share/E5/5A410000664000175000017500000000045412527167305011153 0ustar jtnjtn5A41 D When a station in the maritime mobile service is calling CQ and the call is not followed by K, the transmitted message: A.Has priority over all other transmissions B.Must be considered confidential C.Must be transmitted only during silent periods D.Is intended for anyone who can intercept it share/E5/5A200000664000175000017500000000051112527167304011141 0ustar jtnjtn5A20 A If a radiotelegraph station receives and transmits messages for the general public: A.The station must be licensed to handle public correspondence B.The chief operator must hold a radiotelegraph first class operator license C.The station must be accessible to the general public D.The station must be a government station share/E5/5A90000664000175000017500000000034312527167304011073 0ustar jtnjtn5A9 B In case of distress, urgency or safety, the speed of radiotelegraph transmission should not in general exceed: A.Eleven words per minute B.Sixteen words per minute C.Twenty words per minute D.Twenty-five words per minute share/E5/5B770000664000175000017500000000016712527167305011166 0ustar jtnjtn5B77 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation requesting a repetition of "Word after" is: A.WA B.?WA C.WB D.None of the above share/E5/5B680000664000175000017500000000011712527167305011161 0ustar jtnjtn5B68 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Traffic" is: A.TR B.TFC C.TTT D.TU share/E5/5B1170000664000175000017500000000020512527167305011232 0ustar jtnjtn5B117 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Can you communicate with ____ direct or by relay?" A.QSL B.QSO C.QSM D.None of the above share/E5/5B1710000664000175000017500000000015512527167305011236 0ustar jtnjtn5B171 C What Q-signal would be used to say "Your keying is defective"? A.QRN B.QST C.QSD D.None of the above share/E5/5A880000664000175000017500000000022612527167305011163 0ustar jtnjtn5A88 A The contact opening of a radiotelegraph transmitting relay should be usually adjusted for about: A.1/16 inch B.1/8 inch C.1/32 inch D.1/4 inch share/E5/5A830000664000175000017500000000037112527167305011157 0ustar jtnjtn5A83 A If a radiotelegraph receiver blocks on the reception of strong signals, what correction can be made? A.Reduce the radio frequency gain control B.Increase the radio frequency gain control C.Disable the squelch control D.Disconnect the antenna share/E5/5B620000664000175000017500000000012212527167305011147 0ustar jtnjtn5B62 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Signature" is: A.SVC B.SIG C.SOS D.SS share/E5/5A890000664000175000017500000000032412527167305011163 0ustar jtnjtn5A89 B The contact opening of a manual radiotelegraph transmitting relay should be: A.Always the same for slow as it is for high speed B.Less for high speed operation C.More for high speed operation D.Both B & C share/E5/5A480000664000175000017500000000030312527167305011153 0ustar jtnjtn5A48 D The operator on duty at a manually operated radiotelegraph station normally posts his license or permit: A.At the place where he is on duty B.On his person C.Neither A or B D.Both A and B share/E5/5A80000664000175000017500000000051212527167304011070 0ustar jtnjtn5A8 D In transmitting the radiotelegraph Distress Signal: A.The signal should be repeated five times without any break between the groups B.The signals should be repeated six times without any break between the groups C.The dots should be made as long as the dashes D.The signal should be transmitted at maximum power if possible share/E5/5A330000664000175000017500000000037712527167304011157 0ustar jtnjtn5A33 D In the care of a hand radiotelegraph transmitting key, the operator should occasionally: A.Wash the key with salt and water B.Apply petroleum jelly to the key contacts C.Lubricate the key pivots with linseed oil D.Clean or burnish the key contacts share/E5/5A730000664000175000017500000000030412527167305011152 0ustar jtnjtn5A73 B A station that handles paid or toll radio messages for the general public at established rates, is open to: A.Special messages B.Public correspondence C.Private correspondence D.Both A & C share/E5/5A610000664000175000017500000000036012527167305011151 0ustar jtnjtn5A61 D Why are "Q" signals used in radiotelegraph communications? A.They permit a short transmission time in handling of common phrases B.To avoid operator fatigue C.They are used internationally and overcome language problems D.Both A & C share/E5/5B290000664000175000017500000000024512527167305011160 0ustar jtnjtn5B29 A What speed of radiotelegraph code transmission must not, in general, be exceeded in cases of distress, urgency or safety? A.16 wpm B.20 wpm C.13 wpm D.18 wpm share/E5/5B140000664000175000017500000000016212527167305011150 0ustar jtnjtn5B14 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for a general call to two or more specific stations is: A.CQ B.CP C.CS D.C share/E5/5B1050000664000175000017500000000014212527167305011227 0ustar jtnjtn5B105 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Are you ready?" A.QRU B.QRV C.QUM D.None of the above share/E5/5A820000664000175000017500000000030412527167305011152 0ustar jtnjtn5A82 C Interference from stations operating on nearby frequencies can be minimized by: A.Using a crystal filter B.Tuning the desired frequency very carefully C.Combining A & B D.None of the above share/E5/5B530000664000175000017500000000014312527167305011152 0ustar jtnjtn5B53 C The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "I have nothing to send to you" is: A.NW B.OK C.NIL D.P share/E5/5B730000664000175000017500000000014712527167305011160 0ustar jtnjtn5B73 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation to request a repetition of a "Text" is: A.?TXT B.TXT C.TFC D.TT share/E5/5B1360000664000175000017500000000020212527167305011230 0ustar jtnjtn5B136 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "At what time did you depart from ____ (place)?" A.QTN B.QSV C.QRZ D.None of the above share/E5/5B1480000664000175000017500000000022212527167305011235 0ustar jtnjtn5B148 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Have you received the urgency signal sent by ____ (call sign)?" A.QUD B.QSZ C.QRV D.None of the above share/E5/5B1060000664000175000017500000000022612527167305011233 0ustar jtnjtn5B106 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I inform ____ that you are calling him on ____ kHz?" (or MHz) A.QRW B.QRV C.QST D.None of the above share/E5/5A10000664000175000017500000000047212527167304011066 0ustar jtnjtn5A1 B A person holding a radiotelegraph third class operator permit is authorized to operate: A.Radiotelegraph stations on aircraft with power under 100 watts B.Radiotelephone communication stations on aircraft with power under 250 watts C.Any coastal radiotelegraph station D.Any radiotelephone station on a ship share/E5/5B520000664000175000017500000000010412527167305011146 0ustar jtnjtn5B52 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "No" is: A.N B.C C.K D.P share/E5/5B320000664000175000017500000000011312527167305011144 0ustar jtnjtn5B32 A What is the radiotelegraph signal for "received"? A.R B.K C.BT D.DE share/E5/5B610000664000175000017500000000013612527167305011153 0ustar jtnjtn5B61 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Indication of a request" is: A.RPT B.RQ C.REF D.R share/E5/5A250000664000175000017500000000025412527167304011152 0ustar jtnjtn5A25 C The proper way for station KABC to call station WDEF is: A.WDEF VE KABC K B.WDEF WDEF K DE KABC KABC K C.WDEF WDEF WDEF DE KABC KABC KABC D.KABC KABC AR WDEF WDEF K share/E5/5A780000664000175000017500000000044112527167305011161 0ustar jtnjtn5A78 D What is meant by a break in operation at a radiotelegraph station? A.When the key is up, the station is capable of receiving a signal B.Automatic switching between receiving and transmit modes of the station C.Both stations are capable of interrupting each other D.All of the above share/E5/5A50000664000175000017500000000040612527167304011067 0ustar jtnjtn5A5 D In transmitting the radiotelegraph Urgency Signal: A.The signal must consist of groups of four B.The signal must consist of groups of five C.The signal should be sent as one character D.The letters of each group should be clearly separated from each other share/E5/5A290000664000175000017500000000036512527167304011161 0ustar jtnjtn5A29 A A system of radiotelegraphy in which the receiving operator can press his key and signal the transmitting operator to interrupt his transmission is called: A.Break-in operation B.Reflex operation C.Multiplex operation D.Simplex operation share/E5/5B280000664000175000017500000000021012527167305011147 0ustar jtnjtn5B28 C What is the radiotelegraph safety signal? A.Three dots, three dashes and three dots continuously B.XXX C.TTT D.None of the above share/E5/5A810000664000175000017500000000035112527167305011153 0ustar jtnjtn5A81 D In communications receivers, the insertion of a crystal filter: A.Narrows the receiving band width B.Minimizes interference from stations operating on nearby frequencies C.Reduces the interference of static D.All of the above share/E5/5A1030000664000175000017500000000047312527167305011233 0ustar jtnjtn5A103 A In an automatic key (or bug), spacing of the stationary dot contact ___ so that when the dot lever is pressed and held over should be adjusted: A.So the instrument will make 12 to 30 clear dots B.So that more that 30 clear dots will be made C.So that less that 5 clear dots will be made D.None of the above share/E5/5B630000664000175000017500000000015612527167305011157 0ustar jtnjtn5B63 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for requesting a repetition of a signature is: A.SVC B.?SIG C.SIG D.SS share/E5/5B1380000664000175000017500000000017112527167305011237 0ustar jtnjtn5B138 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Are you going to enter dock (or port)" A.QTP B.QRM C.QTH D.None of the above share/E5/5A760000664000175000017500000000046712527167305011167 0ustar jtnjtn5A76 A How can an operator relieve hearing fatigue caused by a long period of listening to a CW telegraph signal of constant tone? A.Vary the frequency of the tones with the BFO control B.Vary the volume of the tone C.Vary the frequency of the tone by turning to a harmonic of the actual frequency D.Both B & C share/E5/5B1620000664000175000017500000000016312527167305011235 0ustar jtnjtn5B162 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Is position of incident marked?" A.QUT B.QTH C.QRP D.None of the above share/E5/5A30000664000175000017500000000050012527167304011060 0ustar jtnjtn5A3 A The radio operator of a manually operated radiotelegraph station is required to: A.Post or have available his operator license or permit B.Take a code examination each time his license or permit is renewed C.Keep the station license in his personal possession at all times D.Sign the radio log at 4 hour intervals share/E5/5B1310000664000175000017500000000025412527167305011232 0ustar jtnjtn5B131 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is your position in latitude and longitude (or according to any other indications)?" A.QTG B.QTH C.QST D.None of the above share/E5/5B850000664000175000017500000000027412527167305011164 0ustar jtnjtn5B85 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation used after a question mark usually is: A.A request for a repetition B.A questionable procedure C.The abbreviation of a statement D.None of the above share/E5/5B1630000664000175000017500000000020112527167305011227 0ustar jtnjtn5B163 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I Home ship or aircraft to my position?" A.QTH B.QUU C.QLS D.None of the above share/E5/5A380000664000175000017500000000065512527167305011164 0ustar jtnjtn5A38 D Greenwich mean time is a: A.Standard time at any given zone as indicated on clocks with dial marked 0000 to 0600 B.Time system used at sea in which time is expressed in bells, as 4 bells, 8 bells, etc. C.Time difference between the Greenwich meridian and the international date line expressed from 0000 to 2400 hours D.Time at the meridian of Greenwich, England, and reckoned from 0000 to 2400 hours beginning at midnight share/E5/5B1600000664000175000017500000000032012527167305011226 0ustar jtnjtn5B160 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Have survivors (1. received survival equipment; 2. been picked up by rescue vessel; 3. been reached by ground rescue party)?" A.QSO B.QUR C.QRZ D.None of the above share/E5/5A1100000664000175000017500000000030412527167305011222 0ustar jtnjtn5A110 A A station which handles toll messages is a station: A.Open to public services B.That carries non-public communication for business C.In the highway trucking business D.For inter-city ____ share/E5/5B790000664000175000017500000000017312527167305011165 0ustar jtnjtn5B79 C The radiotelegraph abbreviation requesting a repetition of "Word before ___" is: A.AB B.K C.?WB D.None of the above share/E5/5A980000664000175000017500000000033112527167305011161 0ustar jtnjtn5A98 C The bearing adjustment screws of an automatic key (or bug) should be set: A.So that lateral motion of the dot and dash levers are free B.So that there is no end play of the levers C.Both A & B D.Neither A or B share/E5/5B30000664000175000017500000000013512527167305011066 0ustar jtnjtn5B3 D The radiotelegraph abbreviation for repetition of an address is: A.AA B.AB C.AR D.?ADS share/E5/5B1220000664000175000017500000000021612527167305011230 0ustar jtnjtn5B122 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Will you listen to ___ {call sign(s)} on ___ kHz (or MHz)?" A.QUM B.QSX C.QTB D.None of the above share/E5/5B400000664000175000017500000000017012527167305011146 0ustar jtnjtn5B40 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Bearing doubtful" as on "for another bearing later" is: A.DT B.DO C.DF D.DX share/E5/5A1000000664000175000017500000000045012527167305011223 0ustar jtnjtn5A100 A The movable dash contact on the dash lever should be adjusted so that it makes full-face contact with the stationary dash contact on the post. It should then: A.Be locked primarily in that position B.Not be locked in that position C.Be readjusted for partial contact D.None of the above share/E5/5B580000664000175000017500000000011312527167305011154 0ustar jtnjtn5B58 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Received" is: A.R B.K C.W D.Ok share/E5/5B100000664000175000017500000000011612527167305011143 0ustar jtnjtn5B10 D The radiotelegraph abbreviation used for "yes" is: A.IMI B.BQ C.CS D.C share/E5/5A260000664000175000017500000000024012527167304011146 0ustar jtnjtn5A26 D The proper way for station WDEF to answer station KABC is: A.KABC VAWDEF V B.KABC K WDEF K C.WDEF WDEF AR KABC KABC D.KABC KABC KABC DE WDEF WDEF WDEF K share/E5/5A460000664000175000017500000000037012527167305011155 0ustar jtnjtn5A46 C Who is not authorized to make technical adjustment to a radiotelephone transmitter? A.1st class radiotelephone operator permit holder B.2nd class radiotelegraph permit holder C.3rd class radiotelegraph holder D.General radiotelegraph holder share/E5/5B510000664000175000017500000000025512527167305011154 0ustar jtnjtn5B51 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for a prefix indicating a message to or from the master of a ship concerning it's operation or navigation is: A.PBL B.MSG C.RPT D.SIG share/E5/5B210000664000175000017500000000013412527167305011145 0ustar jtnjtn5B21 D A signal which means "received" in radiotelegraph communications is: A.K B.N C.C D.R share/E5/5B20000664000175000017500000000016012527167305011063 0ustar jtnjtn5B2 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "I repeat the figures" in abbreviation form is: A.AA B.ABV C.ADS D.BF share/E5/5A220000664000175000017500000000035512527167304011151 0ustar jtnjtn5A22 B If a station reports that your signal has changed from QSA 1 to QSA 5, you would know that: A.Your signals are very weak B.Your signals are very strong C.Your telegraph key needs adjustment D.Your signals are transmitted too slow share/E5/5B410000664000175000017500000000017212527167305011151 0ustar jtnjtn5B41 C The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Possible error of bearing may amount to ____ degrees" is: A.DI B.DE C.DP D.DJ share/E5/5A550000664000175000017500000000025412527167305011156 0ustar jtnjtn5A55 C What time does the serial numbering of radio message begin? A.OOOO UTC daily B.The period of numbering varies in some foreign stations C.Both A & B D.1200 UTC daily share/E5/5B50000664000175000017500000000012312527167305011065 0ustar jtnjtn5B5 C The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "waiting period" is: A.AA B.BQ C.AS D.CS share/E5/5B90000664000175000017500000000016012527167305011072 0ustar jtnjtn5B9 C The radiotelegraph abbreviation used to reply to and RQ (indication of a request) is: A.BF B.C C.BQ D.CFM share/E5/5A130000664000175000017500000000026512527167304011151 0ustar jtnjtn5A13 A A radiotelegram usually consists of: A.Preamble, address, text and signature B.Preamble, text and signature only C.Preamble and text only D.Check, address and signature only share/E5/5B710000664000175000017500000000013712527167305011155 0ustar jtnjtn5B71 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Thank You" is: A.TFC B.TU C.TR D.None of the above share/E5/5B440000664000175000017500000000031412527167305011152 0ustar jtnjtn5B44 B The abbreviation for "Your bearing is reciprocal, (to be used only by the control station of a group of direction-finding when it is addressing stations of the same group)" is: A.DI B.DZ C.DO D.DE share/E5/5A560000664000175000017500000000025412527167305011157 0ustar jtnjtn5A56 A Code or cipher groups are often used in radiotelegraph messages for: A.Security reasons B.Abbreviating handling directions C.Operating signals D.Checking word count share/E5/5B670000664000175000017500000000016512527167305011163 0ustar jtnjtn5B67 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Refer to your service telegram" is: A.SYS B.SYC C.SS D.None of the above share/E5/5A900000664000175000017500000000025512527167305011156 0ustar jtnjtn5A90 C Side adjustments of a manual radiotelegraph transmitting relay: A.Permit proper alignment B.Permit free vertical movement of the arm C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E5/5B650000664000175000017500000000016712527167305011163 0ustar jtnjtn5B65 D The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Indicator preceding the name of a ship station" is: A.SSS B.SYC C.SVC D.SS share/E5/5B1610000664000175000017500000000022512527167305011233 0ustar jtnjtn5B161 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Have you sighted survivors or wreckage? If so, in what position?" A.QRZ B.QTH C.QUS D.None of the above share/E5/5B10000664000175000017500000000017312527167305011066 0ustar jtnjtn5B1 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation requesting a repetition of all sent before a specific word is: A.?AB B.CQ C.IMI D.C? share/E5/5B640000664000175000017500000000020012527167305011146 0ustar jtnjtn5B64 C The radiotelegraph abbreviation signal for "Distress" is: A.SS B.SOS C.SOS, to be sent as one signal D.None of the above share/E5/5B990000664000175000017500000000015212527167305011164 0ustar jtnjtn5B99 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I increase power?" A.QST B.QRT C.QRD D.None of the above share/E5/5A590000664000175000017500000000020712527167305011160 0ustar jtnjtn5A59 A Receiving conditions are bad. What operating signal would be used to request each word or group twice? A.QSZ B.QRO C.QRK D.QRX share/E5/5A580000664000175000017500000000022012527167305011152 0ustar jtnjtn5A58 C Figures or odd symbols are ____ to make certain of their accuracy: A.Counted B.Put into a more convenient order C.Collected D.Sent twice share/E5/5B240000664000175000017500000000022612527167305011152 0ustar jtnjtn5B24 B If a called radiotelegraph station is busy, the calling station may be advised to anticipate a return call by sending: A.QUM B.QRX C.QSA D.QRA share/E5/5A1080000664000175000017500000000041612527167305011235 0ustar jtnjtn5A108 D How should a superheterodyne receiver be adjusted for a maximum response to strong CW signals? A.Automatic volume control may be left on B.R-F gain control should be somewhat reduced C.The BFO should be varied for the desired output frequency D.All of the above share/E5/5B780000664000175000017500000000015612527167305011165 0ustar jtnjtn5B78 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for " Word before ___" is: A.?WB B.WB C.Either A or B D.Neither A or B share/E5/5B200000664000175000017500000000012312527167305011142 0ustar jtnjtn5B20 C In radiotelegraphy the general call to all stations is: A.AR B.BK C.CQ D.TU share/E5/5B420000664000175000017500000000020512527167305011147 0ustar jtnjtn5B42 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Adjust your transmitter, the minimum of you signal is too broad" is: A.DJ B.DS C.DX D.DB share/E5/5A390000664000175000017500000000041712527167305011161 0ustar jtnjtn5A39 C The radio silent period of the maritime service beginning at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour on 500 kilocycles is for the purpose of: A.Receiving time signals B.Receiving weather reports C.Listening for distress calls D.Transmitting ship call letter lists share/E5/5B300000664000175000017500000000013712527167305011150 0ustar jtnjtn5B30 A What radiotelegraph signal is generally used to call all stations? A.CQ B.BT C.AR D.IMI share/E5/5B590000664000175000017500000000014312527167305011160 0ustar jtnjtn5B59 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Refer to ___" is: A.RPT B.REF C.RQ D.None of the above share/E5/5B1140000664000175000017500000000016012527167305011227 0ustar jtnjtn5B114 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Can you acknowledge receipt?" A.QST B.QSL C.QRT D.None of the above share/E5/5B1350000664000175000017500000000015612527167305011237 0ustar jtnjtn5B135 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is your true heading?" A.QRM B.QTL C.QRT D.None of the above share/E5/5B1430000664000175000017500000000025612527167305011237 0ustar jtnjtn5B143 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I stand guard for you on the frequency of ____ kHz (or MHz) from ____ to ____ hours?" A.QTV B.QTH C.QSL D.None of the above share/E5/5A710000664000175000017500000000032112527167305011147 0ustar jtnjtn5A71 A The procedure of radiotelegraph transmission in which one station calls another is: A.WCXY WCXY WCXY DE KMEX KMEX KMEX K B.WCXY WCXY DE KMEX K C.WCXY WCXY WCXY WCXY WCXY WCXY DE KMEX K D.WCXY DE KMEX K share/E5/5A740000664000175000017500000000041612527167305011157 0ustar jtnjtn5A74 B How should the speed of transmission of radiotelegraph signals be determined? A.In accordance with the desire of the transmitting operator B.In accordance with the desire of the receiving operator C.Speed should not exceed 16 wpm D.Speed should not exceed 20 wpm share/E5/5B380000664000175000017500000000020712527167305011156 0ustar jtnjtn5B38 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Bearing doubtful in consequence of the bad quality of your signal" is: A.DI B.DG C.DF D.DC share/E5/5B390000664000175000017500000000015612527167305011162 0ustar jtnjtn5B39 C The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Bearing doubtful because of interference" is: A.DI B.DO C.DJ D.DP share/E5/5B540000664000175000017500000000012712527167305011155 0ustar jtnjtn5B54 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Now" is: A.MN B.NW C.P D.None of the above share/E5/5B800000664000175000017500000000017712527167305011161 0ustar jtnjtn5B80 C This radiotelegraph abbreviation sent three times constitutes the urgency signal: A.SOS B.TTT C.XXX D.None of the above share/E5/5A60000664000175000017500000000014112527167304011064 0ustar jtnjtn5A6 B In radiotelegraphy the Distress signal is: A.IMI B.SOS C.XXX XXX XXX D.CQD CQD CQD CQD CQD share/E5/5A990000664000175000017500000000054412527167305011170 0ustar jtnjtn5A99 A The movable dash contact on the dash lever of an automatic key (or bug) should be adjusted: A.So that it makes full-face contact with the stationary dash contact on the post B.So that it makes partial contact with the stationary dash contact on the post C.So that it makes no contact with the stationary dash contact on the post D.None of the above share/E5/5A800000664000175000017500000000046512527167305011160 0ustar jtnjtn5A80 D In a receiver designed for both radiotelephone and radiotelegraph reception, how should the AVC control be set for reception of CW radiotelegraph signals? A.It's OFF position B.Fast AVC can be used to advantage in the reception of radiotelegraph signals C.To it's ON position for slow AVC D.Both A & B share/E5/5B1700000664000175000017500000000014312527167305011232 0ustar jtnjtn5B170 C What Q-signal would be used to say "Increase power"? A.QST B.QRT C.QRD D.None of the above share/E5/5B750000664000175000017500000000013112527167305011153 0ustar jtnjtn5B75 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Word(s)" or "group(s)" is: A.K B.W C.WA D.WB share/E5/5B430000664000175000017500000000022112527167305011146 0ustar jtnjtn5B43 C The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "I cannot furnish you with a bearing; the minimum of you signal is too broad" is: A.DS B.DP C.DT D.DY share/E5/5A700000664000175000017500000000047112527167305011154 0ustar jtnjtn5A70 C If you are called by another station, but you are busy and anticipate a delay in excess of 10 minutes, what should you do? A.Apologize for the delay B.Indicate the reason for the delay C.Indicate the reason for the delay and give the number of minutes of delay D.Ask the calling station to call back later share/E5/5A860000664000175000017500000000072012527167305011160 0ustar jtnjtn5A86 D Sometimes a radiotelegraph transmitting station can be heard at more than one place on the tuning dial of the receiver. What does this indicate? A.It is always an indication that the station is transmitting on more than one frequency B.That the receiver is being tuned to an image frequency C.The image frequency signal will be weaker than the signal level received when the receiver is set to the proper frequency of the transmitting station D.Both B & C share/E5/5B170000664000175000017500000000022612527167305011154 0ustar jtnjtn5B17 D The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "I cannot give you a bearing; you are not in the calibrated sector of the station" is: A.DC B.DF C.CS D.DB share/E5/5A1090000664000175000017500000000040412527167305011233 0ustar jtnjtn5A109 D A system whereby the receiving operator may interrupt the transmitting operator at any point is: A.A break in operation B.Accomplished with a relay which changes the antenna from receiving to transmitting C.Ineffective in general practice D.Both A & B share/E5/5B570000664000175000017500000000023112527167305011154 0ustar jtnjtn5B57 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation used by a coast station to request the position and next port of call of a mobile station is: A.P B.PTR C.PBL D.K share/E5/5A170000664000175000017500000000024012527167304011146 0ustar jtnjtn5A17 C Confidential radiotelegraph messages are often transmitted by means of: A.Roman numerals B.Q code signals only C.Cipher or code language D.Phillips code share/E5/5A180000664000175000017500000000045512527167304011157 0ustar jtnjtn5A18 D Collated words or numbers on a radiotelegram are: A.All chargeable words in the telegram B.Words or numbers sent in groups of five C.Long words or numbers broken up into two or more words or units D.Words or numbers in the telegram that are restated at the end of the telegram for verification share/E5/5B130000664000175000017500000000011712527167305011147 0ustar jtnjtn5B13 D The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Collate" is: A.CL B.CS C.CFM D.COL share/E5/5B1130000664000175000017500000000017112527167305011230 0ustar jtnjtn5B113 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Can you hear me between your signals?" A.QSK B.QRM C.QRT D.None of the above share/E5/5B1100000664000175000017500000000015412527167305011226 0ustar jtnjtn5B110 B What Q-signal would be used to ask " Are you a cargo vessel?" A.QRT B.QSC C.QRM D.None of the above share/E5/5B330000664000175000017500000000011012527167305011142 0ustar jtnjtn5B33 D What is the radiotelegraph signal for "YES"? A.BT B.IMI C.VA D.C share/E5/5B180000664000175000017500000000017212527167305011155 0ustar jtnjtn5B18 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "The minimum of your signal suitable for the bearing " is: A.DF B.DC C.DG D.DI share/E5/5B340000664000175000017500000000010512527167305011147 0ustar jtnjtn5B34 A What is the radiotelegraph signal for "?"? A.IMI B.C C.DE D.K share/E5/5B910000664000175000017500000000027612527167305011163 0ustar jtnjtn5B91 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "By what private enterprise (or state administration) are the accounts for changes for your station settled?" A.QRT B.QRN C.QRC D.None of the above share/E5/5B700000664000175000017500000000021212527167305011146 0ustar jtnjtn5B70 C The radiotelegraph abbreviation which constitutes the safety signal when sent three times is: A.TXT B.TU C.TTT D.None of the above share/E5/5A360000664000175000017500000000037212527167305011156 0ustar jtnjtn5A36 C As a general rule when sending a Distress Call by radiotelegraphy, the Distress Signal and call sign of the station in distress appear: A.Five times in each call B.Eight times in each call C.Three times in each call D.Seven times in each call share/E5/5B1270000664000175000017500000000017012527167305011234 0ustar jtnjtn5B127 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "How many telegrams have you to send?" A.QLT B.QTC C.QST D.None of the above share/E5/5B1330000664000175000017500000000014712527167305011235 0ustar jtnjtn5B133 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is your speed?" A.QQQ B.QTJ C.QTH D.None of the above share/E5/5B490000664000175000017500000000032412527167305011160 0ustar jtnjtn5B49 C The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Make a series of dashes if I may transmit, make a series of dots to stop my transmission" (not to be used on 500 kHz except in cases of distress) is: A.K B.DT C.JM D.P share/E5/5A500000664000175000017500000000027512527167305011154 0ustar jtnjtn5A50 B What signals are generally transmitted when testing a transmission? A.A series of "e"s B.A series of "v"s C.The word "Test" sent three times D.*** share/E5/5B560000664000175000017500000000011612527167305011155 0ustar jtnjtn5B56 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Preamble" is: A.PBL B.P C.PTR D.R share/E5/5A190000664000175000017500000000025112527167304011152 0ustar jtnjtn5A19 C A message requesting or giving information concerning another message is called a: A.Franked message B.Distress message C.Service message D.Paid deadhead message share/E5/5B1450000664000175000017500000000016612527167305011241 0ustar jtnjtn5B145 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Have you news of ____ (call sign)?" A.QRZ B.QTH C.QUA D.None of the above share/E5/5B960000664000175000017500000000015212527167305011161 0ustar jtnjtn5B96 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Does my frequency vary?" A.QRV B.QRH C.QRC D.None of the above share/E5/5B1550000664000175000017500000000021012527167305011230 0ustar jtnjtn5B155 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Can you tell me the swell observed at ____ (please)?" A.QUL B.QRS C.QST D.None of the above share/E5/5B1290000664000175000017500000000032412527167305011237 0ustar jtnjtn5B129 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Will you give me the position of my station according to the bearings taken by the direction-finding stations which you control?" A.QSL B.QQQ C.QTF D.None of the above share/E5/5B1690000664000175000017500000000017012527167305011242 0ustar jtnjtn5B169 A What Q-signal would be used to say "I am busy. Please do not interfere"? A.QRL B.QST C.QVV D.None of the above share/E5/5B220000664000175000017500000000013412527167305011146 0ustar jtnjtn5B22 D A signal which means "wait" in radiotelegraph communications is: A.DE B.CP C.BT D.AS share/E5/5A970000664000175000017500000000066012527167305011165 0ustar jtnjtn5A97 A The bearing supporting the vertical shaft on which the dot-dash levers are suspended on an automatic key (or bug) should be adjusted up or down until the movable dot contact on the vibrator arm: A.Makes accurate full-face contact with the stationary dot contact on the post B.Makes partial contact with the stationary dot contact on the post C.Makes no contact with the stationary dot contact on the post D.None of the above share/E5/5B830000664000175000017500000000011612527167305011155 0ustar jtnjtn5B83 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Address" is: A.AD B.ADS C.AA D.AS share/E5/5A660000664000175000017500000000011212527167305011151 0ustar jtnjtn5A66 C The "Q" signal for "stop sending..." is? A.QRT? B.QRU? C.QRT D.QRU share/E5/5B1030000664000175000017500000000015512527167305011231 0ustar jtnjtn5B103 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I send more slowly?" A.QRT B.QST C.QRS D.None of the above share/E5/5A1120000664000175000017500000000033412527167305011227 0ustar jtnjtn5A112 B A service prefix of a radiotelegraph message: A.Indicates which branch of service the message originated in B.Contains direction for handling C.Tells the operator how fast to send the message D.None of the above share/E5/5B160000664000175000017500000000013112527167305011146 0ustar jtnjtn5B16 C The radiotelegraph abbreviation used to request a call sign is: A.C B.BF C.CS D.B share/E5/5B150000664000175000017500000000014112527167305011146 0ustar jtnjtn5B15 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation for a general call to all stations is: A.CQ B.CP C.CS D.C share/E5/5B120000664000175000017500000000016212527167305011146 0ustar jtnjtn5B12 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation used for "I am closing my station" is: A.COL B.CL C.CS D.None of the above share/E5/5A670000664000175000017500000000020612527167305011156 0ustar jtnjtn5A67 B If the signal strength of a radiotelegraph signal is reported on a scale of 1-5, what is the strongest signal? A.1 B.4 C.3 D.2 share/E5/5B270000664000175000017500000000021112527167305011147 0ustar jtnjtn5B27 B What is the radiotelegraph urgency signal? A.Three dots, three dashes and three dots continuously B.XXX C.TTT D.None of the above share/E5/5A160000664000175000017500000000035112527167304011150 0ustar jtnjtn5A16 B Word count in a radiotelegram indicates: A.The charge for each word B.The number of chargeable words in the radiotelegram C.That the radiotelegram has been paid D.That numbers or odd symbols in the telegram have been collated share/E5/5A630000664000175000017500000000012712527167305011154 0ustar jtnjtn5A63 A The "Q" signal for "The name of my station is..." is: A.QRA B.QRH? C.QRI? D.QSB share/E5/5B1090000664000175000017500000000015212527167305011234 0ustar jtnjtn5B109 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Are my signals fading?" A.QSB B.QRT C.QSL D.None of the above share/E5/5B1040000664000175000017500000000015512527167305011232 0ustar jtnjtn5B104 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Have you anything for me?" A.QSO B.QRT C.QRU D.None of the above share/E5/5A140000664000175000017500000000023212527167304011144 0ustar jtnjtn5A14 D The preamble to a radiotelegram usually contains the: A.Address for delivery B.Signature of sender C.Name of the operator on duty D.Date of filing share/E5/5A530000664000175000017500000000022712527167305011154 0ustar jtnjtn5A53 A What is a coded designation that appears as a group of letters in the preamble? A.Service indicator B.Ciphers C.Handling directions D.Signature share/E5/5B1260000664000175000017500000000017312527167305011236 0ustar jtnjtn5B126 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Do you agree with my counting of words?" A.QTB B.QRS C.QRB D.None of the above share/E5/5B1680000664000175000017500000000016312527167305011243 0ustar jtnjtn5B168 A What Q-signal would be used to say "The name of my station is ____"? A.QRA B.QRL C.QRT D.None of the above share/E5/5B1320000664000175000017500000000015412527167305011232 0ustar jtnjtn5B132 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is your true track?" A.QTI B.QTH C.QLM D.None of the above share/E5/5B480000664000175000017500000000013512527167305011157 0ustar jtnjtn5B48 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "The punctuation counts" is: A.ITP B.DZ C.NIL D.K share/E5/5B1720000664000175000017500000000021012527167305011227 0ustar jtnjtn5B172 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "I have been unable to break in on your transmission"? A.QSI B.QTH C.QRZ D.None of the above share/E5/5B460000664000175000017500000000013112527167305011151 0ustar jtnjtn5B46 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Here" is: A.ER B.DE C.DT D.None of the above share/E5/5B1340000664000175000017500000000023712527167305011236 0ustar jtnjtn5B134 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is the speed of your aircraft in relation to the surface of the earth?" A.QTH B.QTK C.QRZ D.None of the above share/E5/5B1400000664000175000017500000000015512527167305011232 0ustar jtnjtn5B140 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is the correct time?" A.QRS B.QTH C.QTR D.None of the above share/E5/5A520000664000175000017500000000020212527167305011144 0ustar jtnjtn5A52 D What does the radiotelegraph message contain in addition to the preamble? A.Address B.Text C.Signatures D.All of the above share/E5/5A720000664000175000017500000000034312527167305011154 0ustar jtnjtn5A72 A The procedure of radiotelegraph transmission in which one station answers the call of another is...? A.KMEX KMEX KMEX DE WCXY WCXY WCXY R K B.KMEX DE WCXY R C.KMEX KMEX KMEX DE WCXY WCXY WCXY RRR D.KMEX KMEX DE WCXY IMI share/E5/5B230000664000175000017500000000015412527167305011151 0ustar jtnjtn5B23 D An operating signal used to mean "repeat" in radiotelegraph communications is: A.BT B.GR C.QUM D.RPT share/E5/5B550000664000175000017500000000014112527167305011152 0ustar jtnjtn5B55 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "We agree (or it is correct)" is: A.PBL B.P C.PTR D.R share/E5/5B1590000664000175000017500000000030712527167305011243 0ustar jtnjtn5B159 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I train my searchlights nearby vertical on a cloud... deflect the beam up wind and on the water to facilitate your landing?" A.QUQ B.QRZ C.QRT D.QSO share/E5/5A790000664000175000017500000000033512527167305011164 0ustar jtnjtn5A79 B What kind of operation allows two stations to interrupt each other, informing the sending station immediately when the receiving station has missed a part of the message? A.Override B.Break in C.Duplex D.Interrupt share/E5/5A930000664000175000017500000000026312527167305011160 0ustar jtnjtn5A93 D With a "bug": A.Dashes are made manually B.The dot speed is set by weights on the arm of the "bug" C.Dot-contact speed of usually about 1/8 inch is used D.All of the above share/E5/5B1640000664000175000017500000000017112527167305011236 0ustar jtnjtn5B164 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is my magnetic bearing from you?" A.QTH B.QSL C.QUV D.None of the above share/E5/5B940000664000175000017500000000015512527167305011162 0ustar jtnjtn5B94 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Are you returning to ____?" A.QRL B.QRF C.QRK D.None of the above share/E5/5A690000664000175000017500000000056712527167305011172 0ustar jtnjtn5A69 B If you are called by another station, but you are busy with other traffic, what should you do? A.Acknowledge the call B.Acknowledge the call and conclude by indicating a number signifying the number of minutes delay C.Acknowledge the call and conclude by a number signifying the order in which the traffic will be answered D.Ask the calling station to call back later share/E5/5B1580000664000175000017500000000026612527167305011246 0ustar jtnjtn5B158 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Will you indicate your position by (1. Searchlights; 2. Black smoke trail; 3. Pyrotechnic lights)?" A.QUP B.QSO C.QRT D.None of the above share/E5/5A620000664000175000017500000000033112527167305011150 0ustar jtnjtn5A62 A In using "Q" signals to ask a question, you: A.Follow the Q signal with a question mark B.Prefix the Q signal with a question mark C.Send a Q signal twice D.Assume the receiving operator knows it as a question share/E5/5B1230000664000175000017500000000021012527167305011223 0ustar jtnjtn5B123 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Shall I change to transmission on another frequency?" A.QSV B.QST C.QSY D.None of the above share/E5/5B40000664000175000017500000000012612527167305011067 0ustar jtnjtn5B4 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "end of transmission" is: A.AA B.AR C.K D.C share/E5/5B900000664000175000017500000000020112527167305011146 0ustar jtnjtn5B90 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "How far approximately are you from my station?" A.QRN B.QRB C.QRX D.None of the above share/E5/5A490000664000175000017500000000026712527167305011165 0ustar jtnjtn5A49 B If a radiotelegraph operator makes an error in transmitting message text, he may indicate that an error has been made by sending: A.Error B.A series of 8 or 9 dots C.IMI D.XXX share/E5/5A150000664000175000017500000000027212527167304011151 0ustar jtnjtn5A15 D The service prefix on a radiotelegram is used to indicate the: A.Office or origin B.Destination of the telegram C.Serial number of the telegram D.Class of handling or charge rate share/E5/5B1210000664000175000017500000000024612527167305011232 0ustar jtnjtn5B121 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "Will you send on this frequency {or ___ kHz (or MHz)} with emissions of class ___?" A.QSW B.QRL C.QRT D.None of the above share/E5/5A1070000664000175000017500000000032012527167305011226 0ustar jtnjtn5A107 D To obtain maximum response to weak signals in a super-heterodyne receiver: A.R-F gain control should be fully advanced B.BFO control varied for the clearest tone C.ABC switched off D.All of the above share/E5/5A230000664000175000017500000000051212527167304011145 0ustar jtnjtn5A23 D If you are standing by because other stations have been carrying on distress traffic and you hear one of them transmitting a general call followed by QUM, you would know that: A.There has been great loss of life and property B.The distress is becoming more severe C.You should transmit QRT D.The distress traffic has ended share/E5/5A110000664000175000017500000000020312527167304011137 0ustar jtnjtn5A11 C If a radiotelegraph station transmits 1 - .... - 2, the receiving operator would copy: A.1, I/2 B.I/2 C.l l/2 D.1 minus 1/2 share/E5/5B260000664000175000017500000000020112527167305011145 0ustar jtnjtn5B26 A What is the radio distress signal? A.Three dots, three dashes and three dots continuously B.XXX C.TTT D.None of the above share/E5/5A1050000664000175000017500000000066712527167305011242 0ustar jtnjtn5A105 A The dot speed adjustment weight of an automatic key (or bug) should be set: A.So that the practical operating speeds from 20 to 40 wpm, there will be a dot speed of from 8 to 16 dots per second B.So that for practical operating speeds from 10 to 20 wpm, there will be a dot speed of from 16 to 30 dots per second C.So that for practical operating speed of 16 wpm, there will be a dot speed of 16 dots per second D.All of the above share/E5/5B1110000664000175000017500000000015412527167305011227 0ustar jtnjtn5B111 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Is my keying defective ?" A.QRN B.QST C.QSD D.None of the above share/E5/5B1300000664000175000017500000000030412527167305011225 0ustar jtnjtn5B130 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "Will you send two dashes of 10 seconds each followed by your call sign (repeat ___ times) {on ___ kHz (or MHz)}?" A.QSL B.QSV C.QTG D.None of the above share/E5/5B1190000664000175000017500000000022512527167305011236 0ustar jtnjtn5B119 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Have you a doctor on board {or ... Is (name of person) on board}?" A.QST B.QSQ C.QRT D.None of the above share/E5/5A440000664000175000017500000000060012527167305011147 0ustar jtnjtn5A44 C An eligible person may: A.Hold two unexpired radiotelegraph operator's certificates at the same time B.Hold a second class radiotelegraph operator's certificate and a marine radio operator's permit C.Hold only one class of valid radiotelegraph operator's certificate D.Hold a second class radiotelegraph operator's certificate and a restricted radiotelephone operator's permit share/E5/5A640000664000175000017500000000013412527167305011153 0ustar jtnjtn5A64 B The "Q" signal for "Are you being interfered with?..." is? A.QRM B.QRM? C.QRN D.QRN? share/E5/5B760000664000175000017500000000012712527167305011161 0ustar jtnjtn5B76 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Word after ___" is/: A.WA B.?WA C.WB D.?WB share/E5/5A120000664000175000017500000000030012527167304011136 0ustar jtnjtn5A12 C The preamble of a radiotelegram is usually prepared by the: A.Central accounting office B.Office where delivery is made C.Office of origin of the message D.Person who signs the message share/E5/5A400000664000175000017500000000046612527167305011155 0ustar jtnjtn5A40 D As a general rule radiotelegrams transmitted by a ship radiotelegraph station are to be numbered in a separate series for the traffic: A.Each year to each separate land station B.Each six months from the mobile station C.Each month to each separate land station D.Each day to each separate land station share/E5/5B840000664000175000017500000000015612527167305011162 0ustar jtnjtn5B84 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "All between ____ and ____" is: A.BC B.AB C.BN D.None of the above share/E5/5A240000664000175000017500000000012112527167304011142 0ustar jtnjtn5A24 B QRL means: A.Stand by B.I am busy C.Stop sending D.I have nothing for you share/E5/5B870000664000175000017500000000021312527167305011157 0ustar jtnjtn5B87 A The radiotelegraph abbreviation with no question mark is: A.A statement B.A questionable procedure C.Never used D.None of the above share/E5/5B810000664000175000017500000000016412527167305011156 0ustar jtnjtn5B81 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "All sent before a specific word" is: A.AA B.AB C.AR D.None of the above share/E5/5A950000664000175000017500000000030012527167305011152 0ustar jtnjtn5A95 C With a "bug": A.Dots are made manually B.The dash speed is set by weights on the arm of the "bug" C.Contact spacing of the dash arm is set between 1/32 and 1/16 inch D.All of the above share/E5/5B880000664000175000017500000000024712527167305011167 0ustar jtnjtn5B88 B To make a radiotelegraph abbreviation a question: A.Follow it with a question mark B.Proceed it with a question mark C.Use no question mark D.None of the above share/E5/5B1280000664000175000017500000000016512527167305011241 0ustar jtnjtn5B128 C What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is my true bearing from you?" A.QRZ B.QSM C.QTE D.None of the above share/E5/5A1040000664000175000017500000000063712527167305011236 0ustar jtnjtn5A104 D The dot speed adjustment weight of an automatic key (or bug) should be set: A.So that the instrument makes dots at a speed proportioned to the speed at which the operator normally makes dashes B.So that about 3 dots are made in the same time the operator makes one dash C.So that for practical operating speeds from 20 to 40 wpm, there will be a dot speed of from 8 to 16 dots per second D.All of the above share/E5/5A680000664000175000017500000000020412527167305011155 0ustar jtnjtn5A68 A If the signal strength of a radiotelegraph signal is reported on a scale of 1-5, what is the weakest signal? A.1 B.4 C.3 D.2 share/E5/5B370000664000175000017500000000020012527167305011146 0ustar jtnjtn5B37 C The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Please advise me if you note an error in the bearing given" is: A.DI B.DC C.DG D.DF share/E5/5B930000664000175000017500000000015412527167305011160 0ustar jtnjtn5B93 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is your ETA at ____?" A.QRE B.QRD C.QRF D.None of the above share/E5/5B310000664000175000017500000000011512527167305011145 0ustar jtnjtn5B31 C What is the radiotelegraph signal for "Waiting"? A.CQ B.BT C.AS D.IMI share/E5/5B970000664000175000017500000000016612527167305011167 0ustar jtnjtn5B97 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "How is the tone of my transmission?" A.QRI B.QRL C.QSV D.None of the above share/E5/5B1500000664000175000017500000000015712527167305011235 0ustar jtnjtn5B150 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "Will you be forced to land?" A.QRL B.QUG C.QSV D.None of the above share/E5/5A540000664000175000017500000000044012527167305011152 0ustar jtnjtn5A54 A Word count or check in a radiotelegraph message usually indicates: A.The number of words that will be charged B.The total number of words in the preamble and text C.The total number of words in the text and signature D.The total number of words in the preamble, text and signature share/E5/5B600000664000175000017500000000015312527167305011151 0ustar jtnjtn5B60 B The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "I repeated or Repeat" is: A.REF B.RPT C.RQ D.None of the above share/E5/5B1120000664000175000017500000000026112527167305011227 0ustar jtnjtn5B112 B What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is the charge to be collected per word to ____ including your internal telegraph charge?" A.QRL B.QSJ C.QRA D.None of the above share/E5/5A20000664000175000017500000000046112527167304011065 0ustar jtnjtn5A2 C Technical adjustments to a radiotelegraph transmitter at a land station may be made by: A.Any representative of the station licensee B.The holder of a restricted radiotelephone permit C.The holder of a second class radiotelegraph license D.Any holder of a radiotelegraph third class operator permit share/E5/5B1080000664000175000017500000000016712527167305011241 0ustar jtnjtn5B108 A What Q-signal would be used to ask "What is the strength of my signals?" A.QSA B.QSD C.QSC D.None of the above share/E5/5A840000664000175000017500000000037512527167305011164 0ustar jtnjtn5A84 A How would you adjust a radiotelegraph receiver from the transmission of A2 emissions? A.Turn off the BFO and adjust the receiver from the reception of the tone-modulated signal B.Employ the slit frequency divider C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E5/5A420000664000175000017500000000056612527167305011160 0ustar jtnjtn5A42 A A land station receiving a distress message must immediately take the necessary action to: A.Notify the authorities participating in the operation of rescue facilities B.Ask the steamship port office for permission to retransmit the distress message, if necessary C.Call CQ and give the location of the land station immediately D.Retransmit the message without delay share/E5/5A910000664000175000017500000000032112527167305011151 0ustar jtnjtn5A91 A Proper alignment and free vertical movement of the arm of a manual radiotelegraph transmitting relay are accomplished by: A.Side adjustments B.1/4 inch contact openings C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E5/5A1010000664000175000017500000000033512527167305011226 0ustar jtnjtn5A101 C The spacing of the stationary dash contact of an automatic key (or bug) should: A.Be adjusted to about 1/16 to 1/32 of an inch B.Be adjusted to suit the sending style of the operator C.Both A & B D.Neither A or B share/E5/5B190000664000175000017500000000027312527167305011160 0ustar jtnjtn5B19 D The radiotelegraph abbreviation for "Your bearings at