hamexam.10000644000175000017500000000465212113421214010726 0ustar jtnjtn.TH HAMEXAM 1 .SH NAME hamexam \- Study guide for USA FCC amateur radio (ham radio) license examinations. .SH SYNOPSIS .B hamexam {t,g,e,q} .SH DESCRIPTION .B hamexam presents questions in random order from the selected question pool, and terminates when all questions have been answered correctly. The session may be interrupted with ^C, and resumed later. Some questions refer to figures. The figures for the selected question pool are displayed in a separate window using $PNG_VIEWER, if it is executable. If $PNG_VIEWER is undefined, eog(1), gwenview(1), gpicview(1), ristretto(1), will be used, whichever is first found to be an executable command. If $PNG_VIEWER is not an executable command (e.g. ""), or if none of the other viewers are installed, then questions which refer to figures will be noted and skipped. Licenses are issued by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC), but examinations are administered by Volunteer Examiners. .SH OPTIONS If no pool is specified, usage, version, and help information is displayed. In normal usage, one of the following options should be specified: .IP .B t Element 2, the Technician Class pool. This is the entry-level license. .B g Element 3, the General Class pool (element 2 is also required). .B e Element 4, the Extra Class pool (elements 2 and 3 are also required). .B q The question pool is selected interactively. .SH FILES A directory ~/.hamexam is created to hold the names of the questions which remain to be answered correctly. .SH SEE ALSO For more information regarding licensing, ref. http://www.arrl.org/licensing-preparation-exams For information regarding the question pools, ref. http://www.ncvec.org/ .SH COPYRIGHT .B hamexam is Copyright (c) 2011-2013 John Nogatch . .B hamexam version 1.2.1 This program is free software; you can redistribute it and/or modify it under the terms of the GNU General Public License as published by the Free Software Foundation; either version 2 of the License, or (at your option) any later version. This program is distributed in the hope that it will be useful, but WITHOUT ANY WARRANTY; without even the implied warranty of MERCHANTABILITY or FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR PURPOSE. See the GNU General Public License for more details. .SH BUGS The question pools are normally good for 4 years, but are sometimes modified; ref. http://www.ncvec.org/ .B hamexam does not automatically update the question pools from the VEC Web site. hamexam.desktop0000644000175000017500000000026111703343073012241 0ustar jtnjtn[Desktop Entry] Name=hamexam GenericName=hamexam Comment=Ham Radio Examination trainer Exec=hamexam q Icon=hamexam Terminal=true Type=Application Categories=Education;HamRadio; hamexam.png0000644000175000017500000000252111705373737011371 0ustar jtnjtnPNG  IHDR00WsBIT|d pHYsbb_'StEXtSoftwarewww.inkscape.org<IDAThmEvti4zav5{ " hÖ>%a#)$ZwH@ tLVB47*65^Las.{`x<3s9?-0L`: TsT])v8 \zu#0ͳ~~O` Zk `<]y0f_#k-AGN$6q;Am<|` 0|0Ri_t#p\o3Gť.dRF񔅥XBR~`Gn0u`|`+yZN+lmN}>ϓ/U4q]v;mRlk}yپ(%+K? ?Wts[]S9+~? !x)2F0y+2eӯBdqfj+ yp( 84 _B%:;}ڏAٟ! ܤ`cs9 Yo 0Şϣx{ /欓Vyu7W{>Wz6<~ʃh!m3Pc׫u'g9S;8uULUNPmsQޣu X)=Î &.@yH&f`D#Z>-&zCAlrBbg2U˕o3WoHZ0S#B1$`3\IkQ}Zltx/49`;_})aU02S[{ `>^s\ mln$5 os LV)0שL0\|3QǶ5g[6q3ʇBE ثː;Fˁ5Hѱ.g`"w\KDߦv94$v?B"iӌP@G>`w;biC }7[[( &M/s5M%od,=4Dc6"F⒛$JPra0`AiAa%u"ȵ][)J\KKcct }G\rwO) t&WjM|p K&!_h #>Dpdy4HWjPTsTsTs4yTIENDB`hamexam.svg0000644000175000017500000000631511705375457011412 0ustar jtnjtn image/svg+xml EXAM HAM T G E Makefile0000644000175000017500000000116211703400033010655 0ustar jtnjtnbuild: echo "null build" clean: echo "null clean" dist: rm -f hamexam.orig.tar.gz tar zcvf hamexam.orig.tar.gz --exclude debian * install: mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share cp -r share $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/hamexam mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/bin ln -s ../share/hamexam/hamexam $(DESTDIR)/usr/bin/hamexam mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/man/man1 gzip -c hamexam.1 > $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/man/man1/hamexam.1.gz mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/applications cp hamexam.desktop $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/applications/hamexam.desktop mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/pixmaps cp hamexam.png $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/pixmaps/hamexam.png share/0000755000175000017500000000000012113704546010333 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E20120131.txt0000644000175000017500000065262111712773437012117 0ustar jtnjtnNCVEC PUBLIC DOMAIN RELEASE – REVISED January 31, 2012 2012-2016 ELEMENT 4 EXTRA CLASS QUESTION POOL Effective July 1, 2012 to June 30, 2016 Errata – January 31, 2012 to the December 13, 2011 Release E1A06 – Corrected wording of question and distractor B to: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band? A. Working DX is not permitted B. Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels C. Operation is restricted to LSB D. All of these choices are correct E1C09 - Correction in the question: Changed "Mhz" to "MHz" E1E05 - Correction of missing wording in distractor D: Minimum passing score of 77% E2A14 – Deleted question E2D11 - Changed wording of question and distractors to: Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location? A. Polar coordinates B. Time and frequency C. Radio direction finding LOPs D. Latitude and longitude E3C01 – Changed wording of distractor C: New wording: C. CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise E3C06 - Change wording of question: By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? E3C07 - Correction in the question: "it's" to "its" E3C09 - Changed distractor D: to Ground wave E4B09 - Correction of the word feedline to feed line in distractors  E4D01 - Changed wording of distractor A: A. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression E5C22 - Correction to answers A and B: Removed extra spaces in values E5D17 - Correctly renumbered question to E5D16 E5D18 – Correction in wording of question: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA? E6A08 - Changed wording in question to "grounded-base": hyphenated E6D05 - Correction of missing word in distractor B: A display using a crystalline liquid which, in conjunction with polarizing filters, becomes opaque when voltage is applied E6E07 - Change wording of question to: Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier? E7A15 - Removed the “?” at end of distractor A E7B08 - Changed wording in distractor C: C. By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input E7C12 - Changed “pi”-L to Pi-L in question and to Pi in distractor B E7C13 - Correction in wording of question: capitalization changes in distractors A, B and C: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor? A. The Q of Pi networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen B. L networks can not perform impedance transformation C. Pi networks have fewer components D. Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output E7G13 - Change wording of distractor C to: The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero E8D06 - Correction of hyphenated word feed-line in C: changed to feed line. Removed quotations in distractor D: "flat-topping" E9 Syllabus title - Corrected: ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES in both syllabus outline and E9 section of pool E9B11 - Correction of hyphenated word feed-point in C: changed to feed point E9E03 - Changed wording of question: What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point? E9E07 - Correction of typo in D: "constant" should not be capitalized E9E09, E9E10, E9E11, E9E12 - Corrections of hyphenated feed-line and conjoined use of feedline’; changed all instances to “feed line” in questions and/or answers E9E12 - removed quotations around "phasing line" in question ~~~ end of errata~~~ SYLLABUS SUBELEMENT E1 - COMMISSION’S RULES [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups] E1A Operating Standards: frequency privileges; emission standards; automatic message forwarding; frequency sharing; stations aboard ships or aircraft E1B Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating restrictions, spurious emissions, control operator reimbursement; antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations E1C Station control: definitions and restrictions pertaining to local, automatic and remote control operation; control operator responsibilities for remote and automatically controlled stations E1D Amateur Satellite service: definitions and purpose; license requirements for space stations; available frequencies and bands; telecommand and telemetry operations; restrictions, and special provisions; notification requirements E1E Volunteer examiner program: definitions, qualifications, preparation and administration of exams; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements E1F Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; national quiet zone; business communications; compensated communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary stations; reciprocal operating privileges; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party communications with foreign countries; special temporary authority SUBELEMENT E2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups] E2A Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and modes; satellite hardware; satellite operations E2B Television practices: fast scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards and techniques E2C Operating methods: contest and DX operating; spread-spectrum transmissions; selecting an operating frequency E2D Operating methods: VHF and UHF digital modes; APRS E2E Operating methods: operating HF digital modes; error correction SUBELEMENT E3 - RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups] E3A Propagation and technique, Earth-Moon-Earth communications; meteor scatter E3B Propagation and technique, trans-equatorial; long path; gray-line; multi-path propagation E3C Propagation and technique, Aurora propagation; selective fading; radio-path horizon; take-off angle over flat or sloping terrain; effects of ground on propagation; less common propagation modes SUBELEMENT E4 - AMATEUR PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups] E4A Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum and network analyzers, antenna analyzers; oscilloscopes; testing transistors; RF measurements E4B Measurement technique and limitations: instrument accuracy and performance limitations; probes; techniques to minimize errors; measurement of "Q"; instrument calibration E4C Receiver performance characteristics, phase noise, capture effect, noise floor, image rejection, MDS, signal-to-noise-ratio; selectivity E4D Receiver performance characteristics, blocking dynamic range, intermodulation and cross-modulation interference; 3rd order intercept; desensitization; preselection E4E Noise suppression: system noise; electrical appliance noise; line noise; locating noise sources; DSP noise reduction; noise blankers SUBELEMENT E5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups] E5A Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits: series and parallel resonance; Q; half-power bandwidth; phase relationships in reactive circuits E5B Time constants and phase relationships: RLC time constants: definition; time constants in RL and RC circuits; phase angle between voltage and current; phase angles of series and parallel circuits E5C Impedance plots and coordinate systems: plotting impedances in polar coordinates; rectangular coordinates E5D AC and RF energy in real circuits: skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic fields; reactive power; power factor; coordinate systems SUBELEMENT E6 - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups] E6A Semiconductor materials and devices: semiconductor materials germanium, silicon, P-type, N-type; transistor types: NPN, PNP, junction, field-effect transistors: enhancement mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel E6B Semiconductor diodes E6C Integrated circuits: TTL digital integrated circuits; CMOS digital integrated circuits; gates E6D Optical devices and toroids: cathode-ray tube devices; charge-coupled devices (CCDs); liquid crystal displays (LCDs); toroids: permeability, core material, selecting, winding E6E Piezoelectric crystals and MMICs: quartz crystals; crystal oscillators and filters; monolithic amplifiers E6F Optical components and power systems: photoconductive principles and effects, photovoltaic systems, optical couplers, optical sensors, and optoisolators SUBELEMENT E7 - PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E7A Digital circuits: digital circuit principles and logic circuits: classes of logic elements; positive and negative logic; frequency dividers; truth tables E7B Amplifiers: Class of operation; vacuum tube and solid-state circuits; distortion and intermodulation; spurious and parasitic suppression; microwave amplifiers E7C Filters and matching networks: filters and impedance matching networks: types of networks; types of filters; filter applications; filter characteristics; impedance matching; DSP filtering E7D Power supplies and voltage regulators E7E Modulation and demodulation: reactance, phase and balanced modulators; detectors; mixer stages; DSP modulation and demodulation; software defined radio systems E7F Frequency markers and counters: frequency divider circuits; frequency marker generators; frequency counters E7G Active filters and op-amps: active audio filters; characteristics; basic circuit design; operational amplifiers E7H Oscillators and signal sources: types of oscillators; synthesizers and phase-locked loops; direct digital synthesizers SUBELEMENT E8 - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups] E8A AC waveforms: sine, square, sawtooth and irregular waveforms; AC measurements; average and PEP of RF signals; pulse and digital signal waveforms E8B Modulation and demodulation: modulation methods; modulation index and deviation ratio; pulse modulation; frequency and time division multiplexing E8C Digital signals: digital communications modes; CW; information rate vs. bandwidth; spread-spectrum communications; modulation methods E8D Waves, measurements, and RF grounding: peak-to-peak values, polarization; RF grounding SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Isotropic and gain antennas: definition; used as a standard for comparison; radiation pattern; basic antenna parameters: radiation resistance and reactance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency E9B Antenna patterns: E and H plane patterns; gain as a function of pattern; antenna design; Yagi antennas E9C Wire and phased vertical antennas: beverage antennas; terminated and resonant rhombic antennas; elevation above real ground; ground effects as related to polarization; take-off angles E9D Directional antennas: gain; satellite antennas; antenna beamwidth; losses; SWR bandwidth; antenna efficiency; shortened and mobile antennas; grounding E9E Matching: matching antennas to feed lines; power dividers E9F Transmission lines: characteristics of open and shorted feed lines: 1/8 wavelength; 1/4 wavelength; 1/2 wavelength; feed lines: coax versus open-wire; velocity factor; electrical length; transformation characteristics of line terminated in impedance not equal to characteristic impedance E9G The Smith chart E9H Effective radiated power; system gains and losses; radio direction finding antennas SUBELEMENT E0 – SAFETY - [1 exam question -– 1 group] E0A Safety: amateur radio safety practices; RF radiation hazards; hazardous materials ~~ End of Syllabus ~~ 2012-2016 ELEMENT 4 EXTRA CLASS QUESTION POOL As Modified January 30, 2012 to be Effective July 1, 2012 - June 30, 2016 SUBELEMENT E1 - COMMISSION’S RULES [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups] E1A Operating Standards: frequency privileges; emission standards; automatic message forwarding; frequency sharing; stations aboard ships or aircraft E1A01 (D) [97.301, 97.305] When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band? A. The exact upper band edge B. 300 Hz below the upper band edge C. 1 kHz below the upper band edge D. 3 kHz below the upper band edge ~~ E1A02 (D) [97.301, 97.305] When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band? A. The exact lower band edge B. 300 Hz above the lower band edge C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge ~~ E1A03 (C) [97.301, 97.305] With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency? A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz ~~ E1A04 (C) [97.301, 97.305] With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency? A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz ~~ E1A05 (C) [97.313] What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band? A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator ~~ E1A06 (B) [97.303] Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band? A. Working DX is not permitted B. Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels C. Operation is restricted to LSB D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1A07 (D) [97.303] What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted? A. 12 meter band B. 17 meter band C. 30 meter band D. 60 meter band ~~ E1A08 (B) [97.219] If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation? A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station B. The control operator of the originating station C. The control operators of all the stations in the system D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications ~~ E1A09 (A) [97.219] What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules? A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules C. Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer’s office D. Discontinue forwarding all messages ~~ E1A10 (A) [97.11] If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated? A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft B. The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use C. It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply D. Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license ~~ E1A11 (B) [97.5] What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters? A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement B. Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an alien amateur licensee C. Only General class or higher amateur licenses D. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit ~~ E1A12 (C) [97.301, 97.305] With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency? A. Yes, the DX station initiated the contact B. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment C. No, sidebands from the CW signal will be out of the band. D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz ~~ E1A13 (B) [97.5] Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States? A. Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio B. Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation C. Only a person named in an amateur station license grant D. Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit ~~ E1B Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating restrictions; spurious emissions, control operator reimbursement; antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations E1B01 (D) [97.3] Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission? A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification B. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient C. Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted ~~ E1B02 (D) [97.13] Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted? A. The location is near an area of political conflict B. The location is of geographical or horticultural importance C. The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments D. The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture ~~ E1B03 (A) [97.13] Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference? A. 1 mile B. 3 miles C. 10 miles D. 30 miles ~~ E1B04 (C) [97.13, 1.1305-1.1319] What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places? A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior ~~ E1B05 (D) [97.303] What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters? A. 60 Hz B. 170 Hz C. 1.5 kHz D. 2.8 kHz ~~ E1B06 (A) [97.15] Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport? A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority ~~ E1B07 (B) [97.15] Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation? A. At the lowest frequency of the channel B. At the center frequency of the channel C. At the highest frequency of the channel D. On any frequency where the signal’s sidebands are within the channel ~~ E1B08 (D) [97.121] What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design? A. The amateur station must cease operation B. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz C. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz D. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference ~~ E1B09 (C) [97.407] Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES? A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) ~~ E1B10 (A) [97.407] What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES? A. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands C. Specific local government channels D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels ~~ E1B11 (A) [97.307] What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ? A. At least 43 dB below B. At least 53 dB below C. At least 63 dB below D. At least 73 dB below ~~ E1B12 (B) [97.307] What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation? A. .5 B. 1.0 C. 2.0 D. 3.0 ~~ E1C Station Control: Definitions and restrictions pertaining to local, automatic and remote control operation; control operator responsibilities for remote and automatically controlled stations E1C01 (D) [97.3] What is a remotely controlled station? A. A station operated away from its regular home location B. A station controlled by someone other than the licensee C. A station operating under automatic control D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link ~~ E1C02 (A) [97.3, 97.109] What is meant by automatic control of a station? A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically C. Remotely controlling a station’s antenna pattern through a directional control link D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station ~~ E1C03 (B) [97.3, 97.109] How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control? A. Under local control there is no control operator B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point C. Under automatic control there is no control operator D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point ~~ E1C04 (B) [97.109] When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications? A. Never B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration ~~ E1C05 (A) [97.109] When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications? A. Never B. Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration ~~ E1C06 (C) [97.109] Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true? A. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station B. A control operator need not be present at the control point C. A control operator must be present at the control point D. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled ~~ E1C07 (C) [97.3] What is meant by local control? A. Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link B. Automatically manipulating local station controls C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator D. Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver ~~ E1C08 (B) [97.213] What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctions? A. 30 seconds B. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 10 minutes ~~ E1C09 (D) [97.205] Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz? A. 18.110 - 18.168 MHz B. 24.940 - 24.990 MHz C. 10.100 - 10.150 MHz D. 29.500 - 29.700 MHz ~~ E1C10 (B) [97.113] What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations? A. Only beacon, repeater or space stations B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations C. Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft D. Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations ~~ E1D Amateur Satellite service: definitions and purpose; license requirements for space stations; available frequencies and bands; telecommand and telemetry operations; restrictions and special provisions; notification requirements E1D01 (A) [97.3] What is the definition of the term telemetry? A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument B. Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet C. Two-way single channel transmissions of data D. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance ~~ E1D02 (C) [97.3] What is the amateur satellite service? A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites C. A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast ~~ E1D03 (B) [97.3] What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service? A. An amateur station located on the Earth’s surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth’s surface D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space ~~ E1D04 (A) [97.3] What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service? A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth ~~ E1D05 (C) [97.207] What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station? A. All except Technician Class B. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class C. All classes D. Only Amateur Extra Class ~~ E1D06 (A) [97.207] Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements? A. The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1D07 (A) [97.207] Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations? A. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m B. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands C. 40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands D. All HF bands ~~ E1D08 (D) [97.207] Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations? A. 6 meters and 2 meters B. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters D. 2 meters ~~ E1D09 (B) [97.207] Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station? A. 70 cm B. 70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm C. 70 cm and 33 cm D. 33 cm and 13 cm ~~ E1D10 (B) [97.211] Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations? A. Any amateur station designated by NASA B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1D11 (D) [97.209] Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? A. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC’s International Bureau B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator ~~ E1E Volunteer examiner program: definitions; qualifications; preparation and administration of exams; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements E1E01 (D) [97.509] What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination? A. 5 B. 2 C. 4 D. 3 ~~ E1E02 (C) [97.523] Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed? A. In FCC Part 97 B. In a question pool maintained by the FCC C. In a question pool maintained by all the VECs D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order ~~ E1E03 (C) [97.521] What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager ~~ E1E04 (D) [97.509, 97.525] Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process? A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner ~~ E1E05 (B) [97.503] What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations? A. Minimum passing score of 70% B. Minimum passing score of 74% C. Minimum passing score of 80% D. Minimum passing score of 77% ~~ E1E06 (C) [97.509] Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session? A. The VEC coordinating the session B. The FCC C. Each administering VE D. The VE session manager ~~ E1E07 (B) [97.509] What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license examination? A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination B. Immediately terminate the candidate’s examination C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results D. Immediately terminate everyone’s examination and close the session ~~ E1E08 (C) [97.509] To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? A. Employees of the VE B. Friends of the VE C. Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1E09 (A) [97.509] What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? A. Revocation of the VE’s amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE’s amateur operator license grant B. A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence C. A sentence of up to one year in prison D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1E10 (C) [97.509] What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license? A. They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading B. They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading C. They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions D. They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions ~~ E1E11 (B) [97.509] What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license? A. Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements C. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license D. All these choices are correct ~~ E1E12 (A) [97.509] What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam? A. Return the application document to the examinee B. Maintain the application form with the VEC’s records C. Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade D. Destroy the application form ~~ E1E13 (A) [97.519] What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC? A. The licensee's license will be cancelled B. The person may be fined or imprisoned C. The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant D. All these choices are correct ~~ E1E14 (A) [97.527] For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed? A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course C. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement D. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials ~~ E1F Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; national quiet zone; business communications; compensated communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary stations; reciprocal operating privileges; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party communications with foreign countries; special temporary authority E1F01 (B) [97.305] On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted? A. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz C. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz D. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz ~~ E1F02 (A) [97.5] Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US? A. CEPT agreement B. IARP agreement C. ITU reciprocal license D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1F03 (A) [97.315] Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification? A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country’s government ~~ E1F04 (A) [97.3] Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"? A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border B. A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline C. A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline D. A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline ~~ E1F05 (D) [97.303] Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A? A. 440 - 450 MHz B. 53 - 54 MHz C. 222 - 223 MHz D. 420 - 430 MHz ~~ E1F06 (C) [97.3] What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral ~~ E1F07 (D) [97.113] When may an amateur station send a message to a business? A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25 B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency C. When transmitting international third-party communications D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications ~~ E1F08 (A) [97.113] Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited? A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules B. Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine C. Communications that have a religious content D. Communications in a language other than English ~~ E1F09 (D) [97.311] Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission? A. A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions B. The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions C. The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1F10 (C) [97.313] What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications? A. 1 W B. 1.5 W C. 10 W D. 1.5 kW ~~ E1F11 (D) [97.317] Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification? A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power ~~ E1F12 (B) [97.201] Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? A. Any licensed amateur operator B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators C. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators D. Only Amateur Extra Class operators ~~ E1F13 (C) [97.117] What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries? A. Business-related messages for non-profit organizations B. Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service C. Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1F14 (A) [1.931] Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station? A. To provide for experimental amateur communications B. To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels C. To provide additional spectrum for personal use D. To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing ~~ SUBELEMENT E2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups] E2A Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and modes; satellite hardware; satellite operations E2A01 (C) What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? A. From west to east B. From east to west C. From south to north D. From north to south ~~ E2A02 (A) What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite? A. From north to south B. From west to east C. From east to west D. From south to north ~~ E2A03 (C) What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite? A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit C. The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth D. The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee ~~ E2A04 (B) What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite? A. The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite B. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands C. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth D. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit ~~ E2A05 (D) What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify? A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions B. The location of the ground control station C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals D. The uplink and downlink frequency ranges ~~ E2A06 (A) On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V? A. 435-438 MHz B. 144-146 MHz C. 50.0-50.2 MHz D. 29.5 to 29.7 MHz ~~ E2A07 (D) Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder? A. FM and CW B. SSB and SSTV C. PSK and Packet D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E2A08 (B) Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited? A. To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry B. To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users C. To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals D. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs ~~ E2A09 (A) What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications? A. The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands B. The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands C. FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems D. Which sideband to use ~~ E2A10 (A) Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect? A. Because the satellite is spinning B. Because of ionospheric absorption C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude D. Because of the Doppler Effect ~~ E2A11 (B) What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? A. A linearly polarized antenna B. A circularly polarized antenna C. An isotropic antenna D. A log-periodic dipole array ~~ E2A12 (D) What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time? A. By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite B. By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination C. By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination D. By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite ~~ E2A13 (B) What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky? A. HEO B. Geostationary C. Geomagnetic D. LEO ~~ E2B Television practices: fast scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards and techniques E2B01 (A) How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system? A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 120 ~~ E2B02 (C) How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame? A. 30 B. 60 C. 525 D. 1080 ~~ E2B03 (D) How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system? A. By scanning two fields simultaneously B. By scanning each field from bottom to top C. By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next D. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in the next ~~ E2B04 (B) What is blanking in a video signal? A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern ~~ E2B05 (C) Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions? A. The vestigial sideband carries the audio information B. The vestigial sideband contains chroma information C. Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry D. Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture ~~ E2B06 (A) What is vestigial sideband modulation? A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted B. A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted C. Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier D. Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation ~~ E2B07 (B) What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video? A. Luminance B. Chroma C. Hue D. Spectral Intensity ~~ E2B08 (D) Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television? A. Frequency-modulated sub-carrier B. A separate VHF or UHF audio link C. Frequency modulation of the video carrier D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E2B09 (D) What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)? A. A special IF converter B. A special front end limiter C. A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses D. No other hardware is needed ~~ E2B10 (A) Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands? A. 3 KHz B. 10 KHz C. 15 KHz D. 20 KHz ~~ E2B11 (B) What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code transmitted as part of an SSTV transmission? A. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images B. To identify the SSTV mode being used C. To provide vertical synchronization D. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting ~~ E2B12 (D) How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands? A. Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation B. Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation C. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK D. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband ~~ E2B13 (C) How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture? A. 30 to 60 B. 60 or 100 C. 128 or 256 D. 180 or 360 ~~ E2B14 (A) What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture? A. Tone frequency B. Tone amplitude C. Sync amplitude D. Sync frequency ~~ E2B15 (A) What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line? A. Specific tone frequencies B. Elapsed time C. Specific tone amplitudes D. A two-tone signal ~~ E2B16 (D) Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations? A. PAL B. DRM C. Scottie D. NTSC ~~ E2B17 (B) What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal? A. 600 Hz B. 3 kHz C. 2 MHz D. 6 MHz ~~ E2B18 (D) On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions? A. 14.230 MHz B. 29.6 MHz C. 52.525 MHz D. 1255 MHz ~~ E2B19 (C) What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions? A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz C. They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz ~~ E2C Operating methods: contest and DX operating; spread-spectrum transmissions; selecting an operating frequency E2C01 (A) Which of the following is true about contest operating? A. Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log B. Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable C. It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station D. Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange ~~ E2C02 (A) Which of the following best describes the term “self-spotting” in regards to contest operating? A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one’s own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station’s frequency before calling that station D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station’s frequency before calling that station ~~ E2C03 (A) From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded? A. 30 meters B. 6 meters C. 2 meters D. 33 cm ~~ E2C04 (D) On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged? A. 3.525 MHz B. 14.020 MHz C. 28.330 MHz D. 146.52 MHz ~~ E2C05 (B) What is the function of a DX QSL Manager? A. To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions B. To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station C. To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station D. To relay calls to and from a DX station ~~ E2C06 (C) During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity? A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency C. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency ~~ E2C07 (A) What is the Cabrillo format? A. A standard for submission of electronic contest logs B. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO C. The most common set of contest rules D. The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors ~~ E2C08 (A) Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference? A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver B. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered C. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies ~~ E2C09 (D) How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work? A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence D. The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station ~~ E2C10 (D) Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency? A. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations B. To separate the calling stations from the DX station C. To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E2C11 (A) How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest? A. Send your full call sign once or twice B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact C. Send your full call sign and grid square D. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times ~~ E2C12 (B) What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset? A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band C. Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass D. Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band ~~ E2D Operating methods: VHF and UHF digital modes; APRS E2D01 (B) Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals? A. WSPR B. FSK441 C. Hellschreiber D. APRS ~~ E2D02 (A) What is the definition of baud? A. The number of data symbols transmitted per second B. The number of characters transmitted per second C. The number of characters transmitted per minute D. The number of words transmitted per minute ~~ E2D03 (D) Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications? A. FSK441 B. PACTOR III C. Olivia D. JT65 ~~ E2D04 (C) What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite? A. To upload operational software for the transponder B. To delay download of telemetry between satellites C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations D. To relay messages between satellites ~~ E2D05 (B) Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world? A. Digipeating B. Store-and-forward C. Multi-satellite relaying D. Node hopping ~~ E2D06 (A) Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency? A. 144.39 MHz B. 144.20 MHz C. 145.02 MHz D. 146.52 MHz ~~ E2D07 (C) Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS? A. PACTOR B. 802.11 C. AX.25 D. AMTOR ~~ E2D08 (A) Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data? A. Unnumbered Information B. Disconnect C. Acknowledgement D. Connect ~~ E2D09 (D) Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput? A. AMTOR B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY C. PSK31 D. 300-baud packet ~~ E2D10 (C) How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity? A. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital B. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points C. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E2D11 (D) Which of the following data are used by the APRS network communicate your location? A. Polar coordinates B. Time and frequency C. Radio direction finding LOPs D. Latitude and longitude ~~ E2D12 (A) How does JT65 improve EME communications? A. It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC B. It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift C. It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E2E Operating methods: operating HF digital modes; error correction E2E01 (B) Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz? A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal B. FSK C. Pulse modulation D. Spread spectrum ~~ E2E02 (A) What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation? A. Forward Error Correction B. First Error Correction C. Fatal Error Correction D. Final Error Correction ~~ E2E03 (C) How is Forward Error Correction implemented? A. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters B. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters C. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm ~~ E2E04 (A) What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears? A. Selective fading has occurred B. One of the signal filters has saturated C. The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency D. The mark and space signal have been inverted ~~ E2E05 (D) How does ARQ accomplish error correction? A. Special binary codes provide automatic correction B. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction C. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted D. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested ~~ E2E06 (C) What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications? A. 48 baud B. 110 baud C. 300 baud D. 1200 baud ~~ E2E07 (B) What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal? A. 31 Hz B. 316 Hz C. 550 Hz D. 2.16 kHz ~~ E2E08 (B) Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? A. Hellschreiber B. PACTOR C. RTTY D. AMTOR ~~ E2E09 (D) Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency? A. RTTY B. PACTOR C. MT63 D. PSK31 ~~ E2E10 (C) Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth? A. MFSK16 B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY C. PSK31 D. 300-baud packet ~~ E2E11 (A) What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK? A. Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO B. Audio FSK has a superior frequency response C. Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection D. Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain ~~ E2E12 (A) Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation? A. Winlink B. RTTY C. PSK31 D. MFSK ~~ SUBELEMENT E3 - RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups] E3A Propagation and technique: Earth-Moon-Earth communications (EME), meteor scatter E3A01 (D) What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce? A. 500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee B. 2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee C. 5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee D. 12,000 miles, as long as both can “see” the Moon ~~ E3A02 (B) What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal? A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal B. A fluttery irregular fading C. A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises D. The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal ~~ E3A03 (A) When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss? A. When the Moon is at perigee B. When the Moon is full C. When the Moon is at apogee D. When the MUF is above 30 MHz ~~ E3A04 (D) What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications? A. Equipment with very wide bandwidth B. Equipment with very low dynamic range C. Equipment with very low gain D. Equipment with very low noise figures ~~ E3A05 (A) Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts? A. Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating B. Storing and forwarding digital messages C. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon D. High speed CW identification to avoid fading ~~ E3A06 (B) What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band? A. 144.000 - 144.001 MHz B. 144.000 - 144.100 MHz C. 144.100 - 144.300 MHz D. 145.000 - 145.100 MHz ~~ E3A07 (D) What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band? A. 430.000 - 430.150 MHz B. 430.100 - 431.100 MHz C. 431.100 - 431.200 MHz D. 432.000 - 432.100 MHz ~~ E3A08 (A) When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere? A. The E layer B. The F1 layer C. The F2 layer D. The D layer ~~ E3A09 (C) Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications? A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz B. 10 - 14 MHz C. 28 - 148 MHz D. 220 - 450 MHz ~~ E3A10 (D) Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts? A. 15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location B. Use of high speed CW or digital modes C. Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E3B Propagation and technique: trans-equatorial, long path, gray-line; multi-path propagation E3B01 (A) What is transequatorial propagation? A. Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator B. Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator D. Propagation between two stations at the same latitude ~~ E3B02 (C) What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? A. 1000 miles B. 2500 miles C. 5000 miles D. 7500 miles ~~ E3B03 (C) What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation? A. Morning B. Noon C. Afternoon or early evening D. Late at night ~~ E3B04 (A) What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals? A. Long-path B. Sporadic-E C. Transequatorial D. Auroral ~~ E3B05 (C) Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation? A. 160 to 40 meters B. 30 to 10 meters C. 160 to 10 meters D. 6 meters to 2 meters ~~ E3B06 (B) Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation? A. 80 meters B. 20 meters C. 10 meters D. 6 meters ~~ E3B07 (D) Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station? A. High D layer absorption B. Meteor scatter C. Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF D. Receipt of a signal by more than one path ~~ E3B08 (D) What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness? A. Transequatorial B. Sporadic-E C. Long-path D. Gray-line ~~ E3B09 (A) At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur? A. At sunrise and sunset B. When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station C. When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations D. When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station ~~ E3B10 (B) What is the cause of gray-line propagation? A. At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves B. At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong C. In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady D. At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF ~~ E3B11 (C) Which of the following describes gray-line propagation? A. Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band B. Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands C. Long distance communications at twilight on frequencies less than 15 MHz D. Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands ~~ E3C Propagation and technique: Aurora propagation selective fading; radio-path horizon; take-off angle over flat or sloping terrain; effects of ground on propagation; less common propagation modes E3C01 (D) Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications? A. SSB signals are raspy B. Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery C. CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E3C02 (C) What is the cause of Aurora activity? A. The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt B. A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting C. The interaction of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth’s magnetic field and the ionosphere D. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes ~~ E3C03 (D) Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur? A. In the F1-region B. In the F2-region C. In the D-region D. In the E-region ~~ E3C04 (A) Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation? A. CW B. SSB C. FM D. RTTY ~~ E3C05 (B) Which of the following describes selective fading? A. Variability of signal strength with beam heading B. Partial cancellation of some frequencies within the received pass band C. Sideband inversion within the ionosphere D. Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter ~~ E3C06 (A) By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. By approximately 15% of the distance B. By approximately twice the distance C. By approximately one-half the distance D. By approximately four times the distance ~~ E3C07 (B) How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground? A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height C. The horizontal beam width increases with height D. The horizontal beam width decreases with height ~~ E3C08 (B) What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region? A. Oblique-angle ray B. Pedersen ray C. Ordinary ray D. Heaviside ray ~~ E3C09 (C) Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles? A. D-region absorption B. Faraday rotation C. Tropospheric ducting D. Ground wave ~~ E3C10 (B) How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground? A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction C. The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction D. The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction ~~ E3C11 (B) From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation? A. South B. North C. East D. West ~~ E3C12 (C) How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased? A. It stays the same B. It increases C. It decreases D. It peaks at roughly 14 MHz ~~ E3C13 (A) What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation? A. Vertical B. Horizontal C. Circular D. Elliptical ~~ E3C14 (D) Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. E-region skip B. D-region skip C. Downward bending due to aurora refraction D. Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere ~~ SUBELEMENT E4 - AMATEUR PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups] E4A Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum and network analyzers, antenna analyzers; oscilloscopes; testing transistors; RF measurements E4A01 (C) How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope? A. A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals B. A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain D. A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies ~~ E4A02 (D) Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis? A. SWR B. Q C. Time D. Frequency ~~ E4A03 (A) Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis? A. Amplitude B. Duration C. SWR D. Q ~~ E4A04 (A) Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter? A. A spectrum analyzer B. A wattmeter C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer ~~ E4A05 (B) Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission? A. A wattmeter B. A spectrum analyzer C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer ~~ E4A06 (D) Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer? A. The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer B. Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency C. The spectral output of a transmitter D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4A07 (B) Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR? A. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance B. Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source C. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4A08 (D) Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna? A. A spectrum analyzer B. A Q meter C. An ohmmeter D. An antenna analyzer ~~ E4A09 (A) Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation distortion of your own PSK signal? A. Transmit into a dummy load, receive the signal on a second receiver, and feed the audio into the sound card of a computer running an appropriate PSK program B. Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transmission by the average power output C. Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appropriate isolation to prevent damage to the meter D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4A10 (D) Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on? A. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 6 to 7 ohms B. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms C. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately 6 to 7 volts D. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts ~~ E4A11 (B) Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals? A. Dip meter B. Oscilloscope C. Ohmmeter D. Q meter ~~ E4A12 (B) Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output? A. Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses B. Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer C. Match the antenna to the load D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4B Measurement techniques: Instrument accuracy and performance limitations; probes; techniques to minimize errors; measurement of Q; instrument calibration E4B01 (B) Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter? A. Input attenuator accuracy B. Time base accuracy C. Decade divider accuracy D. Temperature coefficient of the logic ~~ E4B02 (C) What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance? A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source C. The measurement is based on obtaining a signal null, which can be done very precisely D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format ~~ E4B03 (C) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 165.2 Hz B. 14.652 kHz C. 146.52 Hz D. 1.4652 MHz ~~ E4B04 (A) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 14.652 Hz B. 0.1 MHz C. 1.4652 Hz D. 1.4652 kHz ~~ E4B05 (D) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 146.52 Hz B. 10 Hz C. 146.52 kHz D. 1465.20 Hz ~~ E4B06 (D) How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power? A. 100 watts B. 125 watts C. 25 watts D. 75 watts ~~ E4B07 (A) Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe? A. Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible B. Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit C. Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4B08 (C) Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter? A. High reluctance input B. Low reluctance input C. High impedance input D. Low impedance input ~~ E4B09 (D) What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance? A. There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line B. The transmitter is not properly neutralized C. There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line D. There is more power going into the antenna ~~ E4B10 (B) Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter? A. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer B. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer C. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter D. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer ~~ E4B11 (D) How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance? A. Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base B. Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna C. Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer D. Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector ~~ E4B12 (A) What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt? A. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating will provide the input impedance of the voltmeter B. When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms/volt will determine the power drawn by the device under test C. When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms/volt will determine the voltage applied to the circuit D. When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms/volt will determine the size of shunt needed ~~ E4B13 (A) How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted? A. A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible B. A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude C. A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate D. A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate ~~ E4B14 (B) What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked? A. Harmonics are generated B. A less accurate reading results C. Cross modulation occurs D. Intermodulation distortion occurs ~~ E4B15 (C) Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit? A. The inductance to capacitance ratio B. The frequency shift C. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response D. The resonant frequency of the circuit ~~ E4C Receiver performance characteristics: phase noise; capture effect; noise floor; image rejection; MDS; signal-to-noise-ratio; selectivity E4C01 (D) What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver? A. It limits the receiver’s ability to receive strong signals B. It reduces receiver sensitivity C. It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range D. It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals ~~ E4C02 (A) Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference? A. A front-end filter or pre-selector B. A narrow IF filter C. A notch filter D. A properly adjusted product detector ~~ E4C03 (C) What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal? A. Desensitization B. Cross-modulation interference C. Capture effect D. Frequency discrimination ~~ E4C04 (D) What is the definition of the noise figure of a receiver? A. The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise B. The noise bandwidth in Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network C. The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise D. The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver compared to the theoretical minimum noise ~~ E4C05 (B) What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver? A. The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency B. The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature C. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver D. The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal ~~ E4C06 (D) A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth? A. 174 dBm B. -164 dBm C. -155 dBm D. -148 dBm ~~ E4C07 (B) What does the MDS of a receiver represent? A. The meter display sensitivity B. The minimum discernible signal C. The multiplex distortion stability D. The maximum detectable spectrum ~~ E4C08 (B) How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance? A. It would reduce the signal to noise ratio B. It would improve weak signal sensitivity C. It would reduce bandwidth D. It would increase bandwidth ~~ E4C09 (C) Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver? A. Fewer components in the receiver B. Reduced drift C. Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses D. Improved receiver noise figure ~~ E4C10 (B) Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver? A. 100 Hz B. 300 Hz C. 6000 Hz D. 2400 Hz ~~ E4C11 (B) Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver? A. 1 kHz B. 2.4 kHz C. 4.2 kHz D. 4.8 kHz ~~ E4C12 (D) What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver? A. Output-offset overshoot B. Filter ringing C. Thermal-noise distortion D. Undesired signals may be heard ~~ E4C13 (C) How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance? A. It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise B. It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing C. It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4C14 (D) On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency? A. 13.845 MHz B. 14.755 MHz C. 14.445 MHz D. 15.210 MHz ~~ E4C15 (D) What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected? A. Detector noise B. Induction motor noise C. Receiver front-end noise D. Atmospheric noise ~~ E4D Receiver performance characteristics: blocking dynamic range; intermodulation and cross-modulation interference; 3rd order intercept; desensitization; preselection E4D01 (A) What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver? A. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression B. The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other C. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point D. The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor ~~ E4D02 (A) Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver? A. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband C. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals ~~ E4D03 (B) How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur? A. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters B. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters C. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead ~~ E4D04 (B) Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity? A. A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver B. A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter C. A Class C final amplifier D. A Class D final amplifier ~~ E4D05 (A) What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz? A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz D. 173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz ~~ E4D06 (D) What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals? A. Amplifier desensitization B. Neutralization C. Adjacent channel interference D. Intermodulation interference ~~ E4D07 (D) Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal? A. A large increase in background noise B. A reduction in apparent signal strength C. The desired signal can no longer be heard D. The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal ~~ E4D08 (C) What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit? A. Too little gain B. Lack of neutralization C. Nonlinear circuits or devices D. Positive feedback ~~ E4D09 (C) What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver? A. To store often-used frequencies B. To provide a range of AGC time constants C. To increase rejection of unwanted signals D. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device ~~ E4D10 (C) What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance? A. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products B. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products C. A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals D. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal ~~ E4D11 (A) Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products? A. The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band B. The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders C. Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection D. Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest ~~ E4D12 (A) What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? A. Desensitization B. Quieting C. Cross-modulation interference D. Squelch gain rollback ~~ E4D13 (B) Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization? A. Audio gain adjusted too low B. Strong adjacent-channel signals C. Audio bias adjusted too high D. Squelch gain misadjusted ~~ E4D14 (A) Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization? A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver B. Raise the receiver IF frequency C. Increase the receiver front end gain D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC ~~ E4E Noise suppression: system noise; electrical appliance noise; line noise; locating noise sources; DSP noise reduction; noise blankers E4E01 (A) Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker? A. Ignition noise B. Broadband white noise C. Heterodyne interference D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4E02 (D) Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter? A. Broadband white noise B. Ignition noise C. Power line noise D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4E03 (B) Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals? A. Signals which are constant at all IF levels B. Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth C. Signals which appear at one IF but not another D. Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution ~~ E4E04 (D) How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed? A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead B. By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads ~~ E4E05 (B) How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed? A. By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor’s power leads B. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads C. By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads D. By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor ~~ E4E06 (B) What is a major cause of atmospheric static? A. Solar radio frequency emissions B. Thunderstorms C. Geomagnetic storms D. Meteor showers ~~ E4E07 (C) How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home? A. By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer B. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio D. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer ~~ E4E08 (A) What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna? A. A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter B. An electrical-sparking signal C. A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency D. Harmonics of the AC power line frequency ~~ E4E09 (C) What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker? A. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect B. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed C. Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards D. FM signals can no longer be demodulated ~~ E4E10 (D) What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device? A. The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver B. The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum C. The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4E11 (B) Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands? A. The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal B. Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals C. You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station D. Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective ~~ E4E12 (A) What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals? A. The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal C. Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency D. Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters ~~ E4E13 (D) What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals? A. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device B. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence C. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4E14 (C) What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer? A. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver B. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds C. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies D. A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on ~~ SUBELEMENT E5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups] E5A Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits; series and parallel resonance; Q; half-power bandwidth; phase relationships in reactive circuits E5A01 (A) What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them? A. Resonance B. Capacitance C. Conductance D. Resistance ~~ E5A02 (C) What is resonance in an electrical circuit? A. The highest frequency that will pass current B. The lowest frequency that will pass current C. The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance D. The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance ~~ E5A03 (D) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance? A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance ~~ E5A04 (A) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance? A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance ~~ E5A05 (B) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance? A. Minimum B. Maximum C. R/L D. L/R ~~ E5A06 (B) What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance? A. It is at a minimum B. It is at a maximum C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C D. It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L" ~~ E5A07 (A) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? A. Minimum B. Maximum C. R/L D. L/R ~~ E5A08 (C) What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance? A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees C. The voltage and current are in phase D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase ~~ E5A09 (C) What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a parallel resonant circuit at resonance? A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees C. The voltage and current are in phase D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase ~~ E5A10 (A) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95? A. 18.9 kHz B. 1.89 kHz C. 94.5 kHz D. 9.45 kHz ~~ E5A11 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? A. 157.8 Hz B. 315.6 Hz C. 47.3 kHz D. 23.67 kHz ~~ E5A12 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? A. 436.6 kHz B. 218.3 kHz C. 31.4 kHz D. 15.7 kHz ~~ E5A13 (B) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187? A. 38.1 kHz B. 76.2 kHz C. 1.332 kHz D. 2.665 kHz ~~ E5A14 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? A. 44.72 MHz B. 22.36 MHz C. 3.56 MHz D. 1.78 MHz ~~ E5A15 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads? A. 3.76 MHz B. 1.78 MHz C. 11.18 MHz D. 22.36 MHz ~~ E5A16 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? A. 23.5 MHz B. 23.5 kHz C. 7.12 kHz D. 7.12 MHz ~~ E5A17 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? A. 10.1 MHz B. 63.2 MHz C. 10.1 kHz D. 63.2 kHz ~~ E5B Time constants and phase relationships: RLC time constants; definition; time constants in RL and RC circuits; phase angle between voltage and current; phase angles of series and parallel circuits E5B01 (B) What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage? A. An exponential rate of one B. One time constant C. One exponential period D. A time factor of one ~~ E5B02 (D) What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage? A. One discharge period B. An exponential discharge rate of one C. A discharge factor of one D. One time constant ~~ E5B03 (D) The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants? A. 86.5% B. 63.2% C. 36.8% D. 13.5% ~~ E5B04 (D) What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel? A. 55 seconds B. 110 seconds C. 440 seconds D. 220 seconds ~~ E5B05 (A) How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 0.02 seconds B. 0.04 seconds C. 20 seconds D. 40 seconds ~~ E5B06 (C) How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 4.50 seconds B. 9 seconds C. 450 seconds D. 900 seconds ~~ E5B07 (C) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms? A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current ~~ E5B08 (A) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms? A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current ~~ E5B09 (D) What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor? A. Voltage and current are in phase B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees ~~ E5B10 (A) What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase D. Voltage and current are in phase ~~ E5B11 (B) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms? A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current ~~ E5B12 (C) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms? A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current ~~ E5B13 (D) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms? A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current ~~ E5C Impedance plots and coordinate systems: plotting impedances in polar coordinates; rectangular coordinates E5C01 (B) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees B. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees C. 161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees D. 181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees ~~ E5C02 (D) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series? A. 100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees B. 10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees C. 10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees D. 100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees ~~ E5C03 (A) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series? A. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees B. 900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees C. 400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees D. 1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees ~~ E5C04 (D) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees ~~ E5C05 (A) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees ~~ E5C06 (D) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees B. 191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees C. 161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees D. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees ~~ E5C07 (C) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees B. 51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees C. 71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees D. 91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees ~~ E5C08 (B) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor? A. 400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees B. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees C. 500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees D. 700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees ~~ E5C09 (A) When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent? A. Resistive component B. Reactive component C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components ~~ E5C10 (B) When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent? A. Resistive component B. Reactive component C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components ~~ E5C11 (C) What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates? A. The magnitude and phase of the point B. The sine and cosine values C. The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes D. The tangent and cotangent values ~~ E5C12 (D) If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit? A. It has to be a direct current circuit B. It contains resistance and capacitive reactance C. It contains resistance and inductive reactance D. It is equivalent to a pure resistance ~~ E5C13 (D) What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of an impedance? A. Maidenhead grid B. Faraday grid C. Elliptical coordinates D. Rectangular coordinates ~~ E5C14 (D) What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance? A. Maidenhead grid B. Faraday grid C. Elliptical coordinates D. Polar coordinates ~~ E5C15 (A) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance? A. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees B. 100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees C. 100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees ~~ E5C16 (B) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees? A. 5.03 E–06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees B. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees C. 19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees ~~ E5C17 (C) In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees? A. 173 -j100 ohms B. 200 +j100 ohms C. 173 +j100 ohms D. 200 -j100 ohms ~~ E5C18 (B) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm? A. 6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees B. 5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees C. 5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees D. 10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees ~~ E5C19 (B) Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz? A. Point 2 B. Point 4 C. Point 5 D. Point 6 ~~ E5C20 (B) Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz? A. Point 1 B. Point 3 C. Point 7 D. Point 8 ~~ E5C21 (A) Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz? A. Point 1 B. Point 3 C. Point 7 D. Point 8 ~~ E5C22 (A) In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz? A. 40 + j31,400 B. 40 - j31,400 C. 31,400 + j40 D. 31,400 - j40 ~~ E5C23 (D) Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz? A. Point 1 B. Point 3 C. Point 5 D. Point 8 ~~ E5D AC and RF energy in real circuits: skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic fields; reactive power; power factor; coordinate systems E5D01 (A) What is the result of skin effect? A. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface B. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance ~~ E5D02 (C) Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents? A. Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect C. Because of skin effect D. Because conductors are non-linear devices ~~ E5D03 (C) What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field? A. A battery B. A transformer C. A capacitor D. An inductor ~~ E5D04 (B) What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? A. Coulomb B. Joule C. Watt D. Volt ~~ E5D05 (B) Which of the following creates a magnetic field? A. Potential differences between two points in space B. Electric current C. A charged capacitor D. A battery ~~ E5D06 (D) In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow? A. In the same direction as the current B. In a direction opposite to the current C. In all directions; omnidirectional D. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule ~~ E5D07 (D) What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor? A. The resistance divided by the current B. The ratio of the current to the resistance C. The diameter of the conductor D. The amount of current ~~ E5D08 (B) What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field? A. Electromechanical energy B. Potential energy C. Thermodynamic energy D. Kinetic energy ~~ E5D09 (B) What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors? A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit B. It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated C. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit D. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields ~~ E5D10 (A) How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase? A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor B. By dividing the reactive power by the power factor C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor D. By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor ~~ E5D11 (C) What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.414 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 1.73 ~~ E5D12 (B) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes? A. 400 watts B. 80 watts C. 2000 watts D. 50 watts ~~ E5D13 (B) How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere? A. 70.7 Watts B. 100 Watts C. 141.4 Watts D. 200 Watts ~~ E5D14 (A) What is reactive power? A. Wattless, nonproductive power B. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor C. Power lost because of capacitor leakage D. Power consumed in circuit Q ~~ E5D15 (D) What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.866 B. 1.0 C. 0.5 D. 0.707 ~~ E5D16 (C) What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.73 B. 0.5 C. 0.866 D. 0.577 ~~ E5D17 (D) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes? A. 200 watts B. 1000 watts C. 1600 watts D. 600 watts ~~ E5D18 (B) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA? A. 704 W B. 355 W C. 252 W D. 1.42 mW ~~ SUBELEMENT E6 - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups] E6A Semiconductor materials and devices: semiconductor materials; germanium, silicon, P-type, N-type; transistor types: NPN, PNP, junction, field-effect transistors: enhancement mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel E6A01 (C) In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon? A. In high-current rectifier circuits B. In high-power audio circuits C. At microwave frequencies D. At very low frequency RF circuits ~~ E6A02 (A) Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons? A. N-type B. P-type C. Bipolar D. Insulated gate ~~ E6A03 (C) What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material? A. Free neutrons B. Free protons C. Holes D. Free electrons ~~ E6A04 (C) What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure? A. Insulator impurity B. N-type impurity C. Acceptor impurity D. Donor impurity ~~ E6A05 (C) What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor? A. The change of collector current with respect to base current B. The change of base current with respect to collector current C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current D. The change of collector current with respect to gate current ~~ E6A06 (B) What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor? A. The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1 B. The change in collector current with respect to base current C. The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction D. The switching speed of the transistor ~~ E6A07 (A) In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 ~~ E6A08 (D) What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz? A. Corner frequency B. Alpha rejection frequency C. Beta cutoff frequency D. Alpha cutoff frequency ~~ E6A09 (A) What is a depletion-mode FET? A. An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied B. An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied C. Any FET without a channel D. Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers ~~ E6A10 (B) In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 ~~ E6A11 (A) In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 ~~ E6A12 (D) Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates? A. To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage B. To protect the substrate from excessive voltages C. To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating D. To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages ~~ E6A13 (C) What do the initials CMOS stand for? A. Common Mode Oscillating System B. Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon C. Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor D. Common Mode Organic Silicon ~~ E6A14 (C) How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor? A. They are both low impedance B. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance C. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance D. They are both high impedance ~~ E6A15 (B) Which of the following semiconductor materials contains an excess of holes in the outer shell of electrons? A. N-type B. P-type C. Superconductor-type D. Bipolar-type ~~ E6A16 (B) What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material? A. Holes B. Free electrons C. Free protons D. Free neutrons ~~ E6A17 (D) What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor? A. Gate 1, gate 2, drain B. Emitter, base, collector C. Emitter, base 1, base 2 D. Gate, drain, source ~~ E6B Semiconductor diodes E6B01 (B) What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode? A. A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage B. A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current C. A negative resistance region D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage ~~ E6B02 (D) What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier? A. Much higher reverse voltage breakdown B. Controlled reverse avalanche voltage C. Enhanced carrier retention time D. Less forward voltage drop ~~ E6B03 (C) What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation? A. Point contact B. Zener C. Tunnel D. Junction ~~ E6B04 (A) What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor? A. Varactor diode B. Tunnel diode C. Silicon-controlled rectifier D. Zener diode ~~ E6B05 (D) What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator? A. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage B. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power C. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop D. A large region of intrinsic material ~~ E6B06 (D) Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? A. As balanced mixers in FM generation B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply D. As a VHF / UHF mixer or detector ~~ E6B07 (B) What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current? A. Excessive inverse voltage B. Excessive junction temperature C. Insufficient forward voltage D. Charge carrier depletion ~~ E6B08 (A) Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode? A. Metal-semiconductor junction B. Electrolytic rectifier C. CMOS-field effect D. Thermionic emission diode ~~ E6B09 (C) What is a common use for point contact diodes? A. As a constant current source B. As a constant voltage source C. As an RF detector D. As a high voltage rectifier ~~ E6B10 (B) In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode? A. 1 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 ~~ E6B11 (A) What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode? A. Forward DC bias current B. A sub-harmonic pump signal C. Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal D. Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor ~~ E6B12 (C) What is one common use for PIN diodes? A. As a constant current source B. As a constant voltage source C. As an RF switch D. As a high voltage rectifier ~~ E6B13 (B) What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light? A. Reverse bias B. Forward bias C. Zero bias D. Inductive bias ~~ E6C Integrated circuits: TTL digital integrated circuits; CMOS digital integrated circuits; gates E6C01 (C) What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits? A. 12 volts B. 1.5 volts C. 5 volts D. 13.6 volts ~~ E6C02 (A) What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open? A. A logic-high state B. A logic-low state C. The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states D. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored ~~ E6C03 (A) Which of the following describes tri-state logic? A. Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states B. Logic devices that utilize ternary math C. Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts D. Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices ~~ E6C04 (B) Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic? A. Low power consumption B. Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus C. High speed operation D. More efficient arithmetic operations ~~ E6C05 (D) Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices? A. Differential output capability B. Lower distortion C. Immune to damage from static discharge D. Lower power consumption ~~ E6C06 (C) Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply? A. Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design B. The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage C. The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage D. Input signals are stronger ~~ E6C07 (A) In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ~~ E6C08 (B) In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ~~ E6C09 (B) In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 ~~ E6C10 (D) In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ~~ E6C11 (C) In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 ~~ E6C12 (D) What is BiCMOS logic? A. A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package B. An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors C. A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices D. An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors ~~ E6C13 (C) Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic? A. Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS B. It is totally immune to electrostatic damage C. It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E6D Optical devices and toroids: cathode-ray tube devices; charge-coupled devices (CCDs); liquid crystal displays (LCDs) Toroids: permeability; core material; selecting; winding E6D01 (D) What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence? A. The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on B. The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light C. The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions D. The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off ~~ E6D02 (B) Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays? A. The heater voltage B. The anode voltage C. The operating temperature D. The operating frequency ~~ E6D03 (C) Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)? A. Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency B. It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter C. It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output D. It is used in a battery charger circuit ~~ E6D04 (A) What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera? A. It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels B. It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning C. It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image D. It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal ~~ E6D05 (B) What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)? A. A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency B. A display using a crystalline liquid which, in conjunction with polarizing filters, becomes opaque when voltage is applied C. A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver D. A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light ~~ E6D06 (D) What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor? A. Thermal impedance B. Resistance C. Reactivity D. Permeability ~~ E6D07 (B) What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used? A. From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz B. From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz C. From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz D. From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz ~~ E6D08 (B) What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor? A. Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeability B. Powdered-iron toroids generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents C. Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value D. Powdered-iron toroids have higher power handling capacity ~~ E6D09 (C) What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorized HF amplifiers? A. Electrolytic capacitors B. Butterworth filters C. Ferrite beads D. Steel-core toroids ~~ E6D10 (A) What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor? A. Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material B. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components C. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis D. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics ~~ E6D11 (C) How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns? A. 2 turns B. 4 turns C. 43 turns D. 229 turns ~~ E6D12 (A) How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns? A. 35 turns B. 13 turns C. 79 turns D. 141 turns ~~ E6D13 (D) What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen? A. Electromagnetic B. Tubular C. Radar D. Electrostatic ~~ E6D14 (C) Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)? A. It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry B. It can be used to make an audio delay line C. It is commonly used as an analog-to-digital converter D. It samples and stores analog signals ~~ E6D15 (A) What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices over other types of display devices? A. They consume less power B. They can display changes instantly C. They are visible in all light conditions D. They can be easily interchanged with other display devices ~~ E6D16 (C) What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor? A. Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities B. Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability C. Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value D. Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology ~~ E6E Piezoelectric crystals and MMICs: quartz crystal oscillators and crystal filters); monolithic amplifiers E6E01 (D) What is a crystal lattice filter? A. A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals B. An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals C. A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals D. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals ~~ E6E02 (A) Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter? A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals B. The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal C. The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter D. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter ~~ E6E03 (A) What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect? A. Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light ~~ E6E04 (A) What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs? A. 50 ohms B. 300 ohms C. 450 ohms D. 10 ohms ~~ E6E05 (A) Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier? A. 2 dB B. -10 dB C. 44 dBm D. -20 dBm ~~ E6E06 (D) What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits? A. The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals. B. Plate current that is controlled by a control grid C. Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance D. Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range ~~ E6E07 (B) Which of the following is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier? A. Ground-plane construction B. Microstrip construction C. Point-to-point construction D. Wave-soldering construction ~~ E6E08 (A) How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)? A. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead B. MMICs require no operating bias C. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead D. Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead ~~ E6E09 (B) Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer? A. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance B. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance C. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage D. Bias the crystal at a specified current ~~ E6E10 (A) What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal? A. Motional capacitance, motional inductance and loss resistance in series, with a shunt capacitance representing electrode and stray capacitance B. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel C. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series D. Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance ~~ E6E11 (D) Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs? A. Silicon B. Silicon nitride C. Silicon dioxide D. Gallium nitride ~~ E6E12 (B) What is a "Jones filter" as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage? A. An automatic notch filter B. A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter C. A special filter that emphasizes image responses D. A filter that removes impulse noise ~~ E6F Optical components and power systems: photoconductive principles and effects, photovoltaic systems, optical couplers, optical sensors, and optoisolators E6F01 (B) What is photoconductivity? A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor ~~ E6F02 (A) What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it? A. It increases B. It decreases C. It stays the same D. It becomes unstable ~~ E6F03 (D) What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler? A. A lens and a photomultiplier B. A frequency modulated helium-neon laser C. An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser D. An LED and a phototransistor ~~ E6F04 (B) What is the photovoltaic effect? A. The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light B. The conversion of light to electrical energy C. The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy D. The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside ~~ E6F05 (A) Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder? A. A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel B. A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion C. A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals D. A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source. ~~ E6F06 (A) Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity? A. A crystalline semiconductor B. An ordinary metal C. A heavy metal D. A liquid semiconductor ~~ E6F07 (B) What is a solid state relay? A. A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil B. A device that uses semiconductor devices to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay C. A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed D. A passive delay line ~~ E6F08 (C) Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120 VAC? A. Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit B. Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit C. Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched D. Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit ~~ E6F09 (D) What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell? A. The output RF power divided by the input dc power B. The effective payback period C. The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination D. The relative fraction of light that is converted to current ~~ E6F10 (B) What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation? A. Selenium B. Silicon C. Cadmium Sulfide D. Copper oxide ~~ E6F11 (B) Which of the following is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? A. 0.1 V B. 0.5 V C. 1.5 V D. 12 V ~~ E6F12 (C) What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell? A. Protons B. Photons C. Electrons D. Holes ~~ SUBELEMENT E7 - PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E7A Digital circuits: digital circuit principles and logic circuits: classes of logic elements; positive and negative logic; frequency dividers; truth tables E7A01 (C) Which of the following is a bistable circuit? A. An "AND" gate B. An "OR" gate C. A flip-flop D. A clock ~~ E7A02 (C) How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit? A. None B. One C. Two D. Four ~~ E7A03 (B) Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2? A. An XOR gate B. A flip-flop C. An OR gate D. A multiplexer ~~ E7A04 (B) How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 ~~ E7A05 (D) Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock? A. Monostable multivibrator B. J-K flip-flop C. T flip-flop D. Astable multivibrator ~~ E7A06 (A) What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator? A. It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns, after a set time, to its original state B. It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0 C. It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state D. It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage ~~ E7A07 (D) What logical operation does a NAND gate perform? A. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0" B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1" C. It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1" D. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1" ~~ E7A08 (A) What logical operation does an OR gate perform? A. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1" B. It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1" C. It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1" D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0" ~~ E7A09 (C) What logical operation is performed by a two-input exclusive NOR gate? A. It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0" B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1" C. It produces a logic "0" at its output if any single input is a logic “1” D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any single input is a logic “1” ~~ E7A10 (C) What is a truth table? A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp B. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true C. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device D. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp ~~ E7A11 (D) What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage? A. Reverse Logic B. Assertive Logic C. Negative logic D. Positive Logic ~~ E7A12 (C) What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage? A. Reverse Logic B. Assertive Logic C. Negative logic D. Positive Logic ~~ E7A13 (B) What is an SR or RS flip-flop? A. A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability B. A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low C. A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability D. A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high ~~ E7A14 (A) What is a JK flip-flop? A. A flip-flop similar to an RS except that it toggles when both J and K are high B. A flip-flop utilizing low power, low temperature Joule-Kelvin devices C. A flip-flop similar to a D flip-flop except that it triggers on the negative clock edge D. A flip-flop originally developed in Japan and Korea which has very low power consumption ~~ E7A15 (A) What is a D flip-flop? A. A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when the clock signal transitions from low to high B. A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit C. A dynamic memory storage element D. A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions ~~ E7B Amplifiers: Class of operation; vacuum tube and solid-state circuits; distortion and intermodulation; spurious and parasitic suppression; microwave amplifiers E7B01 (A) For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate? A. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees B. Exactly 180 degrees C. The entire cycle D. Less than 180 degrees ~~ E7B02 (A) What is a Class D amplifier? A. A type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency B. A low power amplifier using a differential amplifier for improved linearity C. An amplifier using drift-mode FETs for high efficiency D. A frequency doubling amplifier ~~ E7B03 (A) Which of the following forms the output of a class D amplifier circuit? A. A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components B. A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies C. A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients D. A temperature-compensated load resistor to improve linearity ~~ E7B04 (A) Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set? A. Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff B. Where the load line intersects the voltage axis C. At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor D. At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve ~~ E7B05 (C) What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier? A. Tune the stage for maximum SWR B. Tune both the input and output for maximum power C. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage D. Use a phase inverter in the output filter ~~ E7B06 (B) Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics? A. Push-push B. Push-pull C. Class C D. Class AB ~~ E7B07 (D) Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal? A. Reduced intermodulation products B. Increased overall intelligibility C. Signal inversion D. Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth ~~ E7B08 (C) How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized? A. By increasing the driving power B. By reducing the driving power C. By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input D. By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input ~~ E7B09 (D) Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a pi-network output circuit? A. The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current B. The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current C. The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current D. The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, while the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current ~~ E7B10 (B) In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2? A. Load resistors B. Fixed bias C. Self bias D. Feedback ~~ E7B11 (D) In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3? A. Fixed bias B. Emitter bypass C. Output load resistor D. Self bias ~~ E7B12 (C) What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1? A. Switching voltage regulator B. Linear voltage regulator C. Common emitter amplifier D. Emitter follower amplifier ~~ E7B13 (A) In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R? A. Emitter load B. Fixed bias C. Collector load D. Voltage regulation ~~ E7B14 (A) In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2? A. Output coupling B. Emitter bypass C. Input coupling D. Hum filtering ~~ E7B15 (C) What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier? A. Neutralization B. Select transistors with high beta C. Use a resistor in series with the emitter D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E7B16 (A) What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier? A. Transmission of spurious signals B. Creation of parasitic oscillations C. Low efficiency D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E7B17 (A) Why are third-order intermodulation distortion products of particular concern in linear power amplifiers? A. Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal B. Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal C. Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion D. Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals ~~ E7B18 (C) Which of the following is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier? A. High power gain B. High filament voltage C. Low input impedance D. Low bandwidth ~~ E7B19 (D) What is a klystron? A. A high speed multivibrator B. An electron-coupled oscillator utilizing a pentode vacuum tube C. An oscillator utilizing ceramic elements to achieve stability D. A VHF, UHF, or microwave vacuum tube that uses velocity modulation ~~ E7B20 (B) What is a parametric amplifier? A. A type of bipolar operational amplifier with excellent linearity derived from use of very high voltage on the collector B. A low-noise VHF or UHF amplifier relying on varying reactance for amplification C. A high power amplifier for HF application utilizing the Miller effect to increase gain D. An audio push-pull amplifier using silicon carbide transistors for extremely low noise ~~ E7B21 (A) Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications? A. Field effect transistor B. Nuvistor C. Silicon controlled rectifier D. Triac ~~ E7C Filters and matching networks: types of networks; types of filters; filter applications; filter characteristics; impedance matching; DSP filtering E7C01 (D) How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output? A. Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground B. Two capacitors are in series between the input and output and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground C. An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output D. A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output ~~ E7C02 (C) A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the following properties? A. It is a low-pass filter B. It is a band-pass filter C. It is a high-pass filter D. It is a notch filter ~~ E7C03 (A) What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna? A. Greater harmonic suppression B. Higher efficiency C. Lower losses D. Greater transformation range ~~ E7C04 (C) How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance? A. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance B. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance C. It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value D. Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances ~~ E7C05 (D) Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff? A. A Butterworth filter B. An active LC filter C. A passive op-amp filter D. A Chebyshev filter ~~ E7C06 (C) What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter? A. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple B. Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners C. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band D. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple ~~ E7C07 (B) What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission? A. A band-pass filter B. A notch filter C. A Pi-network filter D. An all-pass filter ~~ E7C08 (A) What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal? A. An adaptive filter B. A crystal-lattice filter C. A Hilbert-transform filter D. A phase-inverting filter ~~ E7C09 (C) What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal? A. An adaptive filter B. A notch filter C. A Hilbert-transform filter D. An elliptical filter ~~ E7C10 (B) Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer? A. A crystal filter B. A cavity filter C. A DSP filter D. An L-C filter ~~ E7C11 (D) Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output? A. Pi-L B. Cascode C. Omega D. Pi ~~ E7C12 (B) Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output? A. A Phase Inverter Load network B. A Pi network with an additional series inductor on the output C. A network with only three discrete parts D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground ~~ E7C13 (A) What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor? A. The Q of Pi networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen B. L networks can not perform impedance transformation C. Pi networks have fewer components D. Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output ~~ E7C14 (C) Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter? A. Meteor Scatter B. Single-Sideband voice C. Digital D. Video ~~ E7D Power supplies and voltage regulators E7D01 (D) What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator? A. It has a ramp voltage as its output B. It eliminates the need for a pass transistor C. The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions D. The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage ~~ E7D02 (C) What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator? A. The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current B. It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator C. The control device’s duty cycle is controlled to produce a constant average output voltage D. It gives a ramp voltage at its output ~~ E7D03 (A) What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator? A. A Zener diode B. A tunnel diode C. An SCR D. A varactor diode ~~ E7D04 (B) Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source? A. A series current source B. A series regulator C. A shunt regulator D. A shunt current source ~~ E7D05 (D) Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source? A. A constant current source B. A series regulator C. A shunt current source D. A shunt regulator ~~ E7D06 (C) What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. It provides negative feedback to improve regulation B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source C. It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator D. It provides D1 with current ~~ E7D07 (A) What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. It bypasses hum around D1 B. It is a brute force filter for the output C. To self-resonate at the hum frequency D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1 ~~ E7D08 (C) What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3? A. Switching voltage regulator B. Grounded emitter amplifier C. Linear voltage regulator D. Emitter follower ~~ E7D09 (D) What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. It resonates at the ripple frequency B. It provides fixed bias for Q1 C. It decouples the output D. It filters the supply voltage ~~ E7D10 (A) What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. It prevents self-oscillation B. It provides brute force filtering of the output C. It provides fixed bias for Q1 D. It clips the peaks of the ripple ~~ E7D11 (C) What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. It provides a constant load to the voltage source B. It couples hum to D1 C. It supplies current to D1 D. It bypasses hum around D1 ~~ E7D12 (D) What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. It provides fixed bias for Q1 B. It provides fixed bias for D1 C. It decouples hum from D1 D. It provides a constant minimum load for Q1 ~~ E7D13 (B) What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. To provide line voltage stabilization B. To provide a voltage reference C. Peak clipping D. Hum filtering ~~ E7D14 (C) What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply? A. To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply B. To balance the low-voltage filament windings C. To improve output voltage regulation D. To boost the amount of output current ~~ E7D15 (D) What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage power supply? A. To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications B. To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage C. To allow for remote control of the power supply D. To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually ~~ E7D16 (D) When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor? A. To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor B. To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off C. To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E7D17 (C) What is the primary reason that a high-frequency inverter type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply? A. The inverter design does not require any output filtering B. It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output C. The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output D. It uses a large power-factor compensation capacitor to create "free power” from the unused portion of the AC cycle ~~ E7E Modulation and demodulation: reactance, phase and balanced modulators; detectors; mixer stages; DSP modulation and demodulation; software defined radio systems E7E01 (B) Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions? A. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier B. A reactance modulator on the oscillator C. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier D. A balanced modulator on the oscillator ~~ E7E02 (D) What is the function of a reactance modulator? A. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance B. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance C. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance D. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance ~~ E7E03 (C) How does an analog phase modulator function? A. By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals B. By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals C. By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals D. By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals ~~ E7E04 (A) What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated? A. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer D. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal ~~ E7E05 (D) What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies? A. A de-emphasis network B. A heterodyne suppressor C. An audio prescaler D. A pre-emphasis network ~~ E7E06 (A) Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers? A. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation B. To reduce impulse noise reception C. For higher efficiency D. To remove third-order distortion products ~~ E7E07 (B) What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications? A. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers B. The frequency components present in the modulating signal C. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal D. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency ~~ E7E08 (C) What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit? A. Two and four times the original frequency B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies C. The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency ~~ E7E09 (A) What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit? A. Spurious mixer products are generated B. Mixer blanking occurs C. Automatic limiting occurs D. A beat frequency is generated ~~ E7E10 (A) How does a diode detector function? A. By rectification and filtering of RF signals B. By breakdown of the Zener voltage C. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode D. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency ~~ E7E11 (C) Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals? A. Discriminator B. Phase detector C. Product detector D. Phase comparator ~~ E7E12 (D) What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver? A. An FM generator circuit B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals C. An automatic band-switching circuit D. A circuit for detecting FM signals ~~ E7E13 (D) Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing? A. Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits B. A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands C. Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics D. The quadrature method ~~ E7E14 (C) What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver? A. Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver B. Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator C. Incoming RF is mixed to “baseband” for analog-to-digital conversion and subsequent processing D. Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers ~~ E7F Frequency markers and counters: frequency divider circuits; frequency marker generators; frequency counters E7F01 (D) What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit? A. It converts the output of a JK flip flop to that of an RS flip-flop B. It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency C. It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit D. It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency ~~ E7F02 (B) Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal’s frequency by a factor of ten? A. A preamp B. A prescaler C. A marker generator D. A flip-flop ~~ E7F03 (A) What is the function of a decade counter digital IC? A. It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses B. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display C. It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse D. It adds two decimal numbers together ~~ E7F04 (C) What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz? A. An emitter-follower B. Two frequency multipliers C. Two flip-flops D. A voltage divider ~~ E7F05 (D) Which of the following is a technique for providing high stability oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception? A. Use a GPS signal reference B. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator C. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator D. All of these choices are correct E7F06 (C) What is one purpose of a marker generator? A. To add audio markers to an oscilloscope B. To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop C. To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings D. To add time signals to a transmitted signal ~~ E7F07 (A) What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter? A. The accuracy of the time base B. The speed of the logic devices used C. Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply D. Proper balancing of the mixer diodes ~~ E7F08 (C) Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter? A. Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator B. Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference C. Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time D. Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency ~~ E7F09 (A) What is the purpose of a frequency counter? A. To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal B. To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals C. To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal D. To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency ~~ E7F10 (B) What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters? A. GPS averaging B. Period measurement plus mathematical computation C. Prescaling D. D/A conversion ~~ E7F11 (C) What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type? A. It can run on battery power for remote measurements B. It does not require an expensive high-precision time base C. It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period D. It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter ~~ E7G Active filters and op-amps: active audio filters; characteristics; basic circuit design; operational amplifiers E7G01 (B) What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter? A. The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp B. The values of capacitors and resistors external to the op-amp C. The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply D. The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply ~~ E7G02 (D) What is the effect of ringing in a filter? A. An echo caused by a long time delay B. A reduction in high frequency response C. Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies D. Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal ~~ E7G03 (D) Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter? A. Op-amps are more rugged B. Op-amps are fixed at one frequency C. Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss ~~ E7G04 (C) Which of the following is a type of capacitor best suited for use in high-stability op-amp RC active filter circuits? A. Electrolytic B. Disc ceramic C. Polystyrene D. Paper ~~ E7G05 (A) How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit? A. Restrict both gain and Q B. Restrict gain, but increase Q C. Restrict Q, but increase gain D. Increase both gain and Q ~~ E7G06 (D) Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter? A. As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers B. As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line C. For smoothing power-supply output D. As an audio filter in a receiver ~~ E7G07 (C) What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms? A. 0.21 B. 94 C. 47 D. 24 ~~ E7G08 (D) How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency? A. It increases linearly with increasing frequency B. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency C. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency D. It does not vary with frequency ~~ E7G09 (D) What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts dc is applied to the input? A. 0.23 volts B. 2.3 volts C. -0.23 volts D. -2.3 volts ~~ E7G10 (C) What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms? A. 1 B. 0.03 C. 38 D. 76 ~~ E7G11 (B) What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? A. 28 B. 14 C. 7 D. 0.07 ~~ E7G12 (A) What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier? A. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input and very low output impedance B. A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier C. An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit D. An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions ~~ E7G13 (C) What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage? A. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage B. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage C. The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero D. The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition ~~ E7G14 (D) What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp? A. 100 ohms B. 1000 ohms C. Very low D. Very high ~~ E7G15 (A) What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp? A. Very low B. Very high C. 100 ohms D. 1000 ohms ~~ E7H Oscillators and signal sources: types of oscillators; synthesizers and phase-locked loops; direct digital synthesizers E7H01 (D) What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment? A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback B. Pierce, Fenner and Beane C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce ~~ E7H02 (C) What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? A. It must have at least two stages B. It must be neutralized C. It must have positive feedback with a gain greater than 1 D. It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal ~~ E7H03 (A) How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator? A. Through a tapped coil B. Through a capacitive divider C. Through link coupling D. Through a neutralizing capacitor ~~ E7H04 (C) How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator? A. Through a tapped coil B. Through link coupling C. Through a capacitive divider D. Through a neutralizing capacitor ~~ E7H05 (D) How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator? A. Through a tapped coil B. Through link coupling C. Through a neutralizing capacitor D. Through a quartz crystal ~~ E7H06 (B) Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs? A. Pierce and Zener B. Colpitts and Hartley C. Armstrong and deForest D. Negative feedback and balanced feedback ~~ E7H07(C) What is a magnetron oscillator? A. An oscillator in which the output is fed back to the input by the magnetic field of a transformer B. A crystal oscillator in which variable frequency is obtained by placing the crystal in a strong magnetic field C. A UHF or microwave oscillator consisting of a diode vacuum tube with a specially shaped anode, surrounded by an external magnet D. A reference standard oscillator in which the oscillations are synchronized by magnetic coupling to a rubidium gas tube ~~ E7H08 (A) What is a Gunn diode oscillator? A. An oscillator based on the negative resistance properties of properly-doped semiconductors B. An oscillator based on the argon gas diode C. A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle D. A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect ~~ E7H09 (A) What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter? A. A direct digital synthesizer B. A hybrid synthesizer C. A phase locked loop synthesizer D. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer ~~ E7H10 (B) What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer? A. The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform B. The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output C. The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform D. The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories ~~ E7H11 (C) What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers? A. Broadband noise B. Digital conversion noise C. Spurious signals at discrete frequencies D. Nyquist limit noise ~~ E7H12 (D) Which of the following is a principal component of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? A. Phase splitter B. Hex inverter C. Chroma demodulator D. Phase accumulator ~~ E7H13 (A) What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit? A. The frequency range over which the circuit can lock B. The voltage range over which the circuit can lock C. The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock D. The range of time it takes the circuit to lock ~~ E7H14 (C) What is a phase-locked loop circuit? A. An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator B. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator C. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator D. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input ~~ E7H15 (D) Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop? A. Wide-band AF and RF power amplification B. Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter C. Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling D. Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation ~~ E7H16 (B) Why is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator important in the design of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer? A. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal B. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce phase noise in the synthesizer output C. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal D. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from changing frequency ~~ E7H17 (C) Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency synthesizer for receivers and transmitters? A. It generates FM sidebands B. It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator C. It makes it possible for a VFO to have the same degree of frequency stability as a crystal oscillator D. It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadrature phase synchronization ~~ E7H18 (A) What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers? A. Phase noise B. Digital conversion noise C. Spurious signals at discrete frequencies D. Nyquist limit noise ~~ SUBELEMENT E8 - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups] E8A AC waveforms: sine, square, sawtooth and irregular waveforms; AC measurements; average and PEP of RF signals; pulse and digital signal waveforms E8A01 (A) What type of wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics? A. A square wave B. A sine wave C. A cosine wave D. A tangent wave ~~ E8A02 (C) What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)? A. A cosine wave B. A square wave C. A sawtooth wave D. A sine wave ~~ E8A03 (A) What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics? A. A sawtooth wave B. A square wave C. A sine wave D. A cosine wave ~~ E8A04 (C) What is equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage? A. The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage B. The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a given resistor as the corresponding peak AC voltage C. The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a resistor as the corresponding RMS AC voltage D. The AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC value ~~ E8A05 (D) What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform? A. By using a grid dip meter B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter C. By using an absorption wavemeter D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor ~~ E8A06 (A) What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal? A. 2.5 to 1 B. 25 to 1 C. 1 to 1 D. 100 to 1 ~~ E8A07 (B) What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal? A. The frequency of the modulating signal B. The characteristics of the modulating signal C. The degree of carrier suppression D. The amplifier gain ~~ E8A08 (A) What is the period of a wave? A. The time required to complete one cycle B. The number of degrees in one cycle C. The number of zero crossings in one cycle D. The amplitude of the wave ~~ E8A09 (C) What type of waveform is produced by human speech? A. Sinusoidal B. Logarithmic C. Irregular D. Trapezoidal ~~ E8A10 (B) Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform? A. Regular sinusoidal oscillations B. Narrow bursts of energy separated by periods of no signal C. A series of tones that vary between two frequencies D. A signal that contains three or more discrete tones ~~ E8A11 (D) What is one use for a pulse modulated signal? A. Linear amplification B. PSK31 data transmission C. Multiphase power transmission D. Digital data transmission ~~ E8A12 (D) What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms? A. Human speech B. Video signals C. Data D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E8A13 (C) What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information? A. Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection B. Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth C. Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E8A14 (A) Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals? A. Sequential sampling B. Harmonic regeneration C. Level shifting D. Phase reversal ~~ E8A15 (B) What would the waveform of a stream of digital data bits look like on a conventional oscilloscope? A. A series of sine waves with evenly spaced gaps B. A series of pulses with varying patterns C. A running display of alpha-numeric characters D. None of the above; this type of signal cannot be seen on a conventional oscilloscope ~~ E8B Modulation and demodulation: modulation methods; modulation index and deviation ratio; pulse modulation; frequency and time division multiplexing E8B01 (D) What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal? A. FM compressibility B. Quieting index C. Percentage of modulation D. Modulation index ~~ E8B02 (D) How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)? A. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency ~~ E8B03 (A) What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz? A. 3 B. 0.3 C. 3000 D. 1000 ~~ E8B04 (B) What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency? A. 6000 B. 3 C. 2000 D. 1/3 ~~ E8B05 (D) What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz? A. 60 B. 0.167 C. 0.6 D. 1.67 ~~ E8B06 (A) What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz? A. 2.14 B. 0.214 C. 0.47 D. 47 ~~ E8B07 (A) When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power? A. The signal duty cycle is less than 100% B. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated C. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator D. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated ~~ E8B08 (D) What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system? A. The number of pulses per second B. The amplitude of the pulses C. The duration of the pulses D. The time at which each pulse occurs ~~ E8B09 (B) What is meant by deviation ratio? A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency ~~ E8B10 (C) Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into a single analog radio frequency signal? A. Frequency shift keying B. A diversity combiner C. Frequency division multiplexing D. Pulse compression ~~ E8B11 (B) Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing? A. The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate B. Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter C. The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information D. Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter ~~ E8B12 (B) What is digital time division multiplexing? A. Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter B. Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission C. Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier D. Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency ~~ E8C Digital signals: digital communications modes; CW; information rate vs. bandwidth; spread-spectrum communications; modulation methods E8C01 (D) Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length? A. ASCII B. AX.25 C. Baudot D. Morse code ~~ E8C02 (B) What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII? A. Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code B. Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses two characters as shift codes, ASCII has no shift code C. Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes D. Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes ~~ E8C03 (C) What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications? A. It includes built-in error-correction features B. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text D. It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters ~~ E8C04 (C) What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal? A. Zero-sum character encoding B. Reed-Solomon character encoding C. Use of sinusoidal data pulses D. Use of trapezoidal data pulses ~~ E8C05 (C) What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission? A. Approximately 13 Hz B. Approximately 26 Hz C. Approximately 52 Hz D. Approximately 104 Hz ~~ E8C06 (C) What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission? A. 0.1 Hz B. 0.3 kHz C. 0.5 kHz D. 1.0 kHz ~~ E8C07 (A) What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission? A. 15.36 kHz B. 9.6 kHz C. 4.8 kHz D. 5.76 kHz ~~ E8C08 (D) What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence? A. Amplitude compandored single sideband B. AMTOR C. Time-domain frequency modulation D. Spread-spectrum communication ~~ E8C09 (A) Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver? A. Spread-spectrum B. Independent sideband C. Regenerative detection D. Exponential addition ~~ E8C10 (A) What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels? A. Frequency hopping B. Direct sequence C. Time-domain frequency modulation D. Frequency compandored spread-spectrum ~~ E8C11 (B) What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier? A. Frequency hopping B. Direct sequence C. Binary phase-shift keying D. Phase compandored spread-spectrum ~~ E8C12 (D) What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream? A. Faster transmission rate B. The signal can overpower interfering signals C. Foreign language characters can be sent D. Some types of errors can be detected ~~ E8C13 (B) What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding? A. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth B. The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio C. Easily copied by ear if necessary D. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth ~~ E8D Waveforms: measurement, peak-to-peak, RMS, average; Electromagnetic Waves: definition, characteristics, polarization E8D01 (A) Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope? A. Peak-to-peak voltage B. RMS voltage C. Average voltage D. DC voltage ~~ E8D02 (B) What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of a symmetrical waveform? A. 0.707:1 B. 2:1 C. 1.414:1 D. 4:1 ~~ E8D03 (A) What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier? A. Peak voltage B. RMS voltage C. Average power D. Resting voltage ~~ E8D04 (B) What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load? A. 4.5 watts B. 9 watts C. 16 watts D. 18 watts ~~ E8D05 (D) If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage? A. 46 volts B. 92 volts C. 130 volts D. 184 volts ~~ E8D06 (B) What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter? A. It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit B. It gives a more accurate display of the PEP output when modulation is present C. It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line D. It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks ~~ E8D07 (C) What is an electromagnetic wave? A. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet B. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other D. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other ~~ E8D08 (D) Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space? A. Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel B. The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index C. The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source D. Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy ~~ E8D09 (B) What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves? A. Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape B. Waves with a rotating electric field C. Waves that circle the Earth D. Waves produced by a loop antenna ~~ E8D10 (D) What type of meter should be used to monitor the output signal of a voice-modulated single-sideband transmitter to ensure you do not exceed the maximum allowable power? A. An SWR meter reading in the forward direction B. A modulation meter C. An average reading wattmeter D. A peak-reading wattmeter ~~ E8D11 (A) What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts? A. 12.2 watts B. 9.9 watts C. 24.5 watts D. 16 watts ~~ E8D12 (D) What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal waveform if an RMS-reading voltmeter reads 34 volts? A. 123 volts B. 96 volts C. 55 volts D. 48 volts ~~ E8D13 (B) Which of the following is a typical value for the peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet? A. 240 volts B. 170 volts C. 120 volts D. 340 volts ~~ E8D14 (C) Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet? A. 240 volts B. 120 volts C. 340 volts D. 170 volts ~~ E8D15 (A) Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical power outlet? A. 120V AC B. 340V AC C. 85V AC D. 170V AC ~~ E8D16 (A) What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave? A. 120V AC B. 170V AC C. 240V AC D. 300V AC ~~ SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] E9A Isotropic and gain antennas: definitions; uses; radiation patterns; Basic antenna parameters: radiation resistance and reactance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency E9A01 (C) Which of the following describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth ~~ E9A02 (B) How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna? A. 1.55 dB B. 2.15 dB C. 3.05 dB D. 4.30 dB ~~ E9A03 (D) Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction? A. Quarter-wave vertical B. Yagi C. Half-wave dipole D. Isotropic antenna ~~ E9A04 (A) Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna? A. To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line B. To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna C. To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna D. To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna ~~ E9A05 (B) Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna? A. Transmission-line length B. Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects C. Constant feed point impedance D. Sunspot activity and time of day ~~ E9A06 (D) What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system? A. Radiation resistance plus space impedance B. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance C. Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance ~~ E9A07 (C) What is a folded dipole antenna? A. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long B. A type of ground-plane antenna C. A dipole constructed from one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop D. A dipole configured to provide forward gain ~~ E9A08 (A) What is meant by antenna gain? A. The ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna B. The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction C. The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power D. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses, including any phasing lines present ~~ E9A09 (B) What is meant by antenna bandwidth? A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements B. The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement C. The angle between the half-power radiation points D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends ~~ E9A10 (B) How is antenna efficiency calculated? A. (radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100% B. (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100% C. (total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100% D. (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100% ~~ E9A11 (A) Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna? A. Install a good radial system B. Isolate the coax shield from ground C. Shorten the radiating element D. Reduce the diameter of the radiating element ~~ E9A12 (C) Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range? A. The standing-wave ratio B. Distance from the transmitter C. Soil conductivity D. Take-off angle ~~ E9A13 (A) How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna? A. 3.85 dB B. 6.0 dB C. 8.15 dB D. 2.79 dB ~~ E9A14 (B) How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna? A. 6.17 dB B. 9.85 dB C. 12.5 dB D. 14.15 dB ~~ E9A15 (C) What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna? A. The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line B. The specific impedance of the antenna C. The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna D. The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal ~~ E9B Antenna patterns: E and H plane patterns; gain as a function of pattern; antenna design (computer modeling of antennas); Yagi antennas E9B01 (B) In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth? A. 75 degrees B. 50 degrees C. 25 degrees D. 30 degrees ~~ E9B02 (B) In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio? A. 36 dB B. 18 dB C. 24 dB D. 14 dB ~~ E9B03 (B) In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio? A. 12 dB B. 14 dB C. 18 dB D. 24 dB ~~ E9B04 (D) What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed? A. Feed point impedance may become negative B. The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse C. Element spacing limits could be exceeded D. The gain may change depending on frequency ~~ E9B05 (B) What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain? A. The front-to-back ratio increases B. The front-to-back ratio decreases C. The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band D. The SWR is reduced ~~ E9B06 (A) If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs? A. The gain increases B. The SWR decreases C. The front-to-back ratio increases D. The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly ~~ E9B07 (C) How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power? A. The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna B. The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio C. They are the same D. The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna ~~ E9B08 (A) How can the approximate beamwidth in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined? A. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference B. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna C. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines D. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna ~~ E9B09 (B) What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas? A. Graphical analysis B. Method of Moments C. Mutual impedance analysis D. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties ~~ E9B10 (A) What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis? A. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current B. A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator C. A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space D. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it ~~ E9B11 (C) What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength? A. Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled B. The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy C. The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect D. The antenna will become mechanically unstable ~~ E9B12 (D) What is the far-field of an antenna? A. The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted B. The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period C. The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection D. The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance E9B13 (B) What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs? A. Next Element Comparison B. Numerical Electromagnetics Code C. National Electrical Code D. Numeric Electrical Computation ~~ E9B14 (D) What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program? A. SWR vs. frequency charts B. Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns C. Antenna gain D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E9C Wire and phased vertical antennas: beverage antennas; rhombic antennas; elevation above real ground; ground effects as related to polarization; take-off angles E9C01 (D) What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase? A. A cardioid B. Omnidirectional C. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array D. A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array ~~ E9C02 (A) What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase? A. A cardioid B. A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array C. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array D. Omnidirectional ~~ E9C03 (C) What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase? A. Omnidirectional B. A cardioid C. A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array D. A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array ~~ E9C04 (B) Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna? A. Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance B. Bidirectional; four-sides, each side one or more wavelengths long; open at the end opposite the transmission line connection C. Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmission connection; D. Four-sides, each of a different physical length ~~ E9C05 (C) What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands? A. The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth B. The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal C. The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate supports D. The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type ~~ E9C06 (B) What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna? A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter B. It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional C. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization D. It decreases the ground loss ~~ E9C07 (A) What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2? A. Elevation B. Azimuth C. Radiation resistance D. Polarization ~~ E9C08 (C) What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2? A. 45 degrees B. 75 degrees C. 7.5 degrees D. 25 degrees ~~ E9C09 (B) What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2? A. 15 dB B. 28 dB C. 3 dB D. 24 dB ~~ E9C10 (A) How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2? A. 4 B. 3 C. 1 D. 7 ~~ E9C11 (D) How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground? A. The low-angle radiation decreases B. The high-angle radiation increases C. Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease D. The low-angle radiation increases ~~ E9C12 (D) When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency? A. Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength B. It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground C. It should be configured as a four-sided loop D. It should be one or more wavelengths long ~~ E9C13 (C) What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground? A. It causes increased SWR B. It changes the impedance angle of the matching network C. It reduces low-angle radiation D. It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna ~~ E9D Directional antennas: gain; satellite antennas; antenna beamwidth; stacking antennas; antenna efficiency; traps; folded dipoles; shortened and mobile antennas; grounding E9D01 (C) How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled? A. Gain does not change B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707 C. Gain increases by 6 dB D. Gain increases by 3 dB ~~ E9D02 (C) How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization? A. Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes B. Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase D. Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase ~~ E9D03 (D) How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased? A. It increases geometrically B. It increases arithmetically C. It is essentially unaffected D. It decreases ~~ E9D04 (A) Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation? A. In order to track the satellite as it orbits the Earth B. So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals C. So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation D. To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite ~~ E9D05 (A) Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna? A. Near the center of the vertical radiator B. As low as possible on the vertical radiator C. As close to the transmitter as possible D. At a voltage node ~~ E9D06 (C) Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? A. To swamp out harmonics B. To maximize losses C. To minimize losses D. To minimize the Q ~~ E9D07 (A) What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna? A. It might radiate harmonics B. It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well C. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies D. It must be neutralized ~~ E9D08 (B) What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils? A. It is increased B. It is decreased C. No change occurs D. It becomes flat ~~ E9D09 (D) What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna? A. Lower Q B. Greater structural strength C. Higher losses D. Improved radiation efficiency ~~ E9D10 (A) What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna? A. 300 ohms B. 72 ohms C. 50 ohms D. 450 ohms ~~ E9D11 (D) What is the function of a loading coil as used with an HF mobile antenna? A. To increase the SWR bandwidth B. To lower the losses C. To lower the Q D. To cancel capacitive reactance ~~ E9D12 (D) What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna? A. It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands B. It has high gain C. It minimizes harmonic radiation D. It may be used for multiband operation ~~ E9D13 (B) What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered? A. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases B. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases C. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases D. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases ~~ E9D14 (B) Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system? A. A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire B. A wide flat copper strap C. A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel D. A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire ~~ E9D15 (C) Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station? A. A 50-ohm resistor connected to ground B. An electrically-short connection to a metal water pipe C. An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth D. An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke ~~ E9E Matching: matching antennas to feed lines; power dividers E9E01 (B) What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center? A. The gamma matching system B. The delta matching system C. The omega matching system D. The stub matching system ~~ E9E02 (A) What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center? A. The gamma match B. The delta match C. The epsilon match D. The stub match ~~ E9E03 (D) What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point? A. The gamma match B. The delta match C. The omega match D. The stub match ~~ E9E04 (B) What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network? A. To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna B. To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network C. To provide a rejection notch to prevent the radiation of harmonics D. To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value ~~ E9E05 (A) How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system? A. The driven element reactance must be capacitive B. The driven element reactance must be inductive C. The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency D. The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line ~~ E9E06 (C) What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matching system on a 3-element Yagi? A. Pi network B. Pi-L network C. L network D. Parallel-resonant tank ~~ E9E07 (B) What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line? A. Characteristic impedance B. Reflection coefficient C. Velocity factor D. Dielectric constant ~~ E9E08 (D) Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line? A. An SWR less than 1:1 B. A reflection coefficient greater than 1 C. A dielectric constant greater than 1 D. An SWR greater than 1:1 ~~ E9E09 (C) Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna? A. Double-bazooka match B. Hairpin match C. Gamma match D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E9E10 (C) Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line? A. Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna B. Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable C. Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable D. Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna ~~ E9E11 (B) What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown? A. Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line B. Use the universal stub matching technique C. Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals D. Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals ~~ E9E12 (A) What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements? A. It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern B. It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter C. It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands D. It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern ~~ E9E13 (C) What is the purpose of a Wilkinson divider? A. It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band B. It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source C. It divides power equally among multiple loads while preventing changes in one load from disturbing power flow to the others D. It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source ~~ E9F Transmission lines: characteristics of open and shorted feed lines; 1/8 wavelength; 1/4 wavelength; 1/2 wavelength; feed lines: coax versus open-wire; velocity factor; electrical length; coaxial cable dielectrics; velocity factor E9F01 (D) What is the velocity factor of a transmission line? A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable C. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum D. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum ~~ E9F02 (C) Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line? A. The termination impedance B. The line length C. Dielectric materials used in the line D. The center conductor resistivity ~~ E9F03 (D) Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length? A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable B. The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line C. The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line D. Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air ~~ E9F04 (B) What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric? A. 2.70 B. 0.66 C. 0.30 D. 0.10 ~~ E9F05 (C) What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz? A. 20 meters B. 2.3 meters C. 3.5 meters D. 0.2 meters ~~ E9F06 (C) What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? A. 15 meters B. 20 meters C. 10 meters D. 71 meters ~~ E9F07 (A) How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz? A. Lower loss B. Higher SWR C. Smaller reflection coefficient D. Lower velocity factor ~~ E9F08 (A) What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum? A. Velocity factor B. Characteristic impedance C. Surge impedance D. Standing wave ratio ~~ E9F09 (B) What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz? A. 10 meters B. 6.9 meters C. 24 meters D. 50 meters ~~ E9F10 (C) What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end? A. A capacitive reactance B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line C. An inductive reactance D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage ~~ E9F11 (C) What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end? A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line B. An inductive reactance C. A capacitive reactance D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage ~~ E9F12 (D) What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end? A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line B. The same as the input impedance to the generator C. Very high impedance D. Very low impedance ~~ E9F13 (A) What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end? A. Very high impedance B. Very low impedance C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line D. The same as the generator output impedance ~~ E9F14 (B) What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end? A. Very high impedance B. Very low impedance C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line D. The same as the output impedance of the generator ~~ E9F15 (A) What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end? A. Very high impedance B. Very low impedance C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line D. The same as the output impedance of the generator ~~ E9F16 (D) Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same? A. Reduced safe operating voltage limits B. Reduced losses per unit of length C. Higher velocity factor D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E9G The Smith chart E9G01 (A) Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart? A. Impedance along transmission lines B. Radiation resistance C. Antenna radiation pattern D. Radio propagation ~~ E9G02 (B) What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? A. Voltage circles and current arcs B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs C. Voltage lines and current chords D. Resistance lines and reactance chords ~~ E9G03 (C) Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart? A. Beam headings and radiation patterns B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines D. Trigonometric functions ~~ E9G04 (C) What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart? A. Resistance and voltage B. Reactance and voltage C. Resistance and reactance D. Voltage and impedance ~~ E9G05 (A) What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3? A. Smith chart B. Free-space radiation directivity chart C. Elevation angle radiation pattern chart D. Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart ~~ E9G06 (B) On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate? A. Prime axis B. Reactance axis C. Impedance axis D. Polar axis ~~ E9G07 (D) On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown? A. The reactance axis B. The current axis C. The voltage axis D. The resistance axis ~~ E9G08 (C) What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart? A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis C. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis ~~ E9G09 (A) What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems? A. Standing-wave ratio circles B. Antenna-length circles C. Coaxial-length circles D. Radiation-pattern circles ~~ E9G10 (D) What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent? A. Frequency B. SWR C. Points with constant resistance D. Points with constant reactance ~~ E9G11 (B) How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated? A. In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency B. In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength C. In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength D. In fractions of antenna electrical frequency ~~ E9H Effective radiated power; system gains and losses; radio direction finding antennas E9H01 (D) What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain? A. 1977 watts B. 78.7 watts C. 420 watts D. 286 watts ~~ E9H02 (A) What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain? A. 317 watts B. 2000 watts C. 126 watts D. 300 watts ~~ E9H03 (B) What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain? A. 159 watts B. 252 watts C. 632 watts D. 63.2 watts ~~ E9H04 (C) What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses? A. Power factor B. Half-power bandwidth C. Effective radiated power D. Apparent power ~~ E9H05 (A) What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding? A. It has a bidirectional pattern B. It is non-rotatable C. It receives equally well in all directions D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands ~~ E9H06 (C) What is the triangulation method of direction finding? A. The geometric angle of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position B. A fixed receiving station plots three headings from the signal source on a map C. Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source D. A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source ~~ E9H07 (D) Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding? A. It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio B. It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity C. It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity D. It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls ~~ E9H08 (A) What is the function of a sense antenna? A. It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction B. It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array C. It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles D. It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals ~~ E9H09 (C) Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna? A. A large circularly-polarized antenna B. A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core C. One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil D. A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire ~~ E9H10 (D) How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased? A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure C. By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both ~~ E9H11 (B) What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding? A. A very sharp peak B. A very sharp single null C. Broad band response D. High-radiation angle ~~ E9H12 (B) What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding? A. It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations B. It is electro-statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls C. It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals D. It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position ~~ SUBELEMENT E0 – SAFETY - [1 exam question -– 1 group] E0A Safety: amateur radio safety practices; RF radiation hazards; hazardous materials E0A01 (C) What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna? A. There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation B. Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings C. Radioactive materials emit ionizing radiation, while RF signals have less energy and can only cause heating D. Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem ~~ E0A02 (B) When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s home, what must you do? A. Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits B. Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits C. You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property D. Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests ~~ E0A03 (C) Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits? A. Use a calibrated antenna analyzer B. Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields C. Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations D. All of the choices are correct ~~ E0A04 (C) When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations? A. Only the most powerful transmitter B. Only commercial transmitters C. Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations D. Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50% ~~ E0A05 (B) What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands? A. Microwaves are ionizing radiation B. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels C. Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection D. The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures ~~ E0A06 (D) Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits? A. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields B. Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location C. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E0A07 (B) How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected? A. By the odor B. Only with a carbon monoxide detector C. Any ordinary smoke detector can be used D. By the yellowish appearance of the gas ~~ E0A08 (C) What does SAR measure? A. Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body B. Signal Amplification Rating C. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body D. The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain ~~ E0A09 (C) Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled? A. Mica B. Zinc oxide C. Beryllium Oxide D. Uranium Hexaflouride ~~ E0A10 (A) What material found in some electronic components such as high-voltage capacitors and transformers is considered toxic? A. Polychlorinated biphenyls B. Polyethylene C. Polytetrafluroethylene D. Polymorphic silicon ~~ E0A11 (C) Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters? A. Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge B. Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field C. Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits D. Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system ~~ ~~end of question pool text~~ NOTE: The graphics required for certain questions in sections E5, E6, E7, and E9 are included on the following pages: ~~~ end of question pool ~~~ share/README0000644000175000017500000000126311703352477011223 0ustar jtnjtnhamexam is the top-level script. It chooses a question and uses ask.awk to present each question and interpret the response. The question pools were downloaded from http://www.ncvec.org/ and then split apart into a separate file for each question using the split.awk script. The 3 element pools are stored in the T, G, and E directories. The question files will need to be updated when the pools expire or are modified. The T*.png, G*.png, and E*.png files contain the diagrams needed to answer some of the questions. 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W'z|l]BnF c-RÇ---VZ?㧎*RJHH}rl˗}W)^ˏ`|Oݪxl74uuuWe˖zd{{ct`w޼y| 9˱]V^zU vqqqɹ޹f͚k׮]8ݻwZ*(i,XxYrrAX|ǏӿfϞYTy+VСC^B˖- Ps4iDb!Q/o6좰PFHmV044\~xjyNw}ٳg޽{7gAWӹsv޽tRO~΂ tuu]]]Ax vSǏ+?GNJN:ScNZZ_Fzڵƍϟ?WZ߾}@dggϘ1tܹPn]1V\YvTĤk׮4bpMq\D"ٶm=|״iSGGXSSݻcǎU~%G```TTT@@[AkΉ]n*4ÇV*QNqظ~(,db6n bi\sA]]}&M*3nݺqy6mڸ߿5䅻RRR-Q/^xݻwWI<Oq̂T&;믿V:h 33 /J$ӧOۃW;wn+̗y СCWW(/fffٛ7o2e ;'Jk׾{K*?b0+V,Me=ZZ5y%L֭[.].]t!k4 >SNJNNNӦMSݻwųO8W_=jjjCzjooDAڵk:p@^`````ҕj*y ~~~W5k477˗Rׂ G{SYC___b ݻw?{|VݻwW<+H~gyBpu떩+Ui"ƌ=}e˖ p-Z~y󦋋mvZs؁2oĈ͛=nܸw]33sΥI$6m$$$2܍SLYl< pܹA_թSGqUSkB޽{ɓڱc 5k֔ebGAF999)YMMmȑwޥ'aMfYk2KRkkk[b̘1bLvر NNNř222jժLMMܑ|ޯ*a||su&JU(ǟ2eJl~Y.&k׮rr={_~9|vvT3L&Wٳg\͛7b/WYfiiiZZZۋ @V\9zh+Ǐ | *IOOk֬Ç^jkkhC޽kllyZpaJJJ`` -[iɓ'-[$(:͛7eZZZLL?PB UωШ^۷oW\I|>)));w~/;vl P6m$?waccƦתURJ˖-۷D@ŋwA"ׯw>ůq#F?A DZ]5:uꔭ 70aˬ@CYӱcÇ߸qcRtΝfffÆ s L߿?uT--}t y|>V 4Xti͚5߿OE޽{]:55U|200hРe5jԠ"tROOςm۶m/H.\СC OLLիNVO>zh޽{b˗WZiӦt;@iӦeeeڵM6*6y䉇GӦMCBBTl*GE98pĉcǎU= .2z{?@d>@III3gN>gϞ~ 0@V-JKK[n:=rv'OYX&َZZZ~~~oܹs{۷oϞ=v0Pejj:{l[ر3fhܸMd2ټy444|}}v(VΩj;WWך5k/:88@.DDD8FV˖-߱cM\\\UAEq>JNNNZZZުuƍ۷o?n8[.X,@1`%HDD֭[To->_RWW?~|>}v@Qbb͛7-ZԬY3[eggc(a͚5 6)|(=zԿqطo_~|(144LHHRJZ988:_[lMd>#vvvFRIBBcff̙#f͚E97 `aaaaaVÆ 2ʗC>|p۶m*?~|FF]< :T& <Ύ,zzO?vZշzJ*mذɓ:kyIҩS6lPp9c A,YRNz@ILLڦMTwSNUVmҥ ?nٲܹsyJbcc5k&ɧ`AJGG9 5kVFFɓ۴ib zYhoooDqF ||=x`>_K =z499se2JC߆^^^ iҤUl"ɦN1~P߿?$$d;wTU޽R#G:ubcǎ۷oݻwQ8/`S7IIIfWDHHGz̜;wݎb8__'OjjjءC!C$==]<^Z5z/^lٲE4GGG}}|D{3 d>#gΜܸq._#HTlݻݻO2n$**jÆ VVV'NTڵk5kŋd>?7o7oV fff7RJ\\1@9!J$IPPbccW\ijjł,YÇ;v ^zՋUʕp9رˎZ;n|Ν;wΊsR(㝝k׮zkvvv666*6djjjt;唋Kbb޽{Tl9g]]׫… ӧO7770(wգGÇ~vtt[ܪV*֙呡֭[mmm5M6NNN .׶&Nخ];###d>D"0aB~[+/cd>@d>@2| 2| @d>@d>2 ?o>-RJtҿ"݄D&ev| 2| 2d>@d>@ 2| 2|d>@d>@2| 2| @d>@d>2| 2| @d>@d>| 2| 2d>@d>@ 2| 2|d>@d>@2| 2| @d>@d>2| 2| @d>@d>@ 2| 2|d>@d>@2| 2| @d>@d>2| 2| @d>@d>| 2| 2d>@d>@ 2| 2|d>@d>@2| 2| @d>@d>2| 2| @d>@d>| 2| 2d>@d>@2| 2| @d>@d>2| 2| @d>@d>| 2| 2d>@d>@ 2| 2|d>@d>@2| 2| @d>vX`0E|8|8|88|\(}kIENDB`share/ask.awk0000644000175000017500000000140611703352437011620 0ustar jtnjtn# display question, possible answers, then process reply # Copyright (C) 2011-2012 John Nogatch # collect info (NR==1){answer = $0; key = $2; gsub( /[^A-D]/, "", key); next} # display question and possible answers {print $0; next} # read response from stdin, if wrong, print correct answer info and wait for ack END { # read user's response if (getline < "/dev/stdin" != 1) exit 2 # convert to upper case response = toupper( $1) # check for "quit" if (response == "Q") exit 2 # check for incorrect response if (response != key) { print "*******" answer "\nto continue, hit Enter" if (getline < "/dev/stdin" != 1) exit 2 exit 1 } # response was correct print ".......correct\n" exit 0 } share/hamexam0000755000175000017500000001066312113704546011707 0ustar jtnjtn#!/bin/sh # study ham exam question pools # Copyright (C) 2011-2012 John Nogatch # dir where question pools reside? INSTALLDIR="$(dirname "$(readlink -f $0)")" # user specified png viewer? if [ -n "${PNG_VIEWER+xxx}" ]; then if type "${PNG_VIEWER}" > /dev/null 2>&1; then echo "user specified \$PNG_VIEWER: ${PNG_VIEWER}" else echo "user specified \$PNG_VIEWER: ${PNG_VIEWER} is not executable" PNG_VIEWER="" fi # try eog elif type "eog" > /dev/null 2>&1; then PNG_VIEWER="eog" # try gwenview elif type "gwenview" > /dev/null 2>&1; then PNG_VIEWER="gwenview" # try gpicview elif type "gpicview" > /dev/null 2>&1; then PNG_VIEWER="gpicview" # try ristretto elif type "ristretto" > /dev/null 2>&1; then PNG_VIEWER="ristretto" else echo "\$PNG_VIEWER was not specifed nor found" PNG_VIEWER="" fi # dir to keep user's unanswered questions USERDIR=~/.hamexam # create user dir, if needed if [ ! -d "${USERDIR}" ]; then echo "creating ${USERDIR}" mkdir "${USERDIR}" if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then echo "unable to create ~/.hamexam directory" sleep 3 exit 1 fi fi # check argument for T, G, or E, default to showing usage, version, brief help # set POOL within set {T,G,E} case "$1" in "2" | [tT]* ) POOL="T";; "3" | [gG]* ) POOL="G";; "4" | [eE]* ) POOL="E";; "q" | *) echo "usage: hamexam {t|g|e|q}"; echo "hamexam version 1.2.1"; echo "Technician, Element 2 effective July-2010"; echo "General, Element 3 effective July-2011"; echo "Extra, Element 4 effective July-2012"; echo "hamexam is an interactive study guide for USA FCC amateur radio (ham radio) examinations."; echo "The 3 question pools are:"; echo " t element 2, Technician Class (entry level),"; echo " g element 3, General Class (also requires element 2),"; echo " e element 4, Extra Class (also requires elements 2 and 3)."; echo "Questions are chosen randomly from the selected pool."; echo "Incorrect answers cause the question to be asked again later."; echo "Licenses are issued by the FCC, but exams are conducted by Volunteer Examiners." echo "For more information about USA amateur radio licensing: http://www.arrl.org/licensing-preparation-exams"; if [ "$1" != "q" ]; then sleep 3 exit 1; fi; POOL="Q" while [ $POOL = "Q" ]:; do # read -p "Which pool? {t,g,e} " POOL; (Debian: read with option other than -r) echo -n "Which pool? {t,g,e}: "; read POOL; case "$POOL" in "2" | [tT]* ) POOL="T";; "3" | [gG]* ) POOL="G";; "4" | [eE]* ) POOL="E";; * ) POOL="Q";; esac; done esac # go to user dir so that question names are accessible cd ${USERDIR} if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then echo "unable to access ~/.hamexam directory" sleep 3 exit 1 fi # if no questions remain, reload all the questions ls ${POOL}* >> /dev/null 2>&1 if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then case ${POOL} in "T" ) echo "reloading Technicican Class element 2";; "G" ) echo "reloading General Class element 3";; "E" ) echo "reloading Extra Class element 4";; "" | * ) echo "POOL variable was not set correctly"; sleep 3; exit 1;; esac ls "${INSTALLDIR}"/${POOL} | xargs touch else echo "resuming remaining questions" fi # no PNG_VIEWER available? if [ "${PNG_VIEWER}" = "" ]; then echo "no PNG_VIEWER to display diagrams" else # bring up diagrams for this element ${PNG_VIEWER} ${INSTALLDIR}/${POOL}pngs/${POOL}1.png 2>/dev/null & if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then echo "${PNG_VIEWER} failed to display diagrams" fi fi # report how many questions remain ls ${POOL}* | wc | awk '{print $1 " questions remain in this pool\n"}' while :; do # random choice from remaining questions Q=`shuf -n 1 -e ${POOL}*` # exit if no more questions if [ "${Q}" = "${POOL}*" ]; then echo "question pool ${POOL} completed" sleep 3 break fi # if question still exists (might be stale name from old pool)... if [ -e "${INSTALLDIR}"/${POOL}/"${Q}" ]; then # no png viewer? if [ -z "${PNG_VIEWER}" ]; then # question references figure? egrep '[Ff]igure ' "${INSTALLDIR}"/${POOL}/"${Q}" >> /dev/null if [ $? = 0 ]; then echo "question ${Q} refers to a figure\n" rm "${Q}" continue fi fi # ...ask the question awk -f "${INSTALLDIR}"/ask.awk "${INSTALLDIR}"/${POOL}/"${Q}" else echo "question ${Q} not found" fi case $? in # if correct, remove the question 0) rm "${Q}";; # check for quit or EOF 2) break;; esac done exit 0 # end of hamexam share/split.awk0000644000175000017500000000212311703352510012162 0ustar jtnjtn# split question pool file into separate file for each question # Copyright (C) 2011-2012 John Nogatch # recognize new question/answer info /^[EGT][0-9][A-Z][0-9][0-9] \([A-D])/{ question = $1 # continue copying lines until does not start with ordinary text while ($1 ~ /[A-Za-z0-9 ]/) { # remove spurious \r {gsub( /\r/, "")} # replace \222 apostrophes {gsub( /\222/, "\47")} # replace \223 quotes {gsub( /\223/, "\42")} # replace \224 quotes {gsub( /\224/, "\42")} # replace \226 hyphen {gsub( /\226/, "-")} # replace \240 space {gsub( /\240/, " ")} # replace 3-char exponent leader {gsub( / \342\200.E/, "^")} # replace 3-char apostrophes {gsub( /\342\200\231/, "\47")} # replace 3-char quotes {gsub( /\342\200\234/, "\42")} # replace 3-char quotes {gsub( /\342\200\235/, "\42")} # this print for debug # print "\"" question "\"" $0 # output modified line to question file print $0 > question # read another line & exit if error if (getline != 1) break } # avoid leaving too many descriptors open close( question) } share/Tpngs/0000755000175000017500000000000011703406234011423 5ustar jtnjtnshare/Tpngs/T2.png0000644000175000017500000011211411573261471012425 0ustar jtnjtnPNG  IHDRQK sRGB pHYsaa?itIMES< IDATx}\}*I 1EdnrffH`懑es/cf݊D~4M&).s~\ߝonNu:xW׹uT\בT*|@4h>4h>|@@4h>|h>|@44h>|@@4h>|4h>|@JߋfjjjqV+4#Ɏ=5׬YuUhy\RRq;ߏر#C 4cjj:zYbܹsOh)'OƖz !!!~ %%gy=GG5j۠Accc!D\\MjjjVVݻWp;o ]YYY|E7lؠ_{k׮}<P cڵ..._~߳gon:|p:uN:_Wn&N_{dɒy(Tk**88v֭g\cӇ ҦM۷o1/_[+v_UVYYYW^-ѽ۶mې!C,,,x-[رC~>>>fMLLr<""b޽{z_u[3g(b޵K.ٓGh> jժU߾}wqFr3g}E-Z,//|A.O28|7 e1.HIIٽ{'OԯigEla]Wn-޸...>[;vׯ%2|. 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A. Peak-to-peak voltage B. RMS voltage C. Average voltage D. DC voltage share/E/E1C070000644000175000017500000000043711712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE1C07 (C) [97.3] What is meant by local control? A. Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link B. Automatically manipulating local station controls C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator D. Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver share/E/E4A020000644000175000017500000000020711712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE4A02 (D) Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis? A. SWR B. Q C. Time D. Frequency share/E/E5D110000644000175000017500000000023211712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE5D11 (C) What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.414 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 1.73 share/E/E1D020000644000175000017500000000067011712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE1D02 (C) [97.3] What is the amateur satellite service? A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites C. A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast share/E/E7G040000644000175000017500000000027011712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE7G04 (C) Which of the following is a type of capacitor best suited for use in high-stability op-amp RC active filter circuits? A. Electrolytic B. Disc ceramic C. Polystyrene D. Paper share/E/E7F100000644000175000017500000000034711712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE7F10 (B) What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters? A. GPS averaging B. Period measurement plus mathematical computation C. Prescaling D. D/A conversion share/E/E8A060000644000175000017500000000023111712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE8A06 (A) What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal? A. 2.5 to 1 B. 25 to 1 C. 1 to 1 D. 100 to 1 share/E/E2A050000644000175000017500000000041311712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE2A05 (D) What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify? A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions B. The location of the ground control station C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals D. The uplink and downlink frequency ranges share/E/E8B020000644000175000017500000000053411712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE8B02 (D) How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)? A. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency share/E/E7A010000644000175000017500000000016311712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE7A01 (C) Which of the following is a bistable circuit? A. An "AND" gate B. An "OR" gate C. A flip-flop D. A clock share/E/E5A080000644000175000017500000000050211712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE5A08 (C) What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance? A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees C. The voltage and current are in phase D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase share/E/E5D050000644000175000017500000000025111712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE5D05 (B) Which of the following creates a magnetic field? A. Potential differences between two points in space B. Electric current C. A charged capacitor D. A battery share/E/E9H110000644000175000017500000000027511712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE9H11 (B) What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding? A. A very sharp peak B. A very sharp single null C. Broad band response D. High-radiation angle share/E/E2D040000644000175000017500000000051311712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE2D04 (C) What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite? A. To upload operational software for the transponder B. To delay download of telemetry between satellites C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations D. To relay messages between satellites share/E/E1A130000644000175000017500000000077511712775740011175 0ustar jtnjtnE1A13 (B) [97.5] Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States? A. Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio B. Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation C. Only a person named in an amateur station license grant D. Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit share/E/E6F050000644000175000017500000000064311712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE6F05 (A) Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder? A. A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel B. A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion C. A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals D. A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source. share/E/E4E050000644000175000017500000000055711712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE4E05 (B) How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed? A. By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads B. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads C. By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads D. By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor share/E/E5D010000644000175000017500000000061711712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE5D01 (A) What is the result of skin effect? A. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface B. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance share/E/E4A070000644000175000017500000000056511712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE4A07 (B) Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR? A. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance B. Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source C. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E8C060000644000175000017500000000021011712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE8C06 (C) What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission? A. 0.1 Hz B. 0.3 kHz C. 0.5 kHz D. 1.0 kHz share/E/E1B070000644000175000017500000000050111712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE1B07 (B) [97.15] Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation? A. At the lowest frequency of the channel B. At the center frequency of the channel C. At the highest frequency of the channel D. On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel share/E/E3B110000644000175000017500000000047111712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE3B11 (C) Which of the following describes gray-line propagation? A. Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band B. Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands C. Long distance communications at twilight on frequencies less than 15 MHz D. Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands share/E/E3C110000644000175000017500000000027011712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE3C11 (B) From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation? A. South B. North C. East D. West share/E/E2E040000644000175000017500000000045511712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE2E04 (A) What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears? A. Selective fading has occurred B. One of the signal filters has saturated C. The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency D. The mark and space signal have been inverted share/E/E2A030000644000175000017500000000047711712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE2A03 (C) What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite? A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit C. The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth D. The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee share/E/E4D100000644000175000017500000000111111712775741011162 0ustar jtnjtnE4D10 (C) What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance? A. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products B. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products C. A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals D. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal share/E/E7C140000644000175000017500000000024511712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE7C14 (C) Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter? A. Meteor Scatter B. Single-Sideband voice C. Digital D. Video share/E/E9D070000644000175000017500000000035711712775741011210 0ustar jtnjtnE9D07 (A) What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna? A. It might radiate harmonics B. It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well C. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies D. It must be neutralized share/E/E1F030000644000175000017500000000110711712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE1F03 (A) [97.315] Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification? A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government share/E/E9F070000644000175000017500000000026711712775741011212 0ustar jtnjtnE9F07 (A) How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz? A. Lower loss B. Higher SWR C. Smaller reflection coefficient D. Lower velocity factor share/E/E9G030000644000175000017500000000035311712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE9G03 (C) Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart? A. Beam headings and radiation patterns B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines D. Trigonometric functions share/E/E1B120000644000175000017500000000022711712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE1B12 (B) [97.307] What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation? A. .5 B. 1.0 C. 2.0 D. 3.0 share/E/E2E030000644000175000017500000000063111712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE2E03 (C) How is Forward Error Correction implemented? A. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters B. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters C. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm share/E/E5D020000644000175000017500000000041511712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE5D02 (C) Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents? A. Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect C. Because of skin effect D. Because conductors are non-linear devices share/E/E9F100000644000175000017500000000045511712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE9F10 (C) What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end? A. A capacitive reactance B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line C. An inductive reactance D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage share/E/E9D040000644000175000017500000000062511712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE9D04 (A) Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation? A. In order to track the satellite as it orbits the Earth B. So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals C. So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation D. To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite share/E/E4E080000644000175000017500000000044211712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE4E08 (A) What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna? A. A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter B. An electrical-sparking signal C. A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency D. Harmonics of the AC power line frequency share/E/E7E130000644000175000017500000000052411712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE7E13 (D) Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing? A. Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits B. A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands C. Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics D. The quadrature method share/E/E1C060000644000175000017500000000057011712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE1C06 (C) [97.109] Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true? A. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station B. A control operator need not be present at the control point C. A control operator must be present at the control point D. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled share/E/E1A110000644000175000017500000000062211712775740011162 0ustar jtnjtnE1A11 (B) [97.5] What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters? A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement B. Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an alien amateur licensee C. Only General class or higher amateur licenses D. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit share/E/E5B080000644000175000017500000000055311712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE5B08 (A) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms? A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current share/E/E7A060000644000175000017500000000062711712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE7A06 (A) What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator? A. It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns, after a set time, to its original state B. It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0 C. It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state D. It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage share/E/E6C060000644000175000017500000000054611712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE6C06 (C) Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply? A. Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design B. The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage C. The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage D. Input signals are stronger share/E/E4B110000644000175000017500000000056411712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE4B11 (D) How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance? A. Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base B. Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna C. Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer D. Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector share/E/E1B060000644000175000017500000000103211712775740011163 0ustar jtnjtnE1B06 (A) [97.15] Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport? A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority share/E/E2B020000644000175000017500000000015411712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE2B02 (C) How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame? A. 30 B. 60 C. 525 D. 1080 share/E/E5A070000644000175000017500000000021011712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE5A07 (A) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? A. Minimum B. Maximum C. R/L D. L/R share/E/E4A080000644000175000017500000000025611712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE4A08 (D) Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna? A. A spectrum analyzer B. A Q meter C. An ohmmeter D. An antenna analyzer share/E/E9B090000644000175000017500000000034211712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE9B09 (B) What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas? A. Graphical analysis B. Method of Moments C. Mutual impedance analysis D. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties share/E/E2C060000644000175000017500000000066411712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE2C06 (C) During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity? A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency C. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency share/E/E1F140000644000175000017500000000053511712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE1F14 (A) [1.931] Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station? A. To provide for experimental amateur communications B. To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels C. To provide additional spectrum for personal use D. To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing share/E/E9G010000644000175000017500000000027011712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE9G01 (A) Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart? A. Impedance along transmission lines B. Radiation resistance C. Antenna radiation pattern D. Radio propagation share/E/E9G110000644000175000017500000000043311712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE9G11 (B) How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated? A. In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency B. In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength C. In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength D. In fractions of antenna electrical frequency share/E/E7D040000644000175000017500000000034411712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE7D04 (B) Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source? A. A series current source B. A series regulator C. A shunt regulator D. A shunt current source share/E/E2C070000644000175000017500000000037611712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE2C07 (A) What is the Cabrillo format? A. A standard for submission of electronic contest logs B. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO C. The most common set of contest rules D. The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors share/E/E1F040000644000175000017500000000057711712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE1F04 (A) [97.3] Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"? A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border B. A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline C. A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline D. A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline share/E/E6E020000644000175000017500000000054611712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE6E02 (A) Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter? A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals B. The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal C. The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter D. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter share/E/E2D010000644000175000017500000000022511712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE2D01 (B) Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals? A. WSPR B. FSK441 C. Hellschreiber D. APRS share/E/E7D100000644000175000017500000000034111712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE7D10 (A) What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. It prevents self-oscillation B. It provides brute force filtering of the output C. It provides fixed bias for Q1 D. It clips the peaks of the ripple share/E/E7C060000644000175000017500000000052711712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE7C06 (C) What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter? A. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple B. Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners C. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band D. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple share/E/E6C070000644000175000017500000000013411712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE6C07 (A) In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E/E6A030000644000175000017500000000021611712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE6A03 (C) What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material? A. Free neutrons B. Free protons C. Holes D. Free electrons share/E/E4B100000644000175000017500000000116711712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE4B10 (B) Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter? A. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer B. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer C. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter D. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer share/E/E4C110000644000175000017500000000022311712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE4C11 (B) Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver? A. 1 kHz B. 2.4 kHz C. 4.2 kHz D. 4.8 kHz share/E/E0A080000644000175000017500000000034011712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE0A08 (C) What does SAR measure? A. Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body B. Signal Amplification Rating C. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body D. The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain share/E/E4E020000644000175000017500000000031211712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE4E02 (D) Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter? A. Broadband white noise B. Ignition noise C. Power line noise D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E5C050000644000175000017500000000046511712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE5C05 (A) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees share/E/E6D140000644000175000017500000000040611712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE6D14 (C) Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)? A. It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry B. It can be used to make an audio delay line C. It is commonly used as an analog-to-digital converter D. It samples and stores analog signals share/E/E5C150000644000175000017500000000037211712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE5C15 (A) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance? A. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees B. 100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees C. 100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees share/E/E9A130000644000175000017500000000025511712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE9A13 (A) How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna? A. 3.85 dB B. 6.0 dB C. 8.15 dB D. 2.79 dB share/E/E7E080000644000175000017500000000050211712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE7E08 (C) What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit? A. Two and four times the original frequency B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies C. The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency share/E/E7A080000644000175000017500000000053411712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE7A08 (A) What logical operation does an OR gate perform? A. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1" B. It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1" C. It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1" D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0" share/E/E2E020000644000175000017500000000026611712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE2E02 (A) What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation? A. Forward Error Correction B. First Error Correction C. Fatal Error Correction D. Final Error Correction share/E/E7A090000644000175000017500000000057511712775741011207 0ustar jtnjtnE7A09 (C) What logical operation is performed by a two-input exclusive NOR gate? A. It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0" B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1" C. It produces a logic "0" at its output if any single input is a logic "1" D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any single input is a logic "1" share/E/E9F080000644000175000017500000000035711712775741011213 0ustar jtnjtnE9F08 (A) What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum? A. Velocity factor B. Characteristic impedance C. Surge impedance D. Standing wave ratio share/E/E8A020000644000175000017500000000025111712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE8A02 (C) What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)? A. A cosine wave B. A square wave C. A sawtooth wave D. A sine wave share/E/E7B090000644000175000017500000000133711712775741011205 0ustar jtnjtnE7B09 (D) Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a pi-network output circuit? A. The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current B. The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current C. The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current D. The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, while the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current share/E/E6D080000644000175000017500000000064511712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE6D08 (B) What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor? A. Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeability B. Powdered-iron toroids generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents C. Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value D. Powdered-iron toroids have higher power handling capacity share/E/E1D060000644000175000017500000000070511712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE1D06 (A) [97.207] Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements? A. The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E2C110000644000175000017500000000061411712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE2C11 (A) How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest? A. Send your full call sign once or twice B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact C. Send your full call sign and grid square D. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times share/E/E9H070000644000175000017500000000072511712775741011213 0ustar jtnjtnE9H07 (D) Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding? A. It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio B. It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity C. It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity D. It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls share/E/E7D020000644000175000017500000000057511712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE7D02 (C) What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator? A. The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current B. It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator C. The control device's duty cycle is controlled to produce a constant average output voltage D. It gives a ramp voltage at its output share/E/E7D050000644000175000017500000000033711712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE7D05 (D) Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source? A. A constant current source B. A series regulator C. A shunt current source D. A shunt regulator share/E/E8D070000644000175000017500000000054011712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE8D07 (C) What is an electromagnetic wave? A. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet B. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other D. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other share/E/E9E050000644000175000017500000000061211712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE9E05 (A) How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system? A. The driven element reactance must be capacitive B. The driven element reactance must be inductive C. The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency D. The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line share/E/E6B020000644000175000017500000000044311712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE6B02 (D) What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier? A. Much higher reverse voltage breakdown B. Controlled reverse avalanche voltage C. Enhanced carrier retention time D. Less forward voltage drop share/E/E1C080000644000175000017500000000030611712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE1C08 (B) [97.213] What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions? A. 30 seconds B. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 10 minutes share/E/E1E130000644000175000017500000000053711712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE1E13 (A) [97.519] What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC? A. The licensee's license will be cancelled B. The person may be fined or imprisoned C. The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant D. All these choices are correct share/E/E7E070000644000175000017500000000057211712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE7E07 (B) What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications? A. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers B. The frequency components present in the modulating signal C. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal D. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency share/E/E9A090000644000175000017500000000046711712775741011211 0ustar jtnjtnE9A09 (B) What is meant by antenna bandwidth? A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements B. The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement C. The angle between the half-power radiation points D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends share/E/E6B050000644000175000017500000000042111712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE6B05 (D) What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator? A. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage B. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power C. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop D. A large region of intrinsic material share/E/E7E010000644000175000017500000000040111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE7E01 (B) Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions? A. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier B. A reactance modulator on the oscillator C. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier D. A balanced modulator on the oscillator share/E/E3C120000644000175000017500000000030511712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE3C12 (C) How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased? A. It stays the same B. It increases C. It decreases D. It peaks at roughly 14 MHz share/E/E3A040000644000175000017500000000034511712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE3A04 (D) What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications? A. Equipment with very wide bandwidth B. Equipment with very low dynamic range C. Equipment with very low gain D. Equipment with very low noise figures share/E/E6E030000644000175000017500000000052611712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE6E03 (A) What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect? A. Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light share/E/E7D120000644000175000017500000000032511712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE7D12 (D) What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. It provides fixed bias for Q1 B. It provides fixed bias for D1 C. It decouples hum from D1 D. It provides a constant minimum load for Q1 share/E/E5D140000644000175000017500000000030111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE5D14 (A) What is reactive power? A. Wattless, nonproductive power B. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor C. Power lost because of capacitor leakage D. Power consumed in circuit Q share/E/E0A020000644000175000017500000000057411712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE0A02 (B) When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do? A. Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits B. Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits C. You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property D. Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests share/E/E6F110000644000175000017500000000025111712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE6F11 (B) Which of the following is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? A. 0.1 V B. 0.5 V C. 1.5 V D. 12 V share/E/E7E100000644000175000017500000000042611712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE7E10 (A) How does a diode detector function? A. By rectification and filtering of RF signals B. By breakdown of the Zener voltage C. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode D. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency share/E/E1A080000644000175000017500000000074311712775740011174 0ustar jtnjtnE1A08 (B) [97.219] If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation? A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station B. The control operator of the originating station C. The control operators of all the stations in the system D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications share/E/E5D040000644000175000017500000000016511712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE5D04 (B) What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? A. Coulomb B. Joule C. Watt D. Volt share/E/E6A060000644000175000017500000000043411712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE6A06 (B) What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor? A. The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1 B. The change in collector current with respect to base current C. The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction D. The switching speed of the transistor share/E/E1D100000644000175000017500000000055511712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE1D10 (B) [97.211] Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations? A. Any amateur station designated by NASA B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E7B210000644000175000017500000000030511712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE7B21 (A) Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications? A. Field effect transistor B. Nuvistor C. Silicon controlled rectifier D. Triac share/E/E2A120000644000175000017500000000052311712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE2A12 (D) What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time? A. By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite B. By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination C. By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination D. By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite share/E/E1A070000644000175000017500000000031711712775740011170 0ustar jtnjtnE1A07 (D) [97.303] What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted? A. 12 meter band B. 17 meter band C. 30 meter band D. 60 meter band share/E/E8D140000644000175000017500000000026511712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE8D14 (C) Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet? A. 240 volts B. 120 volts C. 340 volts D. 170 volts share/E/E4D070000644000175000017500000000057111712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE4D07 (D) Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal? A. A large increase in background noise B. A reduction in apparent signal strength C. The desired signal can no longer be heard D. The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal share/E/E1F100000644000175000017500000000023711712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE1F10 (C) [97.313] What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications? A. 1 W B. 1.5 W C. 10 W D. 1.5 kW share/E/E1F110000644000175000017500000000105711712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE1F11 (D) [97.317] Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification? A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power share/E/E9H120000644000175000017500000000057011712775741011205 0ustar jtnjtnE9H12 (B) What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding? A. It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations B. It is electro-statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls C. It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals D. It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position share/E/E2E100000644000175000017500000000022711712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE2E10 (C) Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth? A. MFSK16 B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY C. PSK31 D. 300-baud packet share/E/E2B180000644000175000017500000000022011712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE2B18 (D) On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions? A. 14.230 MHz B. 29.6 MHz C. 52.525 MHz D. 1255 MHz share/E/E9D060000644000175000017500000000030011712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE9D06 (C) Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? A. To swamp out harmonics B. To maximize losses C. To minimize losses D. To minimize the Q share/E/E5C170000644000175000017500000000031211712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE5C17 (C) In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees? A. 173 -j100 ohms B. 200 +j100 ohms C. 173 +j100 ohms D. 200 -j100 ohms share/E/E9D110000644000175000017500000000030011712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE9D11 (D) What is the function of a loading coil as used with an HF mobile antenna? A. To increase the SWR bandwidth B. To lower the losses C. To lower the Q D. To cancel capacitive reactance share/E/E9G020000644000175000017500000000033511712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE9G02 (B) What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? A. Voltage circles and current arcs B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs C. Voltage lines and current chords D. Resistance lines and reactance chords share/E/E7A030000644000175000017500000000021711712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE7A03 (B) Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2? A. An XOR gate B. A flip-flop C. An OR gate D. A multiplexer share/E/E7E020000644000175000017500000000055711712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE7E02 (D) What is the function of a reactance modulator? A. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance B. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance C. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance D. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance share/E/E8A140000644000175000017500000000026411712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE8A14 (A) Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals? A. Sequential sampling B. Harmonic regeneration C. Level shifting D. Phase reversal share/E/E6E110000644000175000017500000000027311712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE6E11 (D) Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs? A. Silicon B. Silicon nitride C. Silicon dioxide D. Gallium nitride share/E/E2B150000644000175000017500000000025311712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE2B15 (A) What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line? A. Specific tone frequencies B. Elapsed time C. Specific tone amplitudes D. A two-tone signal share/E/E1C020000644000175000017500000000067211712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE1C02 (A) [97.3, 97.109] What is meant by automatic control of a station? A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically C. Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station share/E/E3B090000644000175000017500000000054011712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE3B09 (A) At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur? A. At sunrise and sunset B. When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station C. When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations D. When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station share/E/E7A040000644000175000017500000000014211712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE7A04 (B) How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 share/E/E8C050000644000175000017500000000027211712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE8C05 (C) What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission? A. Approximately 13 Hz B. Approximately 26 Hz C. Approximately 52 Hz D. Approximately 104 Hz share/E/E3B050000644000175000017500000000023211712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE3B05 (C) Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation? A. 160 to 40 meters B. 30 to 10 meters C. 160 to 10 meters D. 6 meters to 2 meters share/E/E9E020000644000175000017500000000046211712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE9E02 (A) What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center? A. The gamma match B. The delta match C. The epsilon match D. The stub match share/E/E9D100000644000175000017500000000023011712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE9D10 (A) What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna? A. 300 ohms B. 72 ohms C. 50 ohms D. 450 ohms share/E/E5B090000644000175000017500000000042511712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE5B09 (D) What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor? A. Voltage and current are in phase B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees share/E/E3C090000644000175000017500000000030611712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE3C09 (C) Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles? A. D-region absorption B. Faraday rotation C. Tropospheric ducting D. Ground wave share/E/E9E130000644000175000017500000000066011712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE9E13 (C) What is the purpose of a Wilkinson divider? A. It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band B. It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source C. It divides power equally among multiple loads while preventing changes in one load from disturbing power flow to the others D. It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source share/E/E8B110000644000175000017500000000067011712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE8B11 (B) Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing? A. The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate B. Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter C. The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information D. Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter share/E/E9B110000644000175000017500000000056411712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE9B11 (C) What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength? A. Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled B. The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy C. The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect D. The antenna will become mechanically unstable share/E/E6E040000644000175000017500000000020711712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE6E04 (A) What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs? A. 50 ohms B. 300 ohms C. 450 ohms D. 10 ohms share/E/E2E090000644000175000017500000000021311712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE2E09 (D) Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency? A. RTTY B. PACTOR C. MT63 D. PSK31 share/E/E1F130000644000175000017500000000057711712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE1F13 (C) [97.117] What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries? A. Business-related messages for non-profit organizations B. Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service C. Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E4E010000644000175000017500000000033411712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE4E01 (A) Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker? A. Ignition noise B. Broadband white noise C. Heterodyne interference D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E1B010000644000175000017500000000073411712775740011166 0ustar jtnjtnE1B01 (D) [97.3] Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission? A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification B. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient C. Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted share/E/E7B100000644000175000017500000000016511712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE7B10 (B) In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2? A. Load resistors B. Fixed bias C. Self bias D. Feedback share/E/E4B070000644000175000017500000000047711712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE4B07 (A) Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe? A. Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible B. Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit C. Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E9F130000644000175000017500000000044111712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE9F13 (A) What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end? A. Very high impedance B. Very low impedance C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line D. The same as the generator output impedance share/E/E2A110000644000175000017500000000034511712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE2A11 (B) What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? A. A linearly polarized antenna B. A circularly polarized antenna C. An isotropic antenna D. A log-periodic dipole array share/E/E9A100000644000175000017500000000041511712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE9A10 (B) How is antenna efficiency calculated? A. (radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100% B. (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100% C. (total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100% D. (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100% share/E/E4D040000644000175000017500000000055511712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE4D04 (B) Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity? A. A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver B. A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter C. A Class C final amplifier D. A Class D final amplifier share/E/E2E120000644000175000017500000000020311712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE2E12 (A) Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation? A. Winlink B. RTTY C. PSK31 D. MFSK share/E/E9H090000644000175000017500000000053411712775741011213 0ustar jtnjtnE9H09 (C) Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna? A. A large circularly-polarized antenna B. A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core C. One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil D. A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire share/E/E8B100000644000175000017500000000037311712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE8B10 (C) Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into a single analog radio frequency signal? A. Frequency shift keying B. A diversity combiner C. Frequency division multiplexing D. Pulse compression share/E/E9B130000644000175000017500000000033211712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE9B13 (B) What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs? A. Next Element Comparison B. Numerical Electromagnetics Code C. National Electrical Code D. Numeric Electrical Computation share/E/E2D050000644000175000017500000000033211712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE2D05 (B) Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world? A. Digipeating B. Store-and-forward C. Multi-satellite relaying D. Node hopping share/E/E1A040000644000175000017500000000100011712775740011153 0ustar jtnjtnE1A04 (C) [97.301, 97.305] With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency? A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz share/E/E4D110000644000175000017500000000073711712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE4D11 (A) Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products? A. The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band B. The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders C. Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection D. Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest share/E/E7F110000644000175000017500000000056611712775741011205 0ustar jtnjtnE7F11 (C) What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type? A. It can run on battery power for remote measurements B. It does not require an expensive high-precision time base C. It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period D. It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter share/E/E6B110000644000175000017500000000034111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE6B11 (A) What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode? A. Forward DC bias current B. A sub-harmonic pump signal C. Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal D. Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor share/E/E2C040000644000175000017500000000024211712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE2C04 (D) On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged? A. 3.525 MHz B. 14.020 MHz C. 28.330 MHz D. 146.52 MHz share/E/E4C010000644000175000017500000000056411712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE4C01 (D) What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver? A. It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals B. It reduces receiver sensitivity C. It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range D. It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals share/E/E7F060000644000175000017500000000042011712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE7F06 (C) What is one purpose of a marker generator? A. To add audio markers to an oscilloscope B. To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop C. To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings D. To add time signals to a transmitted signal share/E/E4C140000644000175000017500000000037411712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE4C14 (D) On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency? A. 13.845 MHz B. 14.755 MHz C. 14.445 MHz D. 15.210 MHz share/E/E9A120000644000175000017500000000035411712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE9A12 (C) Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range? A. The standing-wave ratio B. Distance from the transmitter C. Soil conductivity D. Take-off angle share/E/E9E030000644000175000017500000000035211712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE9E03 (D) What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point? A. The gamma match B. The delta match C. The omega match D. The stub match share/E/E9D150000644000175000017500000000056511712775741011210 0ustar jtnjtnE9D15 (C) Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station? A. A 50-ohm resistor connected to ground B. An electrically-short connection to a metal water pipe C. An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth D. An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke share/E/E4B080000644000175000017500000000025511712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE4B08 (C) Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter? A. High reluctance input B. Low reluctance input C. High impedance input D. Low impedance input share/E/E8A110000644000175000017500000000025111712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE8A11 (D) What is one use for a pulse modulated signal? A. Linear amplification B. PSK31 data transmission C. Multiphase power transmission D. Digital data transmission share/E/E6A120000644000175000017500000000065011712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE6A12 (D) Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates? A. To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage B. To protect the substrate from excessive voltages C. To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating D. To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages share/E/E6D100000644000175000017500000000055311712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE6D10 (A) What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor? A. Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material B. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components C. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis D. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics share/E/E9F020000644000175000017500000000032511712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE9F02 (C) Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line? A. The termination impedance B. The line length C. Dielectric materials used in the line D. The center conductor resistivity share/E/E5C030000644000175000017500000000053011712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE5C03 (A) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series? A. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees B. 900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees C. 400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees D. 1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees share/E/E0A070000644000175000017500000000035311712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE0A07 (B) How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected? A. By the odor B. Only with a carbon monoxide detector C. Any ordinary smoke detector can be used D. By the yellowish appearance of the gas share/E/E6A090000644000175000017500000000046611712775741011205 0ustar jtnjtnE6A09 (A) What is a depletion-mode FET? A. An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied B. An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied C. Any FET without a channel D. Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers share/E/E7F080000644000175000017500000000055611712775741011212 0ustar jtnjtnE7F08 (C) Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter? A. Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator B. Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference C. Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time D. Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency share/E/E1A100000644000175000017500000000104111712775740011155 0ustar jtnjtnE1A10 (A) [97.11] If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated? A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft B. The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use C. It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply D. Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license share/E/E9H100000644000175000017500000000061211712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE9H10 (D) How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased? A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure C. By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both share/E/E6C050000644000175000017500000000032411712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE6C05 (D) Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices? A. Differential output capability B. Lower distortion C. Immune to damage from static discharge D. Lower power consumption share/E/E5A100000644000175000017500000000026211712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE5A10 (A) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95? A. 18.9 kHz B. 1.89 kHz C. 94.5 kHz D. 9.45 kHz share/E/E9B080000644000175000017500000000104711712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE9B08 (A) How can the approximate beamwidth in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined? A. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference B. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna C. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines D. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna share/E/E1E080000644000175000017500000000034111712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE1E08 (C) [97.509] To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? A. Employees of the VE B. Friends of the VE C. Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E2B070000644000175000017500000000022511712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE2B07 (B) What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video? A. Luminance B. Chroma C. Hue D. Spectral Intensity share/E/E4E130000644000175000017500000000052311712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE4E13 (D) What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals? A. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device B. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence C. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E7B150000644000175000017500000000034011712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE7B15 (C) What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier? A. Neutralization B. Select transistors with high beta C. Use a resistor in series with the emitter D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E8D050000644000175000017500000000024611712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE8D05 (D) If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage? A. 46 volts B. 92 volts C. 130 volts D. 184 volts share/E/E2D060000644000175000017500000000020411712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE2D06 (A) Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency? A. 144.39 MHz B. 144.20 MHz C. 145.02 MHz D. 146.52 MHz share/E/E2D070000644000175000017500000000015311712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE2D07 (C) Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS? A. PACTOR B. 802.11 C. AX.25 D. AMTOR share/E/E2C100000644000175000017500000000054011712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE2C10 (D) Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency? A. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations B. To separate the calling stations from the DX station C. To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E4D130000644000175000017500000000030311712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE4D13 (B) Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization? A. Audio gain adjusted too low B. Strong adjacent-channel signals C. Audio bias adjusted too high D. Squelch gain misadjusted share/E/E7D160000644000175000017500000000073711712775741011210 0ustar jtnjtnE7D16 (D) When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor? A. To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor B. To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off C. To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E8A010000644000175000017500000000023011712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE8A01 (A) What type of wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics? A. A square wave B. A sine wave C. A cosine wave D. A tangent wave share/E/E9H060000644000175000017500000000066311712775741011213 0ustar jtnjtnE9H06 (C) What is the triangulation method of direction finding? A. The geometric angle of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position B. A fixed receiving station plots three headings from the signal source on a map C. Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source D. A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source share/E/E4B010000644000175000017500000000032111712775741011162 0ustar jtnjtnE4B01 (B) Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter? A. Input attenuator accuracy B. Time base accuracy C. Decade divider accuracy D. Temperature coefficient of the logic share/E/E2A090000644000175000017500000000037011712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE2A09 (A) What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications? A. The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands B. The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands C. FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems D. Which sideband to use share/E/E4C050000644000175000017500000000055011712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE4C05 (B) What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver? A. The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency B. The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature C. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver D. The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal share/E/E9F010000644000175000017500000000060711712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE9F01 (D) What is the velocity factor of a transmission line? A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable C. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum D. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum share/E/E0A060000644000175000017500000000054511712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE0A06 (D) Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits? A. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields B. Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location C. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E7G150000644000175000017500000000020211712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE7G15 (A) What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp? A. Very low B. Very high C. 100 ohms D. 1000 ohms share/E/E5D170000644000175000017500000000025411712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE5D17 (D) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes? A. 200 watts B. 1000 watts C. 1600 watts D. 600 watts share/E/E9B010000644000175000017500000000022511712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE9B01 (B) In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth? A. 75 degrees B. 50 degrees C. 25 degrees D. 30 degrees share/E/E7B050000644000175000017500000000042711712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE7B05 (C) What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier? A. Tune the stage for maximum SWR B. Tune both the input and output for maximum power C. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage D. Use a phase inverter in the output filter share/E/E1F060000644000175000017500000000045211712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE1F06 (C) [97.3] What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral share/E/E7C010000644000175000017500000000134111712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE7C01 (D) How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output? A. Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground B. Two capacitors are in series between the input and output and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground C. An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output D. A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output share/E/E2B040000644000175000017500000000050011712775741011162 0ustar jtnjtnE2B04 (B) What is blanking in a video signal? A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern share/E/E9E120000644000175000017500000000073211712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE9E12 (A) What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements? A. It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern B. It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter C. It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands D. It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern share/E/E3A050000644000175000017500000000046711712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE3A05 (A) Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts? A. Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating B. Storing and forwarding digital messages C. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon D. High speed CW identification to avoid fading share/E/E1A060000644000175000017500000000042311712775740011165 0ustar jtnjtnE1A06 (B) [97.303] Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band? A. Working DX is not permitted B. Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels C. Operation is restricted to LSB D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E7H170000644000175000017500000000063411712775741011211 0ustar jtnjtnE7H17 (C) Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency synthesizer for receivers and transmitters? A. It generates FM sidebands B. It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator C. It makes it possible for a VFO to have the same degree of frequency stability as a crystal oscillator D. It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadrature phase synchronization share/E/E7B040000644000175000017500000000052611712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE7B04 (A) Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set? A. Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff B. Where the load line intersects the voltage axis C. At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor D. At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve share/E/E4A010000644000175000017500000000076411712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE4A01 (C) How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope? A. A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals B. A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain D. A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies share/E/E6C020000644000175000017500000000040711712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE6C02 (A) What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open? A. A logic-high state B. A logic-low state C. The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states D. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored share/E/E8D100000644000175000017500000000046611712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE8D10 (D) What type of meter should be used to monitor the output signal of a voice-modulated single-sideband transmitter to ensure you do not exceed the maximum allowable power? A. An SWR meter reading in the forward direction B. A modulation meter C. An average reading wattmeter D. A peak-reading wattmeter share/E/E3A020000644000175000017500000000043611712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE3A02 (B) What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal? A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal B. A fluttery irregular fading C. A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises D. The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal share/E/E1C010000644000175000017500000000042611712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE1C01 (D) [97.3] What is a remotely controlled station? A. A station operated away from its regular home location B. A station controlled by someone other than the licensee C. A station operating under automatic control D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link share/E/E2E110000644000175000017500000000043511712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE2E11 (A) What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK? A. Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO B. Audio FSK has a superior frequency response C. Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection D. Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain share/E/E4A100000644000175000017500000000075111712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE4A10 (D) Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on? A. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 6 to 7 ohms B. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms C. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately 6 to 7 volts D. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts share/E/E9A070000644000175000017500000000036211712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE9A07 (C) What is a folded dipole antenna? A. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long B. A type of ground-plane antenna C. A dipole constructed from one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop D. A dipole configured to provide forward gain share/E/E9F050000644000175000017500000000034411712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE9F05 (C) What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz? A. 20 meters B. 2.3 meters C. 3.5 meters D. 0.2 meters share/E/E6E120000644000175000017500000000036511712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE6E12 (B) What is a "Jones filter" as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage? A. An automatic notch filter B. A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter C. A special filter that emphasizes image responses D. A filter that removes impulse noise share/E/E2B160000644000175000017500000000020711712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE2B16 (D) Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations? A. PAL B. DRM C. Scottie D. NTSC share/E/E2E080000644000175000017500000000020411712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE2E08 (B) Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? A. Hellschreiber B. PACTOR C. RTTY D. AMTOR share/E/E9C010000644000175000017500000000042311712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE9C01 (D) What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase? A. A cardioid B. Omnidirectional C. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array D. A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array share/E/E8B040000644000175000017500000000030511712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE8B04 (B) What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency? A. 6000 B. 3 C. 2000 D. 1/3 share/E/E3B060000644000175000017500000000022211712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE3B06 (B) Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation? A. 80 meters B. 20 meters C. 10 meters D. 6 meters share/E/E4B040000644000175000017500000000034711712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE4B04 (A) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 14.652 Hz B. 0.1 MHz C. 1.4652 Hz D. 1.4652 kHz share/E/E7A070000644000175000017500000000057011712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE7A07 (D) What logical operation does a NAND gate perform? A. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0" B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1" C. It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1" D. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1" share/E/E4E030000644000175000017500000000047711712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE4E03 (B) Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals? A. Signals which are constant at all IF levels B. Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth C. Signals which appear at one IF but not another D. Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution share/E/E4E110000644000175000017500000000066211712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE4E11 (B) Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands? A. The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal B. Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals C. You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station D. Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective share/E/E7G140000644000175000017500000000020111712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE7G14 (D) What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp? A. 100 ohms B. 1000 ohms C. Very low D. Very high share/E/E6B080000644000175000017500000000026711712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE6B08 (A) Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode? A. Metal-semiconductor junction B. Electrolytic rectifier C. CMOS-field effect D. Thermionic emission diode share/E/E7D090000644000175000017500000000031611712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE7D09 (D) What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. It resonates at the ripple frequency B. It provides fixed bias for Q1 C. It decouples the output D. It filters the supply voltage share/E/E9C090000644000175000017500000000017411712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE9C09 (B) What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2? A. 15 dB B. 28 dB C. 3 dB D. 24 dB share/E/E2A080000644000175000017500000000051111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE2A08 (B) Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited? A. To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry B. To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users C. To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals D. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs share/E/E9D130000644000175000017500000000067511712775741011210 0ustar jtnjtnE9D13 (B) What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered? A. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases B. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases C. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases D. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases share/E/E7F050000644000175000017500000000047211712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE7F05 (D) Which of the following is a technique for providing high stability oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception? A. Use a GPS signal reference B. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator C. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E5C070000644000175000017500000000045311712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE5C07 (C) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees B. 51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees C. 71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees D. 91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees share/E/E2E070000644000175000017500000000017011712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE2E07 (B) What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal? A. 31 Hz B. 316 Hz C. 550 Hz D. 2.16 kHz share/E/E2B110000644000175000017500000000047511712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE2B11 (B) What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code transmitted as part of an SSTV transmission? A. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images B. To identify the SSTV mode being used C. To provide vertical synchronization D. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting share/E/E2B140000644000175000017500000000025711712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE2B14 (A) What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture? A. Tone frequency B. Tone amplitude C. Sync amplitude D. Sync frequency share/E/E4E090000644000175000017500000000053411712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE4E09 (C) What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker? A. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect B. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed C. Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards D. FM signals can no longer be demodulated share/E/E7C100000644000175000017500000000026211712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE7C10 (B) Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer? A. A crystal filter B. A cavity filter C. A DSP filter D. An L-C filter share/E/E0A090000644000175000017500000000040311712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE0A09 (C) Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled? A. Mica B. Zinc oxide C. Beryllium Oxide D. Uranium Hexaflouride share/E/E5D060000644000175000017500000000044711712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE5D06 (D) In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow? A. In the same direction as the current B. In a direction opposite to the current C. In all directions; omnidirectional D. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule share/E/E9D120000644000175000017500000000032611712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE9D12 (D) What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna? A. It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands B. It has high gain C. It minimizes harmonic radiation D. It may be used for multiband operation share/E/E5C220000644000175000017500000000033511712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE5C22 (A) In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz? A. 40 + j31,400 B. 40 - j31,400 C. 31,400 + j40 D. 31,400 - j40 share/E/E5C010000644000175000017500000000045211712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE5C01 (B) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees B. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees C. 161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees D. 181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees share/E/E2B060000644000175000017500000000067011712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE2B06 (A) What is vestigial sideband modulation? A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted B. A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted C. Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier D. Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation share/E/E5D160000644000175000017500000000023111712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE5D16 (C) What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.73 B. 0.5 C. 0.866 D. 0.577 share/E/E4A120000644000175000017500000000054111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE4A12 (B) Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output? A. Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses B. Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer C. Match the antenna to the load D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E8B080000644000175000017500000000034711712775741011205 0ustar jtnjtnE8B08 (D) What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system? A. The number of pulses per second B. The amplitude of the pulses C. The duration of the pulses D. The time at which each pulse occurs share/E/E8A130000644000175000017500000000054111712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE8A13 (C) What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information? A. Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection B. Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth C. Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E1B040000644000175000017500000000074011712775740011166 0ustar jtnjtnE1B04 (C) [97.13, 1.1305-1.1319] What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places? A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior share/E/E9F110000644000175000017500000000045211712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE9F11 (C) What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end? A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line B. An inductive reactance C. A capacitive reactance D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage share/E/E7D150000644000175000017500000000050111712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE7D15 (D) What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage power supply? A. To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications B. To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage C. To allow for remote control of the power supply D. To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually share/E/E9B070000644000175000017500000000104211712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE9B07 (C) How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power? A. The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna B. The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio C. They are the same D. The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna share/E/E7B070000644000175000017500000000041211712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE7B07 (D) Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal? A. Reduced intermodulation products B. Increased overall intelligibility C. Signal inversion D. Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth share/E/E7D130000644000175000017500000000026611712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE7D13 (B) What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. To provide line voltage stabilization B. To provide a voltage reference C. Peak clipping D. Hum filtering share/E/E5A090000644000175000017500000000050411712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE5A09 (C) What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a parallel resonant circuit at resonance? A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees C. The voltage and current are in phase D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase share/E/E7D010000644000175000017500000000051611712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE7D01 (D) What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator? A. It has a ramp voltage as its output B. It eliminates the need for a pass transistor C. The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions D. The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage share/E/E1B090000644000175000017500000000065311712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE1B09 (C) [97.407] Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES? A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) share/E/E9C130000644000175000017500000000041711712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE9C13 (C) What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground? A. It causes increased SWR B. It changes the impedance angle of the matching network C. It reduces low-angle radiation D. It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna share/E/E7H150000644000175000017500000000041611712775741011205 0ustar jtnjtnE7H15 (D) Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop? A. Wide-band AF and RF power amplification B. Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter C. Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling D. Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation share/E/E3C140000644000175000017500000000034011712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE3C14 (D) Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. E-region skip B. D-region skip C. Downward bending due to aurora refraction D. Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere share/E/E2C010000644000175000017500000000061211712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE2C01 (A) Which of the following is true about contest operating? A. Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log B. Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable C. It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station D. Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange share/E/E1A010000644000175000017500000000061211712775740011160 0ustar jtnjtnE1A01 (D) [97.301, 97.305] When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band? A. The exact upper band edge B. 300 Hz below the upper band edge C. 1 kHz below the upper band edge D. 3 kHz below the upper band edge share/E/E7E140000644000175000017500000000075311712775741011205 0ustar jtnjtnE7E14 (C) What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver? A. Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver B. Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator C. Incoming RF is mixed to "baseband" for analog-to-digital conversion and subsequent processing D. Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers share/E/E9D080000644000175000017500000000027011712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE9D08 (B) What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils? A. It is increased B. It is decreased C. No change occurs D. It becomes flat share/E/E2D090000644000175000017500000000030111712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE2D09 (D) Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput? A. AMTOR B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY C. PSK31 D. 300-baud packet share/E/E9G040000644000175000017500000000027411712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE9G04 (C) What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart? A. Resistance and voltage B. Reactance and voltage C. Resistance and reactance D. Voltage and impedance share/E/E1A120000644000175000017500000000070411712775740011164 0ustar jtnjtnE1A12 (C) [97.301, 97.305] With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency? A. Yes, the DX station initiated the contact B. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment C. No, sidebands from the CW signal will be out of the band. D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz share/E/E7G130000644000175000017500000000066011712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE7G13 (C) What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage? A. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage B. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage C. The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero D. The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition share/E/E3B030000644000175000017500000000021211712775741011162 0ustar jtnjtnE3B03 (C) What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation? A. Morning B. Noon C. Afternoon or early evening D. Late at night share/E/E3A090000644000175000017500000000024511712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE3A09 (C) Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications? A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz B. 10 - 14 MHz C. 28 - 148 MHz D. 220 - 450 MHz share/E/E7G020000644000175000017500000000037611712775741011205 0ustar jtnjtnE7G02 (D) What is the effect of ringing in a filter? A. An echo caused by a long time delay B. A reduction in high frequency response C. Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies D. Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal share/E/E6F010000644000175000017500000000042711712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE6F01 (B) What is photoconductivity? A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor share/E/E2B010000644000175000017500000000020111712775741011155 0ustar jtnjtnE2B01 (A) How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system? A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 120 share/E/E7C130000644000175000017500000000056211712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE7C13 (A) What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor? A. The Q of Pi networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen B. L networks can not perform impedance transformation C. Pi networks have fewer components D. Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output share/E/E7C050000644000175000017500000000027611712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE7C05 (D) Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff? A. A Butterworth filter B. An active LC filter C. A passive op-amp filter D. A Chebyshev filter share/E/E1F080000644000175000017500000000061411712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE1F08 (A) [97.113] Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited? A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules B. Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine C. Communications that have a religious content D. Communications in a language other than English share/E/E6C130000644000175000017500000000050111712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE6C13 (C) Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic? A. Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS B. It is totally immune to electrostatic damage C. It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E6B090000644000175000017500000000025511712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE6B09 (C) What is a common use for point contact diodes? A. As a constant current source B. As a constant voltage source C. As an RF detector D. As a high voltage rectifier share/E/E6B010000644000175000017500000000044111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE6B01 (B) What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode? A. A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage B. A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current C. A negative resistance region D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage share/E/E1B100000644000175000017500000000050611712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE1B10 (A) [97.407] What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES? A. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands C. Specific local government channels D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels share/E/E7H140000644000175000017500000000072711712775741011211 0ustar jtnjtnE7H14 (C) What is a phase-locked loop circuit? A. An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator B. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator C. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator D. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input share/E/E1E090000644000175000017500000000053211712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE1E09 (A) [97.509] What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? A. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant B. A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence C. A sentence of up to one year in prison D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E8C080000644000175000017500000000043011712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE8C08 (D) What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence? A. Amplitude compandored single sideband B. AMTOR C. Time-domain frequency modulation D. Spread-spectrum communication share/E/E9A010000644000175000017500000000047211712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE9A01 (C) Which of the following describes an isotropic antenna? A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas C. A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth share/E/E7E050000644000175000017500000000030011712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE7E05 (D) What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies? A. A de-emphasis network B. A heterodyne suppressor C. An audio prescaler D. A pre-emphasis network share/E/E8D160000644000175000017500000000016711712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE8D16 (A) What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave? A. 120V AC B. 170V AC C. 240V AC D. 300V AC share/E/E7H020000644000175000017500000000040311712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE7H02 (C) What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? A. It must have at least two stages B. It must be neutralized C. It must have positive feedback with a gain greater than 1 D. It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal share/E/E0A050000644000175000017500000000054611712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE0A05 (B) What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands? A. Microwaves are ionizing radiation B. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels C. Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection D. The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures share/E/E8D080000644000175000017500000000055311712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE8D08 (D) Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space? A. Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel B. The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index C. The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source D. Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy share/E/E0A030000644000175000017500000000061611712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE0A03 (C) Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits? A. Use a calibrated antenna analyzer B. Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields C. Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations D. All of the choices are correct share/E/E4B060000644000175000017500000000037311712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE4B06 (D) How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power? A. 100 watts B. 125 watts C. 25 watts D. 75 watts share/E/E5A150000644000175000017500000000026211712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE5A15 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads? A. 3.76 MHz B. 1.78 MHz C. 11.18 MHz D. 22.36 MHz share/E/E3C080000644000175000017500000000027711712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE3C08 (B) What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region? A. Oblique-angle ray B. Pedersen ray C. Ordinary ray D. Heaviside ray share/E/E7F040000644000175000017500000000035111712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE7F04 (C) What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz? A. An emitter-follower B. Two frequency multipliers C. Two flip-flops D. A voltage divider share/E/E6A040000644000175000017500000000027311712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE6A04 (C) What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure? A. Insulator impurity B. N-type impurity C. Acceptor impurity D. Donor impurity share/E/E4E140000644000175000017500000000057511712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE4E14 (C) What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer? A. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver B. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds C. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies D. A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on share/E/E6C120000644000175000017500000000041511712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE6C12 (D) What is BiCMOS logic? A. A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package B. An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors C. A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices D. An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors share/E/E1E110000644000175000017500000000071211712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE1E11 (B) [97.509] What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license? A. Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements C. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license D. All these choices are correct share/E/E5A020000644000175000017500000000046711712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE5A02 (C) What is resonance in an electrical circuit? A. The highest frequency that will pass current B. The lowest frequency that will pass current C. The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance D. The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance share/E/E7B180000644000175000017500000000024711712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE7B18 (C) Which of the following is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier? A. High power gain B. High filament voltage C. Low input impedance D. Low bandwidth share/E/E9A040000644000175000017500000000054011712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE9A04 (A) Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna? A. To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line B. To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna C. To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna D. To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna share/E/E9A140000644000175000017500000000026011712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE9A14 (B) How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna? A. 6.17 dB B. 9.85 dB C. 12.5 dB D. 14.15 dB share/E/E6A050000644000175000017500000000050111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE6A05 (C) What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor? A. The change of collector current with respect to base current B. The change of base current with respect to collector current C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current D. The change of collector current with respect to gate current share/E/E7H090000644000175000017500000000043611712775741011212 0ustar jtnjtnE7H09 (A) What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter? A. A direct digital synthesizer B. A hybrid synthesizer C. A phase locked loop synthesizer D. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer share/E/E6E080000644000175000017500000000055411712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE6E08 (A) How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)? A. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead B. MMICs require no operating bias C. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead D. Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead share/E/E6D160000644000175000017500000000057711712775741011211 0ustar jtnjtnE6D16 (C) What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor? A. Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities B. Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability C. Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value D. Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology share/E/E5A050000644000175000017500000000024111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE5A05 (B) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance? A. Minimum B. Maximum C. R/L D. L/R share/E/E7B010000644000175000017500000000030711712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE7B01 (A) For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate? A. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees B. Exactly 180 degrees C. The entire cycle D. Less than 180 degrees share/E/E8D130000644000175000017500000000025511712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE8D13 (B) Which of the following is a typical value for the peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet? A. 240 volts B. 170 volts C. 120 volts D. 340 volts share/E/E9D010000644000175000017500000000033211712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE9D01 (C) How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled? A. Gain does not change B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707 C. Gain increases by 6 dB D. Gain increases by 3 dB share/E/E5C100000644000175000017500000000043211712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE5C10 (B) When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent? A. Resistive component B. Reactive component C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components share/E/E4A040000644000175000017500000000031111712775741011163 0ustar jtnjtnE4A04 (A) Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter? A. A spectrum analyzer B. A wattmeter C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer share/E/E4B140000644000175000017500000000033511712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE4B14 (B) What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked? A. Harmonics are generated B. A less accurate reading results C. Cross modulation occurs D. Intermodulation distortion occurs share/E/E6E100000644000175000017500000000117311712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE6E10 (A) What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal? A. Motional capacitance, motional inductance and loss resistance in series, with a shunt capacitance representing electrode and stray capacitance B. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel C. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series D. Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance share/E/E1E050000644000175000017500000000033711712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE1E05 (B) [97.503] What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations? A. Minimum passing score of 70% B. Minimum passing score of 74% C. Minimum passing score of 80% D. Minimum passing score of 77% share/E/E8D150000644000175000017500000000025111712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE8D15 (A) Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical power outlet? A. 120V AC B. 340V AC C. 85V AC D. 170V AC share/E/E8D110000644000175000017500000000027711712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE8D11 (A) What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts? A. 12.2 watts B. 9.9 watts C. 24.5 watts D. 16 watts share/E/E7H120000644000175000017500000000025611712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE7H12 (D) Which of the following is a principal component of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? A. Phase splitter B. Hex inverter C. Chroma demodulator D. Phase accumulator share/E/E2E050000644000175000017500000000042411712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE2E05 (D) How does ARQ accomplish error correction? A. Special binary codes provide automatic correction B. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction C. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted D. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested share/E/E2B170000644000175000017500000000015311712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE2B17 (B) What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal? A. 600 Hz B. 3 kHz C. 2 MHz D. 6 MHz share/E/E3C050000644000175000017500000000043411712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE3C05 (B) Which of the following describes selective fading? A. Variability of signal strength with beam heading B. Partial cancellation of some frequencies within the received pass band C. Sideband inversion within the ionosphere D. Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter share/E/E8B050000644000175000017500000000030211712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE8B05 (D) What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz? A. 60 B. 0.167 C. 0.6 D. 1.67 share/E/E7E110000644000175000017500000000025311712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE7E11 (C) Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals? A. Discriminator B. Phase detector C. Product detector D. Phase comparator share/E/E1D110000644000175000017500000000064511712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE1D11 (D) [97.209] Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? A. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator share/E/E9B140000644000175000017500000000041611712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE9B14 (D) What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program? A. SWR vs. frequency charts B. Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns C. Antenna gain D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E4E060000644000175000017500000000022311712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE4E06 (B) What is a major cause of atmospheric static? A. Solar radio frequency emissions B. Thunderstorms C. Geomagnetic storms D. Meteor showers share/E/E1E010000644000175000017500000000023511712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE1E01 (D) [97.509] What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination? A. 5 B. 2 C. 4 D. 3 share/E/E5C040000644000175000017500000000046411712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE5C04 (D) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees share/E/E5C210000644000175000017500000000032011712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE5C21 (A) Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz? A. Point 1 B. Point 3 C. Point 7 D. Point 8 share/E/E4D090000644000175000017500000000040511712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE4D09 (C) What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver? A. To store often-used frequencies B. To provide a range of AGC time constants C. To increase rejection of unwanted signals D. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device share/E/E4E070000644000175000017500000000061511712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE4E07 (C) How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home? A. By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer B. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio D. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer share/E/E3C130000644000175000017500000000017511712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE3C13 (A) What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation? A. Vertical B. Horizontal C. Circular D. Elliptical share/E/E5B060000644000175000017500000000034411712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE5B06 (C) How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 4.50 seconds B. 9 seconds C. 450 seconds D. 900 seconds share/E/E1C100000644000175000017500000000047211712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE1C10 (B) [97.113] What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations? A. Only beacon, repeater or space stations B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations C. Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft D. Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations share/E/E2E060000644000175000017500000000017711712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE2E06 (C) What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications? A. 48 baud B. 110 baud C. 300 baud D. 1200 baud share/E/E5A130000644000175000017500000000026711712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE5A13 (B) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187? A. 38.1 kHz B. 76.2 kHz C. 1.332 kHz D. 2.665 kHz share/E/E1C040000644000175000017500000000047211712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE1C04 (B) [97.109] When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications? A. Never B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration share/E/E4B050000644000175000017500000000034511712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE4B05 (D) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 146.52 Hz B. 10 Hz C. 146.52 kHz D. 1465.20 Hz share/E/E5D090000644000175000017500000000057711712775741011212 0ustar jtnjtnE5D09 (B) What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors? A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit B. It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated C. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit D. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields share/E/E6F040000644000175000017500000000042211712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE6F04 (B) What is the photovoltaic effect? A. The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light B. The conversion of light to electrical energy C. The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy D. The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside share/E/E8A100000644000175000017500000000044711712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE8A10 (B) Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform? A. Regular sinusoidal oscillations B. Narrow bursts of energy separated by periods of no signal C. A series of tones that vary between two frequencies D. A signal that contains three or more discrete tones share/E/E8A050000644000175000017500000000041611712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE8A05 (D) What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform? A. By using a grid dip meter B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter C. By using an absorption wavemeter D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor share/E/E5D070000644000175000017500000000034011712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE5D07 (D) What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor? A. The resistance divided by the current B. The ratio of the current to the resistance C. The diameter of the conductor D. The amount of current share/E/E8B030000644000175000017500000000033111712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE8B03 (A) What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz? A. 3 B. 0.3 C. 3000 D. 1000 share/E/E3B080000644000175000017500000000030411712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE3B08 (D) What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness? A. Transequatorial B. Sporadic-E C. Long-path D. Gray-line share/E/E2D030000644000175000017500000000020611712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE2D03 (D) Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications? A. FSK441 B. PACTOR III C. Olivia D. JT65 share/E/E1F050000644000175000017500000000035211712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE1F05 (D) [97.303] Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A? A. 440 - 450 MHz B. 53 - 54 MHz C. 222 - 223 MHz D. 420 - 430 MHz share/E/E5C120000644000175000017500000000061611712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE5C12 (D) If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit? A. It has to be a direct current circuit B. It contains resistance and capacitive reactance C. It contains resistance and inductive reactance D. It is equivalent to a pure resistance share/E/E9C070000644000175000017500000000022111712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE9C07 (A) What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2? A. Elevation B. Azimuth C. Radiation resistance D. Polarization share/E/E6C010000644000175000017500000000021511712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE6C01 (C) What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits? A. 12 volts B. 1.5 volts C. 5 volts D. 13.6 volts share/E/E7H060000644000175000017500000000030111712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE7H06 (B) Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs? A. Pierce and Zener B. Colpitts and Hartley C. Armstrong and deForest D. Negative feedback and balanced feedback share/E/E7F090000644000175000017500000000047611712775741011214 0ustar jtnjtnE7F09 (A) What is the purpose of a frequency counter? A. To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal B. To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals C. To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal D. To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency share/E/E6E050000644000175000017500000000021211712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE6E05 (A) Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier? A. 2 dB B. -10 dB C. 44 dBm D. -20 dBm share/E/E5C140000644000175000017500000000034711712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE5C14 (D) What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance? A. Maidenhead grid B. Faraday grid C. Elliptical coordinates D. Polar coordinates share/E/E1F070000644000175000017500000000056411712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE1F07 (D) [97.113] When may an amateur station send a message to a business? A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25 B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency C. When transmitting international third-party communications D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications share/E/E8D020000644000175000017500000000024211712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE8D02 (B) What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of a symmetrical waveform? A. 0.707:1 B. 2:1 C. 1.414:1 D. 4:1 share/E/E5D130000644000175000017500000000031111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE5D13 (B) How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere? A. 70.7 Watts B. 100 Watts C. 141.4 Watts D. 200 Watts share/E/E9E060000644000175000017500000000026211712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE9E06 (C) What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matching system on a 3-element Yagi? A. Pi network B. Pi-L network C. L network D. Parallel-resonant tank share/E/E7B140000644000175000017500000000017511712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE7B14 (A) In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2? A. Output coupling B. Emitter bypass C. Input coupling D. Hum filtering share/E/E8C130000644000175000017500000000040411712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE8C13 (B) What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding? A. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth B. The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio C. Easily copied by ear if necessary D. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth share/E/E4C040000644000175000017500000000055111712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE4C04 (D) What is the definition of the noise figure of a receiver? A. The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise B. The noise bandwidth in Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network C. The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise D. The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver compared to the theoretical minimum noise share/E/E0A010000644000175000017500000000103111712775741011154 0ustar jtnjtnE0A01 (C) What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna? A. There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation B. Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings C. Radioactive materials emit ionizing radiation, while RF signals have less energy and can only cause heating D. Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem share/E/E9E110000644000175000017500000000062511712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE9E11 (B) What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown? A. Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line B. Use the universal stub matching technique C. Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals D. Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals share/E/E2A130000644000175000017500000000017311712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE2A13 (B) What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky? A. HEO B. Geostationary C. Geomagnetic D. LEO share/E/E3A100000644000175000017500000000050611712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE3A10 (D) Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts? A. 15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location B. Use of high speed CW or digital modes C. Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E2D080000644000175000017500000000024411712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE2D08 (A) Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data? A. Unnumbered Information B. Disconnect C. Acknowledgement D. Connect share/E/E5C180000644000175000017500000000051311712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE5C18 (B) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm? A. 6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees B. 5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees C. 5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees D. 10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees share/E/E5B130000644000175000017500000000057011712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE5B13 (D) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms? A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current share/E/E6C080000644000175000017500000000013411712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE6C08 (B) In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E/E9G090000644000175000017500000000033711712775741011213 0ustar jtnjtnE9G09 (A) What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems? A. Standing-wave ratio circles B. Antenna-length circles C. Coaxial-length circles D. Radiation-pattern circles share/E/E7H040000644000175000017500000000027411712775741011205 0ustar jtnjtnE7H04 (C) How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator? A. Through a tapped coil B. Through link coupling C. Through a capacitive divider D. Through a neutralizing capacitor share/E/E7C080000644000175000017500000000035511712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE7C08 (A) What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal? A. An adaptive filter B. A crystal-lattice filter C. A Hilbert-transform filter D. A phase-inverting filter share/E/E2A060000644000175000017500000000023611712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE2A06 (A) On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V? A. 435-438 MHz B. 144-146 MHz C. 50.0-50.2 MHz D. 29.5 to 29.7 MHz share/E/E8B060000644000175000017500000000030711712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE8B06 (A) What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz? A. 2.14 B. 0.214 C. 0.47 D. 47 share/E/E5C110000644000175000017500000000044011712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE5C11 (C) What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates? A. The magnitude and phase of the point B. The sine and cosine values C. The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes D. The tangent and cotangent values share/E/E0A100000644000175000017500000000034011712775741011156 0ustar jtnjtnE0A10 (A) What material found in some electronic components such as high-voltage capacitors and transformers is considered toxic? A. Polychlorinated biphenyls B. Polyethylene C. Polytetrafluroethylene D. Polymorphic silicon share/E/E7D140000644000175000017500000000044011712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE7D14 (C) What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply? A. To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply B. To balance the low-voltage filament windings C. To improve output voltage regulation D. To boost the amount of output current share/E/E1D070000644000175000017500000000035311712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE1D07 (A) [97.207] Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations? A. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m B. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands C. 40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands D. All HF bands share/E/E9E100000644000175000017500000000122511712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE9E10 (C) Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line? A. Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna B. Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable C. Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable D. Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna share/E/E1B030000644000175000017500000000025211712775740011163 0ustar jtnjtnE1B03 (A) [97.13] Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference? A. 1 mile B. 3 miles C. 10 miles D. 30 miles share/E/E2B090000644000175000017500000000045511712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE2B09 (D) What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)? A. A special IF converter B. A special front end limiter C. A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses D. No other hardware is needed share/E/E4C090000644000175000017500000000047511712775741011205 0ustar jtnjtnE4C09 (C) Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver? A. Fewer components in the receiver B. Reduced drift C. Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses D. Improved receiver noise figure share/E/E6B060000644000175000017500000000042011712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE6B06 (D) Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? A. As balanced mixers in FM generation B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply D. As a VHF / UHF mixer or detector share/E/E6C090000644000175000017500000000013311712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE6C09 (B) In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 share/E/E8A030000644000175000017500000000026211712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE8A03 (A) What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics? A. A sawtooth wave B. A square wave C. A sine wave D. A cosine wave share/E/E4D030000644000175000017500000000100511712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE4D03 (B) How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur? A. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters B. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters C. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead share/E/E7H100000644000175000017500000000064211712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE7H10 (B) What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer? A. The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform B. The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output C. The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform D. The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories share/E/E5C130000644000175000017500000000034511712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE5C13 (D) What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of an impedance? A. Maidenhead grid B. Faraday grid C. Elliptical coordinates D. Rectangular coordinates share/E/E6A100000644000175000017500000000015611712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE6A10 (B) In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 share/E/E4B120000644000175000017500000000113111712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE4B12 (A) What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt? A. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating will provide the input impedance of the voltmeter B. When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms/volt will determine the power drawn by the device under test C. When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms/volt will determine the voltage applied to the circuit D. When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms/volt will determine the size of shunt needed share/E/E0A110000644000175000017500000000052411712775741011163 0ustar jtnjtnE0A11 (C) Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters? A. Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge B. Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field C. Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits D. Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system share/E/E8B070000644000175000017500000000063411712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE8B07 (A) When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power? A. The signal duty cycle is less than 100% B. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated C. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator D. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated share/E/E7B130000644000175000017500000000017211712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE7B13 (A) In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R? A. Emitter load B. Fixed bias C. Collector load D. Voltage regulation share/E/E9D140000644000175000017500000000045411712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE9D14 (B) Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system? A. A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire B. A wide flat copper strap C. A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel D. A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire share/E/E7B110000644000175000017500000000017211712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE7B11 (D) In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3? A. Fixed bias B. Emitter bypass C. Output load resistor D. Self bias share/E/E6F070000644000175000017500000000045211712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE6F07 (B) What is a solid state relay? A. A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil B. A device that uses semiconductor devices to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay C. A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed D. A passive delay line share/E/E8C040000644000175000017500000000034011712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE8C04 (C) What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal? A. Zero-sum character encoding B. Reed-Solomon character encoding C. Use of sinusoidal data pulses D. Use of trapezoidal data pulses share/E/E5C060000644000175000017500000000045611712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE5C06 (D) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees B. 191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees C. 161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees D. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees share/E/E9C060000644000175000017500000000052511712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE9C06 (B) What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna? A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter B. It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional C. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization D. It decreases the ground loss share/E/E6D090000644000175000017500000000035211712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE6D09 (C) What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorized HF amplifiers? A. Electrolytic capacitors B. Butterworth filters C. Ferrite beads D. Steel-core toroids share/E/E2B120000644000175000017500000000054511712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE2B12 (D) How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands? A. Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation B. Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation C. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK D. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband share/E/E9B060000644000175000017500000000035211712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE9B06 (A) If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs? A. The gain increases B. The SWR decreases C. The front-to-back ratio increases D. The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly share/E/E2A020000644000175000017500000000024711712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE2A02 (A) What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite? A. From north to south B. From west to east C. From east to west D. From south to north share/E/E5B110000644000175000017500000000055211712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE5B11 (B) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms? A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current share/E/E7G010000644000175000017500000000056311712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE7G01 (B) What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter? A. The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp B. The values of capacitors and resistors external to the op-amp C. The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply D. The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply share/E/E7E120000644000175000017500000000034411712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE7E12 (D) What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver? A. An FM generator circuit B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals C. An automatic band-switching circuit D. A circuit for detecting FM signals share/E/E8C100000644000175000017500000000045611712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE8C10 (A) What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels? A. Frequency hopping B. Direct sequence C. Time-domain frequency modulation D. Frequency compandored spread-spectrum share/E/E5D120000644000175000017500000000025211712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE5D12 (B) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes? A. 400 watts B. 80 watts C. 2000 watts D. 50 watts share/E/E6A170000644000175000017500000000027111712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE6A17 (D) What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor? A. Gate 1, gate 2, drain B. Emitter, base, collector C. Emitter, base 1, base 2 D. Gate, drain, source share/E/E6E060000644000175000017500000000071411712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE6E06 (D) What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits? A. The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals. B. Plate current that is controlled by a control grid C. Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance D. Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range share/E/E6E070000644000175000017500000000033111712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE6E07 (B) Which of the following is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier? A. Ground-plane construction B. Microstrip construction C. Point-to-point construction D. Wave-soldering construction share/E/E5D100000644000175000017500000000052411712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE5D10 (A) How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase? A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor B. By dividing the reactive power by the power factor C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor D. By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor share/E/E7B170000644000175000017500000000061611712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE7B17 (A) Why are third-order intermodulation distortion products of particular concern in linear power amplifiers? A. Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal B. Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal C. Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion D. Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals share/E/E6A080000644000175000017500000000037611712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE6A08 (D) What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz? A. Corner frequency B. Alpha rejection frequency C. Beta cutoff frequency D. Alpha cutoff frequency share/E/E6D110000644000175000017500000000033211712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE6D11 (C) How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns? A. 2 turns B. 4 turns C. 43 turns D. 229 turns share/E/E1E120000644000175000017500000000050111712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE1E12 (A) [97.509] What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam? A. Return the application document to the examinee B. Maintain the application form with the VEC's records C. Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade D. Destroy the application form share/E/E9C030000644000175000017500000000040311712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE9C03 (C) What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase? A. Omnidirectional B. A cardioid C. A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array D. A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array share/E/E1C050000644000175000017500000000047411712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE1C05 (A) [97.109] When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications? A. Never B. Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration share/E/E3A070000644000175000017500000000030211712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE3A07 (D) What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band? A. 430.000 - 430.150 MHz B. 430.100 - 431.100 MHz C. 431.100 - 431.200 MHz D. 432.000 - 432.100 MHz share/E/E3B100000644000175000017500000000070211712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE3B10 (B) What is the cause of gray-line propagation? A. At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves B. At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong C. In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady D. At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF share/E/E9D050000644000175000017500000000040611712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE9D05 (A) Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna? A. Near the center of the vertical radiator B. As low as possible on the vertical radiator C. As close to the transmitter as possible D. At a voltage node share/E/E4C060000644000175000017500000000045211712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE4C06 (D) A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth? A. 174 dBm B. -164 dBm C. -155 dBm D. -148 dBm share/E/E8A040000644000175000017500000000070511712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE8A04 (C) What is equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage? A. The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage B. The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a given resistor as the corresponding peak AC voltage C. The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a resistor as the corresponding RMS AC voltage D. The AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC value share/E/E7G100000644000175000017500000000023111712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE7G10 (C) What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms? A. 1 B. 0.03 C. 38 D. 76 share/E/E5A060000644000175000017500000000057411712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE5A06 (B) What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance? A. It is at a minimum B. It is at a maximum C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C D. It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L" share/E/E9C050000644000175000017500000000052011712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE9C05 (C) What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands? A. The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth B. The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal C. The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate supports D. The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type share/E/E7B120000644000175000017500000000025511712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE7B12 (C) What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1? A. Switching voltage regulator B. Linear voltage regulator C. Common emitter amplifier D. Emitter follower amplifier share/E/E6A140000644000175000017500000000055511712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE6A14 (C) How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor? A. They are both low impedance B. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance C. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance D. They are both high impedance share/E/E5A170000644000175000017500000000026011712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE5A17 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? A. 10.1 MHz B. 63.2 MHz C. 10.1 kHz D. 63.2 kHz share/E/E7A020000644000175000017500000000023711712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE7A02 (C) How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit? A. None B. One C. Two D. Four share/E/E9G060000644000175000017500000000030611712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE9G06 (B) On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate? A. Prime axis B. Reactance axis C. Impedance axis D. Polar axis share/E/E8A080000644000175000017500000000030311712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE8A08 (A) What is the period of a wave? A. The time required to complete one cycle B. The number of degrees in one cycle C. The number of zero crossings in one cycle D. The amplitude of the wave share/E/E5B100000644000175000017500000000042511712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE5B10 (A) What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase D. Voltage and current are in phase share/E/E5C200000644000175000017500000000032011712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE5C20 (B) Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz? A. Point 1 B. Point 3 C. Point 7 D. Point 8 share/E/E6D130000644000175000017500000000025111712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE6D13 (D) What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen? A. Electromagnetic B. Tubular C. Radar D. Electrostatic share/E/E2B100000644000175000017500000000031411712775741011162 0ustar jtnjtnE2B10 (A) Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands? A. 3 KHz B. 10 KHz C. 15 KHz D. 20 KHz share/E/E9C120000644000175000017500000000056411712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE9C12 (D) When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency? A. Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength B. It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground C. It should be configured as a four-sided loop D. It should be one or more wavelengths long share/E/E6A020000644000175000017500000000021211712775741011163 0ustar jtnjtnE6A02 (A) Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons? A. N-type B. P-type C. Bipolar D. Insulated gate share/E/E3C010000644000175000017500000000040411712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE3C01 (D) Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications? A. SSB signals are raspy B. Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery C. CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E4D050000644000175000017500000000043411712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE4D05 (A) What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz? A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz D. 173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz share/E/E1D080000644000175000017500000000031211712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE1D08 (D) [97.207] Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations? A. 6 meters and 2 meters B. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters D. 2 meters share/E/E8C120000644000175000017500000000037111712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE8C12 (D) What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream? A. Faster transmission rate B. The signal can overpower interfering signals C. Foreign language characters can be sent D. Some types of errors can be detected share/E/E7B060000644000175000017500000000021611712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE7B06 (B) Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics? A. Push-push B. Push-pull C. Class C D. Class AB share/E/E6F030000644000175000017500000000035311712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE6F03 (D) What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler? A. A lens and a photomultiplier B. A frequency modulated helium-neon laser C. An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser D. An LED and a phototransistor share/E/E7C110000644000175000017500000000037311712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE7C11 (D) Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output? A. Pi-L B. Cascode C. Omega D. Pi share/E/E7A120000644000175000017500000000023511712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE7A12 (C) What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage? A. Reverse Logic B. Assertive Logic C. Negative logic D. Positive Logic share/E/E9F140000644000175000017500000000043311712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE9F14 (B) What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end? A. Very high impedance B. Very low impedance C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line D. The same as the output impedance of the generator share/E/E9G050000644000175000017500000000030311712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE9G05 (A) What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3? A. Smith chart B. Free-space radiation directivity chart C. Elevation angle radiation pattern chart D. Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart share/E/E2C090000644000175000017500000000104311712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE2C09 (D) How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work? A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence D. The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station share/E/E8B010000644000175000017500000000037311712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE8B01 (D) What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal? A. FM compressibility B. Quieting index C. Percentage of modulation D. Modulation index share/E/E6A130000644000175000017500000000027711712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE6A13 (C) What do the initials CMOS stand for? A. Common Mode Oscillating System B. Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon C. Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor D. Common Mode Organic Silicon share/E/E5C080000644000175000017500000000045011712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE5C08 (B) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor? A. 400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees B. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees C. 500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees D. 700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees share/E/E2A040000644000175000017500000000047711712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE2A04 (B) What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite? A. The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite B. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands C. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth D. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit share/E/E9A080000644000175000017500000000071511712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE9A08 (A) What is meant by antenna gain? A. The ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna B. The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction C. The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power D. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses, including any phasing lines present share/E/E4B090000644000175000017500000000061611712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE4B09 (D) What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance? A. There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line B. The transmitter is not properly neutralized C. There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line D. There is more power going into the antenna share/E/E5B050000644000175000017500000000034611712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE5B05 (A) How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 0.02 seconds B. 0.04 seconds C. 20 seconds D. 40 seconds share/E/E6F090000644000175000017500000000044611712775741011210 0ustar jtnjtnE6F09 (D) What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell? A. The output RF power divided by the input dc power B. The effective payback period C. The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination D. The relative fraction of light that is converted to current share/E/E6A160000644000175000017500000000021611712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE6A16 (B) What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material? A. Holes B. Free electrons C. Free protons D. Free neutrons share/E/E3B020000644000175000017500000000022711712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE3B02 (C) What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? A. 1000 miles B. 2500 miles C. 5000 miles D. 7500 miles share/E/E9B020000644000175000017500000000020611712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE9B02 (B) In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio? A. 36 dB B. 18 dB C. 24 dB D. 14 dB share/E/E5D030000644000175000017500000000022011712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE5D03 (C) What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field? A. A battery B. A transformer C. A capacitor D. An inductor share/E/E9A060000644000175000017500000000042311712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE9A06 (D) What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system? A. Radiation resistance plus space impedance B. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance C. Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance share/E/E4A050000644000175000017500000000033211712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE4A05 (B) Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission? A. A wattmeter B. A spectrum analyzer C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer share/E/E3A080000644000175000017500000000031011712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE3A08 (A) When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere? A. The E layer B. The F1 layer C. The F2 layer D. The D layer share/E/E6A150000644000175000017500000000026111712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE6A15 (B) Which of the following semiconductor materials contains an excess of holes in the outer shell of electrons? A. N-type B. P-type C. Superconductor-type D. Bipolar-type share/E/E1A090000644000175000017500000000064611712775740011177 0ustar jtnjtnE1A09 (A) [97.219] What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules? A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules C. Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office D. Discontinue forwarding all messages share/E/E1B080000644000175000017500000000101111712775741011163 0ustar jtnjtnE1B08 (D) [97.121] What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design? A. The amateur station must cease operation B. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz C. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz D. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference share/E/E5C230000644000175000017500000000035511712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE5C23 (D) Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz? A. Point 1 B. Point 3 C. Point 5 D. Point 8 share/E/E4B130000644000175000017500000000100211712775741011162 0ustar jtnjtnE4B13 (A) How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted? A. A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible B. A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude C. A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate D. A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate share/E/E5A140000644000175000017500000000026111712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE5A14 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? A. 44.72 MHz B. 22.36 MHz C. 3.56 MHz D. 1.78 MHz share/E/E7E060000644000175000017500000000036411712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE7E06 (A) Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers? A. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation B. To reduce impulse noise reception C. For higher efficiency D. To remove third-order distortion products share/E/E7A110000644000175000017500000000023511712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE7A11 (D) What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage? A. Reverse Logic B. Assertive Logic C. Negative logic D. Positive Logic share/E/E7H110000644000175000017500000000031411712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE7H11 (C) What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers? A. Broadband noise B. Digital conversion noise C. Spurious signals at discrete frequencies D. Nyquist limit noise share/E/E4B020000644000175000017500000000053311712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE4B02 (C) What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance? A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source C. The measurement is based on obtaining a signal null, which can be done very precisely D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format share/E/E7C040000644000175000017500000000072011712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE7C04 (C) How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance? A. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance B. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance C. It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value D. Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances share/E/E9A150000644000175000017500000000056611712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE9A15 (C) What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna? A. The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line B. The specific impedance of the antenna C. The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna D. The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal share/E/E9C040000644000175000017500000000073711712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE9C04 (B) Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna? A. Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance B. Bidirectional; four-sides, each side one or more wavelengths long; open at the end opposite the transmission line connection C. Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmission connection; D. Four-sides, each of a different physical length share/E/E2B080000644000175000017500000000042211712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE2B08 (D) Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television? A. Frequency-modulated sub-carrier B. A separate VHF or UHF audio link C. Frequency modulation of the video carrier D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E5C090000644000175000017500000000043411712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE5C09 (A) When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent? A. Resistive component B. Reactive component C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components share/E/E7G070000644000175000017500000000023211712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE7G07 (C) What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms? A. 0.21 B. 94 C. 47 D. 24 share/E/E7C090000644000175000017500000000027711712775741011210 0ustar jtnjtnE7C09 (C) What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal? A. An adaptive filter B. A notch filter C. A Hilbert-transform filter D. An elliptical filter share/E/E6A010000644000175000017500000000040111712775741011162 0ustar jtnjtnE6A01 (C) In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon? A. In high-current rectifier circuits B. In high-power audio circuits C. At microwave frequencies D. At very low frequency RF circuits share/E/E1F120000644000175000017500000000042511712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE1F12 (B) [97.201] Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? A. Any licensed amateur operator B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators C. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators D. Only Amateur Extra Class operators share/E/E8C020000644000175000017500000000117111712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE8C02 (B) What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII? A. Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code B. Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses two characters as shift codes, ASCII has no shift code C. Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes D. Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes share/E/E6D040000644000175000017500000000063111712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE6D04 (A) What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera? A. It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels B. It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning C. It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image D. It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal share/E/E4D140000644000175000017500000000037511712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE4D14 (A) Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization? A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver B. Raise the receiver IF frequency C. Increase the receiver front end gain D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC share/E/E5B030000644000175000017500000000024011712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE5B03 (D) The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants? A. 86.5% B. 63.2% C. 36.8% D. 13.5% share/E/E4C030000644000175000017500000000031311712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE4C03 (C) What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal? A. Desensitization B. Cross-modulation interference C. Capture effect D. Frequency discrimination share/E/E8C010000644000175000017500000000021111712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE8C01 (D) Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length? A. ASCII B. AX.25 C. Baudot D. Morse code share/E/E8C030000644000175000017500000000053011712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE8C03 (C) What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications? A. It includes built-in error-correction features B. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text D. It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters share/E/E4D010000644000175000017500000000101711712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE4D01 (A) What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver? A. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression B. The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other C. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point D. The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor share/E/E8D040000644000175000017500000000024011712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE8D04 (B) What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load? A. 4.5 watts B. 9 watts C. 16 watts D. 18 watts share/E/E8D060000644000175000017500000000062011712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE8D06 (B) What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter? A. It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit B. It gives a more accurate display of the PEP output when modulation is present C. It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line D. It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks share/E/E8A120000644000175000017500000000023111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE8A12 (D) What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms? A. Human speech B. Video signals C. Data D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E7D080000644000175000017500000000024511712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE7D08 (C) What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3? A. Switching voltage regulator B. Grounded emitter amplifier C. Linear voltage regulator D. Emitter follower share/E/E2C120000644000175000017500000000053011712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE2C12 (B) What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset? A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band C. Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass D. Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band share/E/E2C020000644000175000017500000000104311712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE2C02 (A) Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating? A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station share/E/E7C020000644000175000017500000000033511712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE7C02 (C) A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the following properties? A. It is a low-pass filter B. It is a band-pass filter C. It is a high-pass filter D. It is a notch filter share/E/E1D090000644000175000017500000000025111712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE1D09 (B) [97.207] Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station? A. 70 cm B. 70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm C. 70 cm and 33 cm D. 33 cm and 13 cm share/E/E7B160000644000175000017500000000033011712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE7B16 (A) What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier? A. Transmission of spurious signals B. Creation of parasitic oscillations C. Low efficiency D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E7F070000644000175000017500000000035111712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE7F07 (A) What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter? A. The accuracy of the time base B. The speed of the logic devices used C. Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply D. Proper balancing of the mixer diodes share/E/E7H180000644000175000017500000000031311712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE7H18 (A) What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers? A. Phase noise B. Digital conversion noise C. Spurious signals at discrete frequencies D. Nyquist limit noise share/E/E7F010000644000175000017500000000061011712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE7F01 (D) What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit? A. It converts the output of a JK flip flop to that of an RS flip-flop B. It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency C. It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit D. It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency share/E/E7F030000644000175000017500000000044311712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE7F03 (A) What is the function of a decade counter digital IC? A. It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses B. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display C. It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse D. It adds two decimal numbers together share/E/E5D150000644000175000017500000000023011712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE5D15 (D) What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.866 B. 1.0 C. 0.5 D. 0.707 share/E/E3B010000644000175000017500000000057111712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE3B01 (A) What is transequatorial propagation? A. Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator B. Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator D. Propagation between two stations at the same latitude share/E/E1A050000644000175000017500000000057611712775740011175 0ustar jtnjtnE1A05 (C) [97.313] What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band? A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator share/E/E2E010000644000175000017500000000024211712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE2E01 (B) Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz? A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal B. FSK C. Pulse modulation D. Spread spectrum share/E/E6B100000644000175000017500000000014711712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE6B10 (B) In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode? A. 1 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 share/E/E7E040000644000175000017500000000043311712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE7E04 (A) What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated? A. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer D. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal share/E/E7A140000644000175000017500000000056411712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE7A14 (A) What is a JK flip-flop? A. A flip-flop similar to an RS except that it toggles when both J and K are high B. A flip-flop utilizing low power, low temperature Joule-Kelvin devices C. A flip-flop similar to a D flip-flop except that it triggers on the negative clock edge D. A flip-flop originally developed in Japan and Korea which has very low power consumption share/E/E7A130000644000175000017500000000064511712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE7A13 (B) What is an SR or RS flip-flop? A. A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability B. A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low C. A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability D. A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high share/E/E7G030000644000175000017500000000044411712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE7G03 (D) Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter? A. Op-amps are more rugged B. Op-amps are fixed at one frequency C. Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss share/E/E2C030000644000175000017500000000021311712775741011163 0ustar jtnjtnE2C03 (A) From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded? A. 30 meters B. 6 meters C. 2 meters D. 33 cm share/E/E7B080000644000175000017500000000042011712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE7B08 (C) How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized? A. By increasing the driving power B. By reducing the driving power C. By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input D. By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input share/E/E7A100000644000175000017500000000051211712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE7A10 (C) What is a truth table? A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp B. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true C. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device D. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp share/E/E3C030000644000175000017500000000021611712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE3C03 (D) Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur? A. In the F1-region B. In the F2-region C. In the D-region D. In the E-region share/E/E6A110000644000175000017500000000015111712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE6A11 (A) In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 share/E/E9F060000644000175000017500000000033411712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE9F06 (C) What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? A. 15 meters B. 20 meters C. 10 meters D. 71 meters share/E/E6D020000644000175000017500000000030111712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE6D02 (B) Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays? A. The heater voltage B. The anode voltage C. The operating temperature D. The operating frequency share/E/E7D110000644000175000017500000000032011712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE7D11 (C) What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. It provides a constant load to the voltage source B. It couples hum to D1 C. It supplies current to D1 D. It bypasses hum around D1 share/E/E2D120000644000175000017500000000041211712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE2D12 (A) How does JT65 improve EME communications? A. It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC B. It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift C. It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E7E090000644000175000017500000000033111712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE7E09 (A) What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit? A. Spurious mixer products are generated B. Mixer blanking occurs C. Automatic limiting occurs D. A beat frequency is generated share/E/E4C020000644000175000017500000000035111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE4C02 (A) Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference? A. A front-end filter or pre-selector B. A narrow IF filter C. A notch filter D. A properly adjusted product detector share/E/E4C100000644000175000017500000000022111712775741011162 0ustar jtnjtnE4C10 (B) Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver? A. 100 Hz B. 300 Hz C. 6000 Hz D. 2400 Hz share/E/E9H040000644000175000017500000000040411712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE9H04 (C) What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses? A. Power factor B. Half-power bandwidth C. Effective radiated power D. Apparent power share/E/E1F020000644000175000017500000000046011712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE1F02 (A) [97.5] Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US? A. CEPT agreement B. IARP agreement C. ITU reciprocal license D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E6E090000644000175000017500000000053711712775741011210 0ustar jtnjtnE6E09 (B) Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer? A. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance B. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance C. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage D. Bias the crystal at a specified current share/E/E1D030000644000175000017500000000077011712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE1D03 (B) [97.3] What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service? A. An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space share/E/E9H030000644000175000017500000000040711712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE9H03 (B) What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain? A. 159 watts B. 252 watts C. 632 watts D. 63.2 watts share/E/E9B100000644000175000017500000000061011712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE9B10 (A) What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis? A. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current B. A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator C. A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space D. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it share/E/E5C190000644000175000017500000000031511712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE5C19 (B) Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz? A. Point 2 B. Point 4 C. Point 5 D. Point 6 share/E/E2C080000644000175000017500000000066111712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE2C08 (A) Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference? A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver B. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered C. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies share/E/E9B040000644000175000017500000000047211712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE9B04 (D) What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed? A. Feed point impedance may become negative B. The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse C. Element spacing limits could be exceeded D. The gain may change depending on frequency share/E/E1B020000644000175000017500000000074011712775740011164 0ustar jtnjtnE1B02 (D) [97.13] Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted? A. The location is near an area of political conflict B. The location is of geographical or horticultural importance C. The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments D. The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture share/E/E7H160000644000175000017500000000113211712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE7H16 (B) Why is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator important in the design of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer? A. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal B. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce phase noise in the synthesizer output C. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal D. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from changing frequency share/E/E7A150000644000175000017500000000051611712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE7A15 (A) What is a D flip-flop? A. A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when the clock signal transitions from low to high B. A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit C. A dynamic memory storage element D. A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions share/E/E9H050000644000175000017500000000034611712775741011210 0ustar jtnjtnE9H05 (A) What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding? A. It has a bidirectional pattern B. It is non-rotatable C. It receives equally well in all directions D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands share/E/E9G070000644000175000017500000000025611712775741011211 0ustar jtnjtnE9G07 (D) On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown? A. The reactance axis B. The current axis C. The voltage axis D. The resistance axis share/E/E9E010000644000175000017500000000051311712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE9E01 (B) What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center? A. The gamma matching system B. The delta matching system C. The omega matching system D. The stub matching system share/E/E9A030000644000175000017500000000022211712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE9A03 (D) Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction? A. Quarter-wave vertical B. Yagi C. Half-wave dipole D. Isotropic antenna share/E/E9F160000644000175000017500000000046711712775741011214 0ustar jtnjtnE9F16 (D) Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same? A. Reduced safe operating voltage limits B. Reduced losses per unit of length C. Higher velocity factor D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E3A010000644000175000017500000000047511712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE3A01 (D) What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce? A. 500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee B. 2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee C. 5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee D. 12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon share/E/E7A050000644000175000017500000000031611712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE7A05 (D) Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock? A. Monostable multivibrator B. J-K flip-flop C. T flip-flop D. Astable multivibrator share/E/E7F020000644000175000017500000000024211712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE7F02 (B) Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten? A. A preamp B. A prescaler C. A marker generator D. A flip-flop share/E/E4B030000644000175000017500000000035111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE4B03 (C) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 165.2 Hz B. 14.652 kHz C. 146.52 Hz D. 1.4652 MHz share/E/E9F040000644000175000017500000000020611712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE9F04 (B) What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric? A. 2.70 B. 0.66 C. 0.30 D. 0.10 share/E/E7C030000644000175000017500000000041111712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE7C03 (A) What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna? A. Greater harmonic suppression B. Higher efficiency C. Lower losses D. Greater transformation range share/E/E5A030000644000175000017500000000042011712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE5A03 (D) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance? A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance share/E/E4A030000644000175000017500000000021211712775741011162 0ustar jtnjtnE4A03 (A) Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis? A. Amplitude B. Duration C. SWR D. Q share/E/E9C020000644000175000017500000000042211712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE9C02 (A) What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase? A. A cardioid B. A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array C. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array D. Omnidirectional share/E/E1D040000644000175000017500000000070411712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE1D04 (A) [97.3] What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service? A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth share/E/E9E090000644000175000017500000000041211712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE9E09 (C) Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna? A. Double-bazooka match B. Hairpin match C. Gamma match D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E5B070000644000175000017500000000056411712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE5B07 (C) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms? A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current share/E/E9D090000644000175000017500000000026411712775741011207 0ustar jtnjtnE9D09 (D) What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna? A. Lower Q B. Greater structural strength C. Higher losses D. Improved radiation efficiency share/E/E9C110000644000175000017500000000046311712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE9C11 (D) How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground? A. The low-angle radiation decreases B. The high-angle radiation increases C. Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease D. The low-angle radiation increases share/E/E9B120000644000175000017500000000054511712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE9B12 (D) What is the far-field of an antenna? A. The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted B. The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period C. The region where radiated field strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection D. The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance share/E/E6D070000644000175000017500000000053111712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE6D07 (B) What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used? A. From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz B. From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz C. From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz D. From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz share/E/E3A030000644000175000017500000000034611712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE3A03 (A) When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss? A. When the Moon is at perigee B. When the Moon is full C. When the Moon is at apogee D. When the MUF is above 30 MHz share/E/E7G120000644000175000017500000000067111712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE7G12 (A) What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier? A. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input and very low output impedance B. A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier C. An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit D. An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions share/E/E1E140000644000175000017500000000065211712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE1E14 (A) [97.527] For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed? A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course C. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement D. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials share/E/E1F010000644000175000017500000000040711712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE1F01 (B) [97.305] On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted? A. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz C. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz D. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz share/E/E5B040000644000175000017500000000027611712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE5B04 (D) What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel? A. 55 seconds B. 110 seconds C. 440 seconds D. 220 seconds share/E/E9D020000644000175000017500000000103611712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE9D02 (C) How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization? A. Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes B. Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase D. Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase share/E/E9A020000644000175000017500000000022611712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE9A02 (B) How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna? A. 1.55 dB B. 2.15 dB C. 3.05 dB D. 4.30 dB share/E/E9D030000644000175000017500000000027311712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE9D03 (D) How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased? A. It increases geometrically B. It increases arithmetically C. It is essentially unaffected D. It decreases share/E/E1C090000644000175000017500000000033211712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE1C09 (D) [97.205] Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz? A. 18.110 - 18.168 MHz B. 24.940 - 24.990 MHz C. 10.100 - 10.150 MHz D. 29.500 - 29.700 MHz share/E/E6D010000644000175000017500000000057011712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE6D01 (D) What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence? A. The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on B. The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light C. The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions D. The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off share/E/E6F060000644000175000017500000000025511712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE6F06 (A) Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity? A. A crystalline semiconductor B. An ordinary metal C. A heavy metal D. A liquid semiconductor share/E/E7H010000644000175000017500000000031411712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE7H01 (D) What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment? A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback B. Pierce, Fenner and Beane C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce share/E/E6B120000644000175000017500000000024311712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE6B12 (C) What is one common use for PIN diodes? A. As a constant current source B. As a constant voltage source C. As an RF switch D. As a high voltage rectifier share/E/E4A110000644000175000017500000000022111712775741011161 0ustar jtnjtnE4A11 (B) Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals? A. Dip meter B. Oscilloscope C. Ohmmeter D. Q meter share/E/E4E040000644000175000017500000000107311712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE4E04 (D) How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed? A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead B. By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads share/E/E9G100000644000175000017500000000022011712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE9G10 (D) What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent? A. Frequency B. SWR C. Points with constant resistance D. Points with constant reactance share/E/E8A150000644000175000017500000000052411712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE8A15 (B) What would the waveform of a stream of digital data bits look like on a conventional oscilloscope? A. A series of sine waves with evenly spaced gaps B. A series of pulses with varying patterns C. A running display of alpha-numeric characters D. None of the above; this type of signal cannot be seen on a conventional oscilloscope share/E/E5B010000644000175000017500000000035011712775741011165 0ustar jtnjtnE5B01 (B) What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage? A. An exponential rate of one B. One time constant C. One exponential period D. A time factor of one share/E/E7D060000644000175000017500000000042711712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE7D06 (C) What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. It provides negative feedback to improve regulation B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source C. It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator D. It provides D1 with current share/E/E9G080000644000175000017500000000052111712775741011205 0ustar jtnjtnE9G08 (C) What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart? A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis C. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis share/E/E6D030000644000175000017500000000045011712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE6D03 (C) Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)? A. Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency B. It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter C. It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output D. It is used in a battery charger circuit share/E/E9F150000644000175000017500000000043011712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE9F15 (A) What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end? A. Very high impedance B. Very low impedance C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line D. The same as the output impedance of the generator share/E/E4E100000644000175000017500000000067311712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE4E10 (D) What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device? A. The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver B. The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum C. The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E8D030000644000175000017500000000027511712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE8D03 (A) What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier? A. Peak voltage B. RMS voltage C. Average power D. Resting voltage share/E/E3C060000644000175000017500000000040611712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE3C06 (A) By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. By approximately 15% of the distance B. By approximately twice the distance C. By approximately one-half the distance D. By approximately four times the distance share/E/E3C020000644000175000017500000000051411712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE3C02 (C) What is the cause of Aurora activity? A. The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt B. A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting C. The interaction of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field and the ionosphere D. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes share/E/E9F030000644000175000017500000000054611712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE9F03 (D) Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length? A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable B. The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line C. The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line D. Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air share/E/E4D080000644000175000017500000000024311712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE4D08 (C) What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit? A. Too little gain B. Lack of neutralization C. Nonlinear circuits or devices D. Positive feedback share/E/E2B190000644000175000017500000000063011712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE2B19 (C) What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions? A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz C. They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz share/E/E6B040000644000175000017500000000026411712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE6B04 (A) What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor? A. Varactor diode B. Tunnel diode C. Silicon-controlled rectifier D. Zener diode share/E/E6A070000644000175000017500000000014111712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE6A07 (A) In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 share/E/E3A060000644000175000017500000000030411712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE3A06 (B) What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band? A. 144.000 - 144.001 MHz B. 144.000 - 144.100 MHz C. 144.100 - 144.300 MHz D. 145.000 - 145.100 MHz share/E/E7H080000644000175000017500000000051211712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE7H08 (A) What is a Gunn diode oscillator? A. An oscillator based on the negative resistance properties of properly-doped semiconductors B. An oscillator based on the argon gas diode C. A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle D. A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect share/E/E4C150000644000175000017500000000031311712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE4C15 (D) What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected? A. Detector noise B. Induction motor noise C. Receiver front-end noise D. Atmospheric noise share/E/E2D110000644000175000017500000000030311712775741011163 0ustar jtnjtnE2D11 (D) Which of the following data are used by the APRS network communicate your location? A. Polar coordinates B. Time and frequency C. Radio direction finding LOPs D. Latitude and longitude share/E/E2B030000644000175000017500000000053611712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE2B03 (D) How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system? A. By scanning two fields simultaneously B. By scanning each field from bottom to top C. By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next D. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in the next share/E/E7G050000644000175000017500000000036311712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE7G05 (A) How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit? A. Restrict both gain and Q B. Restrict gain, but increase Q C. Restrict Q, but increase gain D. Increase both gain and Q share/E/E9A110000644000175000017500000000042711712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE9A11 (A) Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna? A. Install a good radial system B. Isolate the coax shield from ground C. Shorten the radiating element D. Reduce the diameter of the radiating element share/E/E9E080000644000175000017500000000035111712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE9E08 (D) Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line? A. An SWR less than 1:1 B. A reflection coefficient greater than 1 C. A dielectric constant greater than 1 D. An SWR greater than 1:1 share/E/E1E060000644000175000017500000000036111712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE1E06 (C) [97.509] Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session? A. The VEC coordinating the session B. The FCC C. Each administering VE D. The VE session manager share/E/E9F090000644000175000017500000000034111712775741011205 0ustar jtnjtnE9F09 (B) What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz? A. 10 meters B. 6.9 meters C. 24 meters D. 50 meters share/E/E5D080000644000175000017500000000026011712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE5D08 (B) What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field? A. Electromechanical energy B. Potential energy C. Thermodynamic energy D. Kinetic energy share/E/E6B030000644000175000017500000000020711712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE6B03 (C) What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation? A. Point contact B. Zener C. Tunnel D. Junction share/E/E7H050000644000175000017500000000026611712775741011207 0ustar jtnjtnE7H05 (D) How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator? A. Through a tapped coil B. Through link coupling C. Through a neutralizing capacitor D. Through a quartz crystal share/E/E8B120000644000175000017500000000064211712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE8B12 (B) What is digital time division multiplexing? A. Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter B. Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission C. Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier D. Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency share/E/E7H130000644000175000017500000000043711712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE7H13 (A) What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit? A. The frequency range over which the circuit can lock B. The voltage range over which the circuit can lock C. The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock D. The range of time it takes the circuit to lock share/E/E1A020000644000175000017500000000061111712775740011160 0ustar jtnjtnE1A02 (D) [97.301, 97.305] When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band? A. The exact lower band edge B. 300 Hz above the lower band edge C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge share/E/E1E030000644000175000017500000000066511712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE1E03 (C) [97.521] What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager share/E/E9C080000644000175000017500000000024711712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE9C08 (C) What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2? A. 45 degrees B. 75 degrees C. 7.5 degrees D. 25 degrees share/E/E6C110000644000175000017500000000015511712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE6C11 (C) In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 share/E/E2D020000644000175000017500000000036611712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE2D02 (A) What is the definition of baud? A. The number of data symbols transmitted per second B. The number of characters transmitted per second C. The number of characters transmitted per minute D. The number of words transmitted per minute share/E/E6F020000644000175000017500000000025611712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE6F02 (A) What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it? A. It increases B. It decreases C. It stays the same D. It becomes unstable share/E/E4D120000644000175000017500000000032511712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE4D12 (A) What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? A. Desensitization B. Quieting C. Cross-modulation interference D. Squelch gain rollback share/E/E6C100000644000175000017500000000013311712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE6C10 (D) In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E/E7C120000644000175000017500000000053611712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE7C12 (B) Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output? A. A Phase Inverter Load network B. A Pi network with an additional series inductor on the output C. A network with only three discrete parts D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground share/E/E5A040000644000175000017500000000050211712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE5A04 (A) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance? A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance share/E/E9H010000644000175000017500000000037311712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE9H01 (D) What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain? A. 1977 watts B. 78.7 watts C. 420 watts D. 286 watts share/E/E1E020000644000175000017500000000037511712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE1E02 (C) [97.523] Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed? A. In FCC Part 97 B. In a question pool maintained by the FCC C. In a question pool maintained by all the VECs D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order share/E/E4E120000644000175000017500000000073211712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE4E12 (A) What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals? A. The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal C. Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency D. Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters share/E/E4B150000644000175000017500000000041011712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE4B15 (C) Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit? A. The inductance to capacitance ratio B. The frequency shift C. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response D. The resonant frequency of the circuit share/E/E7C070000644000175000017500000000032111712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE7C07 (B) What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission? A. A band-pass filter B. A notch filter C. A Pi-network filter D. An all-pass filter share/E/E6B130000644000175000017500000000020111712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE6B13 (B) What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light? A. Reverse bias B. Forward bias C. Zero bias D. Inductive bias share/E/E8C090000644000175000017500000000032211712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE8C09 (A) Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver? A. Spread-spectrum B. Independent sideband C. Regenerative detection D. Exponential addition share/E/E4A060000644000175000017500000000047311712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE4A06 (D) Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer? A. The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer B. Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency C. The spectral output of a transmitter D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E2A070000644000175000017500000000026211712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE2A07 (D) Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder? A. FM and CW B. SSB and SSTV C. PSK and Packet D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E1E040000644000175000017500000000077011712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE1E04 (D) [97.509, 97.525] Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process? A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner share/E/E8C070000644000175000017500000000023111712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE8C07 (A) What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission? A. 15.36 kHz B. 9.6 kHz C. 4.8 kHz D. 5.76 kHz share/E/E6F120000644000175000017500000000017111712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE6F12 (C) What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell? A. Protons B. Photons C. Electrons D. Holes share/E/E4C130000644000175000017500000000051011712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE4C13 (C) How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance? A. It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise B. It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing C. It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E5A110000644000175000017500000000026411712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE5A11 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? A. 157.8 Hz B. 315.6 Hz C. 47.3 kHz D. 23.67 kHz share/E/E7G110000644000175000017500000000023311712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE7G11 (B) What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? A. 28 B. 14 C. 7 D. 0.07 share/E/E4D020000644000175000017500000000076711712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE4D02 (A) Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver? A. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband C. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals share/E/E5D180000644000175000017500000000023011712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE5D18 (B) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA? A. 704 W B. 355 W C. 252 W D. 1.42 mW share/E/E1E070000644000175000017500000000070611712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE1E07 (B) [97.509] What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination? A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination B. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results D. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session share/E/E5A160000644000175000017500000000026011712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE5A16 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? A. 23.5 MHz B. 23.5 kHz C. 7.12 kHz D. 7.12 MHz share/E/E3C040000644000175000017500000000013111712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE3C04 (A) Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation? A. CW B. SSB C. FM D. RTTY share/E/E6D050000644000175000017500000000063311712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE6D05 (B) What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)? A. A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency B. A display using a crystalline liquid which, in conjunction with polarizing filters, becomes opaque when voltage is applied C. A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver D. A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light share/E/E5A010000644000175000017500000000025111712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE5A01 (A) What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them? A. Resonance B. Capacitance C. Conductance D. Resistance share/E/E2A010000644000175000017500000000024711712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE2A01 (C) What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? A. From west to east B. From east to west C. From south to north D. From north to south share/E/E5B120000644000175000017500000000055211712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE5B12 (C) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms? A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current share/E/E5C160000644000175000017500000000044311712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE5C16 (B) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees? A. 5.03 E"06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees B. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees C. 19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees share/E/E7D070000644000175000017500000000033711712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE7D07 (A) What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3? A. It bypasses hum around D1 B. It is a brute force filter for the output C. To self-resonate at the hum frequency D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1 share/E/E1F090000644000175000017500000000071311712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE1F09 (D) [97.311] Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission? A. A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions B. The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions C. The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E6C040000644000175000017500000000034211712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE6C04 (B) Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic? A. Low power consumption B. Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus C. High speed operation D. More efficient arithmetic operations share/E/E5B020000644000175000017500000000037211712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE5B02 (D) What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage? A. One discharge period B. An exponential discharge rate of one C. A discharge factor of one D. One time constant share/E/E9E070000644000175000017500000000030711712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE9E07 (B) What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line? A. Characteristic impedance B. Reflection coefficient C. Velocity factor D. Dielectric constant share/E/E3C100000644000175000017500000000064111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE3C10 (B) How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground? A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction C. The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction D. The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction share/E/E3B070000644000175000017500000000036711712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE3B07 (D) Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station? A. High D layer absorption B. Meteor scatter C. Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF D. Receipt of a signal by more than one path share/E/E2A100000644000175000017500000000041111712775741011157 0ustar jtnjtnE2A10 (A) Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect? A. Because the satellite is spinning B. Because of ionospheric absorption C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude D. Because of the Doppler Effect share/E/E1D050000644000175000017500000000034211712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE1D05 (C) [97.207] What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station? A. All except Technician Class B. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class C. All classes D. Only Amateur Extra Class share/E/E4A090000644000175000017500000000103411712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE4A09 (A) Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation distortion of your own PSK signal? A. Transmit into a dummy load, receive the signal on a second receiver, and feed the audio into the sound card of a computer running an appropriate PSK program B. Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transmission by the average power output C. Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appropriate isolation to prevent damage to the meter D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E9H080000644000175000017500000000051211712775741011206 0ustar jtnjtnE9H08 (A) What is the function of a sense antenna? A. It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction B. It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array C. It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles D. It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals share/E/E8D120000644000175000017500000000023111712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE8D12 (D) What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal waveform if an RMS-reading voltmeter reads 34 volts? A. 123 volts B. 96 volts C. 55 volts D. 48 volts share/E/E3C070000644000175000017500000000054511712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE3C07 (B) How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground? A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height C. The horizontal beam width increases with height D. The horizontal beam width decreases with height share/E/E5C020000644000175000017500000000052311712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE5C02 (D) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series? A. 100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees B. 10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees C. 10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees D. 100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees share/E/E4C070000644000175000017500000000030211712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE4C07 (B) What does the MDS of a receiver represent? A. The meter display sensitivity B. The minimum discernible signal C. The multiplex distortion stability D. The maximum detectable spectrum share/E/E1B050000644000175000017500000000017411712775740011170 0ustar jtnjtnE1B05 (D) [97.303] What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters? A. 60 Hz B. 170 Hz C. 1.5 kHz D. 2.8 kHz share/E/E8A090000644000175000017500000000016611712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE8A09 (C) What type of waveform is produced by human speech? A. Sinusoidal B. Logarithmic C. Irregular D. Trapezoidal share/E/E5A120000644000175000017500000000026511712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE5A12 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? A. 436.6 kHz B. 218.3 kHz C. 31.4 kHz D. 15.7 kHz share/E/E1A030000644000175000017500000000073211712775740011165 0ustar jtnjtnE1A03 (C) [97.301, 97.305] With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency? A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz share/E/E2D100000644000175000017500000000100711712775741011164 0ustar jtnjtnE2D10 (C) How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity? A. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital B. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points C. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event D. All of these choices are correct share/E/E2B130000644000175000017500000000024011712775741011163 0ustar jtnjtnE2B13 (C) How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture? A. 30 to 60 B. 60 or 100 C. 128 or 256 D. 180 or 360 share/E/E6D120000644000175000017500000000035011712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE6D12 (A) How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns? A. 35 turns B. 13 turns C. 79 turns D. 141 turns share/E/E8A070000644000175000017500000000036111712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE8A07 (B) What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal? A. The frequency of the modulating signal B. The characteristics of the modulating signal C. The degree of carrier suppression D. The amplifier gain share/E/E8B090000644000175000017500000000061511712775741011204 0ustar jtnjtnE8B09 (B) What is meant by deviation ratio? A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency share/E/E1B110000644000175000017500000000054711712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE1B11 (A) [97.307] What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ? A. At least 43 dB below B. At least 53 dB below C. At least 63 dB below D. At least 73 dB below share/E/E8C110000644000175000017500000000035311712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE8C11 (B) What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier? A. Frequency hopping B. Direct sequence C. Binary phase-shift keying D. Phase compandored spread-spectrum share/E/E7B190000644000175000017500000000040511712775741011201 0ustar jtnjtnE7B19 (D) What is a klystron? A. A high speed multivibrator B. An electron-coupled oscillator utilizing a pentode vacuum tube C. An oscillator utilizing ceramic elements to achieve stability D. A VHF, UHF, or microwave vacuum tube that uses velocity modulation share/E/E7G090000644000175000017500000000033011712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE7G09 (D) What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts dc is applied to the input? A. 0.23 volts B. 2.3 volts C. -0.23 volts D. -2.3 volts share/E/E8D090000644000175000017500000000035511712775741011207 0ustar jtnjtnE8D09 (B) What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves? A. Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape B. Waves with a rotating electric field C. Waves that circle the Earth D. Waves produced by a loop antenna share/E/E1C030000644000175000017500000000067211712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE1C03 (B) [97.3, 97.109] How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control? A. Under local control there is no control operator B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point C. Under automatic control there is no control operator D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point share/E/E9E040000644000175000017500000000053411712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE9E04 (B) What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network? A. To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna B. To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network C. To provide a rejection notch to prevent the radiation of harmonics D. To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value share/E/E9F120000644000175000017500000000043111712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE9F12 (D) What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end? A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line B. The same as the input impedance to the generator C. Very high impedance D. Very low impedance share/E/E6F100000644000175000017500000000023411712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE6F10 (B) What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation? A. Selenium B. Silicon C. Cadmium Sulfide D. Copper oxide share/E/E6D060000644000175000017500000000023111712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE6D06 (D) What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor? A. Thermal impedance B. Resistance C. Reactivity D. Permeability share/E/E7D030000644000175000017500000000024611712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE7D03 (A) What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator? A. A Zener diode B. A tunnel diode C. An SCR D. A varactor diode share/E/E4C120000644000175000017500000000033111712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE4C12 (D) What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver? A. Output-offset overshoot B. Filter ringing C. Thermal-noise distortion D. Undesired signals may be heard share/E/E9B030000644000175000017500000000020611712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE9B03 (B) In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio? A. 12 dB B. 14 dB C. 18 dB D. 24 dB share/E/E9B050000644000175000017500000000040011712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE9B05 (B) What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain? A. The front-to-back ratio increases B. The front-to-back ratio decreases C. The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band D. The SWR is reduced share/E/E2C050000644000175000017500000000043411712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE2C05 (B) What is the function of a DX QSL Manager? A. To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions B. To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station C. To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station D. To relay calls to and from a DX station share/E/E6B070000644000175000017500000000033211712775741011174 0ustar jtnjtnE6B07 (B) What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current? A. Excessive inverse voltage B. Excessive junction temperature C. Insufficient forward voltage D. Charge carrier depletion share/E/E7B030000644000175000017500000000052711712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE7B03 (A) Which of the following forms the output of a class D amplifier circuit? A. A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components B. A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies C. A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients D. A temperature-compensated load resistor to improve linearity share/E/E7B020000644000175000017500000000044311712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE7B02 (A) What is a Class D amplifier? A. A type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency B. A low power amplifier using a differential amplifier for improved linearity C. An amplifier using drift-mode FETs for high efficiency D. A frequency doubling amplifier share/E/E3B040000644000175000017500000000035111712775741011167 0ustar jtnjtnE3B04 (A) What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals? A. Long-path B. Sporadic-E C. Transequatorial D. Auroral share/E/E7G080000644000175000017500000000042611712775741011207 0ustar jtnjtnE7G08 (D) How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency? A. It increases linearly with increasing frequency B. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency C. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency D. It does not vary with frequency share/E/E9C100000644000175000017500000000021611712775741011173 0ustar jtnjtnE9C10 (A) How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2? A. 4 B. 3 C. 1 D. 7 share/E/E7H030000644000175000017500000000027311712775741011203 0ustar jtnjtnE7H03 (A) How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator? A. Through a tapped coil B. Through a capacitive divider C. Through link coupling D. Through a neutralizing capacitor share/E/E9H020000644000175000017500000000042411712775741011202 0ustar jtnjtnE9H02 (A) What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain? A. 317 watts B. 2000 watts C. 126 watts D. 300 watts share/E/E7B200000644000175000017500000000065411712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE7B20 (B) What is a parametric amplifier? A. A type of bipolar operational amplifier with excellent linearity derived from use of very high voltage on the collector B. A low-noise VHF or UHF amplifier relying on varying reactance for amplification C. A high power amplifier for HF application utilizing the Miller effect to increase gain D. An audio push-pull amplifier using silicon carbide transistors for extremely low noise share/E/E7E030000644000175000017500000000055011712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE7E03 (C) How does an analog phase modulator function? A. By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals B. By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals C. By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals D. By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals share/E/E0A040000644000175000017500000000065111712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE0A04 (C) When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations? A. Only the most powerful transmitter B. Only commercial transmitters C. Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations D. Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50% share/E/E6E010000644000175000017500000000053111712775741011172 0ustar jtnjtnE6E01 (D) What is a crystal lattice filter? A. A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals B. An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals C. A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals D. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals share/E/E9A050000644000175000017500000000043311712775741011176 0ustar jtnjtnE9A05 (B) Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna? A. Transmission-line length B. Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects C. Constant feed point impedance D. Sunspot activity and time of day share/E/E1D010000644000175000017500000000055311712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE1D01 (A) [97.3] What is the definition of the term telemetry? A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument B. Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet C. Two-way single channel transmissions of data D. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance share/E/E6F080000644000175000017500000000076111712775741011207 0ustar jtnjtnE6F08 (C) Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120 VAC? A. Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit B. Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit C. Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched D. Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit share/E/E2B050000644000175000017500000000062011712775741011166 0ustar jtnjtnE2B05 (C) Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions? A. The vestigial sideband carries the audio information B. The vestigial sideband contains chroma information C. Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry D. Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture share/E/E4C080000644000175000017500000000034211712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE4C08 (B) How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance? A. It would reduce the signal to noise ratio B. It would improve weak signal sensitivity C. It would reduce bandwidth D. It would increase bandwidth share/E/E6D150000644000175000017500000000044211712775741011177 0ustar jtnjtnE6D15 (A) What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices over other types of display devices? A. They consume less power B. They can display changes instantly C. They are visible in all light conditions D. They can be easily interchanged with other display devices share/E/E7G060000644000175000017500000000046211712775741011205 0ustar jtnjtnE7G06 (D) Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter? A. As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers B. As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line C. For smoothing power-supply output D. As an audio filter in a receiver share/E/E6C030000644000175000017500000000043511712775741011175 0ustar jtnjtnE6C03 (A) Which of the following describes tri-state logic? A. Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states B. Logic devices that utilize ternary math C. Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts D. Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices share/E/E1E100000644000175000017500000000075011712775741011170 0ustar jtnjtnE1E10 (C) [97.509] What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license? A. They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading B. They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading C. They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions D. They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions share/E/E4D060000644000175000017500000000032111712775741011171 0ustar jtnjtnE4D06 (D) What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals? A. Amplifier desensitization B. Neutralization C. Adjacent channel interference D. Intermodulation interference share/E/E7D170000644000175000017500000000103411712775741011200 0ustar jtnjtnE7D17 (C) What is the primary reason that a high-frequency inverter type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply? A. The inverter design does not require any output filtering B. It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output C. The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output D. It uses a large power-factor compensation capacitor to create "free power" from the unused portion of the AC cycle share/G/0000755000175000017500000000000011566750410010523 5ustar jtnjtnshare/G/G0A070000644000175000017500000000061711566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG0A07 (A) What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure? A. A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels B. A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements share/G/G4B100000644000175000017500000000026511566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG4B10 (A) Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter? A. Standing wave ratio B. Antenna front-to-back ratio C. RF interference D. Radio wave propagation share/G/G3B080000644000175000017500000000043711566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG3B08 (B) What does MUF stand for? A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period D. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period share/G/G1A150000644000175000017500000000063311566750407011174 0ustar jtnjtnG1A15 (D) [97.303] What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30 or 60 meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact? A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the interference B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference D. Move to a clear frequency share/G/G7C070000644000175000017500000000040411566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG7C07 (C) What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver? A. RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator C. HF oscillator, mixer, detector D. HF oscillator, pre-scaler, audio amplifier share/G/G7A130000644000175000017500000000016611566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG7A13 (A) Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor? A. Symbol 7 B. Symbol 11 C. Symbol 6 D. Symbol 1 share/G/G4E100000644000175000017500000000073011566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG4E10 (B) What is the reason a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel? A. The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge B. The diode prevents self discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination C. The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value D. The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination share/G/G1E060000644000175000017500000000100211566750407011167 0ustar jtnjtnG1E06 (A) [97.205(c)] Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater? A. The licensee of the non-coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference B. The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference C. Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference D. The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference share/G/G5A090000644000175000017500000000012711566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG5A09 (B) What unit is used to measure reactance? A. Farad B. Ohm C. Ampere D. Siemens share/G/G0A100000644000175000017500000000070211566750410011155 0ustar jtnjtnG0A10 (D) What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna? A. Change from horizontal polarization to vertical polarization B. Change from horizontal polarization to circular polarization C. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio D. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction share/G/G7B140000644000175000017500000000044211566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG7B14 (B) Which of the following describes a linear amplifier? A. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform C. A Class C high efficiency amplifier D. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier share/G/G9B110000644000175000017500000000021011566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG9B11 (C) What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz? A. 42 feet B. 84 feet C. 131 feet D. 263 feet share/G/G4D020000644000175000017500000000037311566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG4D02 (B) Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal? A. It increases peak power B. It increases average power C. It reduces harmonic distortion D. It reduces intermodulation distortion share/G/G6C020000644000175000017500000000033211566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG6C02 (B) What is meant by the term MMIC? A. Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit B. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit C. Military-specification Manufactured Integrated Circuit D. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit share/G/G5B060000644000175000017500000000033511566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG5B06 (B) What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output? A. 1.4 watts B. 100 watts C. 353.5 watts D. 400 watts share/G/G1C060000644000175000017500000000030311566750407011170 0ustar jtnjtnG1C06 (D) [97.313] Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on 1.8 MHz band? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts PEP output C. 1200 watts PEP output D. 1500 watts PEP output share/G/G9B040000644000175000017500000000063311566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG9B04 (A) What is the low angle azimuthal radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole antenna installed 1/2 wavelength high and parallel to the Earth? A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna B. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna C. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions) D. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side share/G/G4E040000644000175000017500000000067411566750410011200 0ustar jtnjtnG4E04 (B) Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver from an automobile's auxiliary power socket? A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable B. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current being drawn by the transceiver C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat share/G/G5A020000644000175000017500000000046211566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG5A02 (B) What is reactance? A. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized share/G/G6C140000644000175000017500000000022411566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG6C14 (C) Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations? A. PL-259 B. BNC C. RCA Phono D. Type N share/G/G4B090000644000175000017500000000044611566750410011177 0ustar jtnjtnG4B09 (B) Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter? A. The radiation resistance of an antenna B. The radiation pattern of an antenna C. The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter D. The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter share/G/G4E070000644000175000017500000000044111566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG4E07 (D) Which of the following is the most likely to cause interfering signals to be heard in the receiver of an HF mobile installation in a recent model vehicle? A. The battery charging system B. The anti-lock braking system C. The anti-theft circuitry D. The vehicle control computer share/G/G4D060000644000175000017500000000017211566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG4D06 (A) Where is an S meter found? A. In a receiver B. In an SWR bridge C. In a transmitter D. In a conductance bridge share/G/G6A010000644000175000017500000000042211566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG6A01 (A) Which of the following is an important characteristic for capacitors used to filter the DC output of a switching power supply? A. Low equivalent series resistance B. High equivalent series resistance C. Low Temperature coefficient D. High Temperature coefficient share/G/G4E030000644000175000017500000000047411566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG4E03 (A) Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation? A. To the battery using heavy gauge wire B. To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire C. To the battery using resistor wire D. To the alternator or generator using resistor wire share/G/G8A110000644000175000017500000000101411566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG8A11 (A) What happens to the RF carrier signal when a modulating audio signal is applied to an FM transmitter? A. The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal B. The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the amplitude and frequency of the modulating signal C. The carrier amplitude changes proportionally to the instantaneous frequency of the modulating signal D. The carrier phase changes proportionally to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal share/G/G0A130000644000175000017500000000051511566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG0A13 (D) What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna? A. It should not be installed higher than you can reach B. It should not be installed in a wet area C. It should limited to 10 feet in height D. It should be installed so no one can be exposed to RF radiation in excess of maximum permissible limits share/G/G0A110000644000175000017500000000061511566750410011161 0ustar jtnjtnG0A11 (C) What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna? A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas D. No special precautions are necessary if SSB and CW are the only modes used share/G/G9D110000644000175000017500000000037211566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG9D11 (D) Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas? A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies B. They must be used with an antenna tuner C. They must be fed with open wire line D. They have poor harmonic rejection share/G/G1D010000644000175000017500000000070511566750407011172 0ustar jtnjtnG1D01 (C) [97.119(f)(2)] Which of the following is a proper way to identify when transmitting using phone on General Class frequencies if you have a CSCE for the required elements but your upgrade from Technician has not appeared in the FCC database? A. Give your call sign followed by the words "General Class" B. No special identification is needed C. Give your call sign followed by "slant AG" D. Give your call sign followed the abbreviation "CSCE" share/G/G2E110000644000175000017500000000033411566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG2E11 (B) What does the abbreviation "MFSK" stand for? A. Manual Frequency Shift Keying B. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying C. Manual Frequency Sideband Keying D. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying share/G/G2A070000644000175000017500000000065111566750407011176 0ustar jtnjtnG2A07 (B) Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband (SSB) voice mode? A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed C. SSB voice transmissions have higher average power than any other mode D. SSB is the only mode that is authorized on the 160, 75 and 40 meter amateur bands share/G/G8A070000644000175000017500000000025311566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG8A07 (A) Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth? A. Single sideband B. Double sideband C. Phase modulation D. Frequency modulation share/G/G3A010000644000175000017500000000047511566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG3A01 (A) What is the sunspot number? A. A measure of solar activity based on counting sunspots and sunspot groups B. A 3 digit identifier which is used to track individual sunspots C. A measure of the radio flux from the Sun measured at 10.7 cm D. A measure of the sunspot count based on radio flux measurements share/G/G9A050000644000175000017500000000034611566750410011176 0ustar jtnjtnG9A05 (B) How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases? A. It is independent of frequency B. It increases C. It decreases D. It reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz share/G/G0A020000644000175000017500000000035011566750410011155 0ustar jtnjtnG0A02 (D) Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)? A. Its duty cycle B. Its frequency C. Its power density D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G2C010000644000175000017500000000055511566750407011175 0ustar jtnjtnG2C01 (D) Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)? A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements share/G/G5A010000644000175000017500000000033711566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG5A01 (C) What is impedance? A. The electric charge stored by a capacitor B. The inverse of resistance C. The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit D. The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields share/G/G7B130000644000175000017500000000037311566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG7B13 (B) What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter? A. To limit the modulation index B. To eliminate self-oscillations C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods D. To keep the carrier on frequency share/G/G5C060000644000175000017500000000030011566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG5C06 (C) What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC? A. 2370 volts B. 540 volts C. 26.7 volts D. 5.9 volts share/G/G9C170000644000175000017500000000023411566750410011177 0ustar jtnjtnG9C17 (B) Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna? A. 1/4 wavelength B. 1/3 wavelength C. 1/2 wavelength D. 2/3 wavelength share/G/G4A130000644000175000017500000000052611566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG4A13 (A) What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers? A. To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries D. To slow down received CW signals for better copy share/G/G0A030000644000175000017500000000045211566750410011161 0ustar jtnjtnG0A03 (D) [97.13(c)(1)] How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations? A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65 B. By calculation based on computer modeling C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G5A040000644000175000017500000000023611566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG5A04 (C) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor? A. Conductance B. Reluctance C. Reactance D. Admittance share/G/G3C010000644000175000017500000000023211566750410011160 0ustar jtnjtnG3C01 (A) Which of the following ionospheric layers is closest to the surface of the Earth? A. The D layer B. The E layer C. The F1 layer D. The F2 layer share/G/G6C060000644000175000017500000000021411566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG6C06 (D) Which of the following describes an integrated circuit operational amplifier? A. Digital B. MMIC C. Programmable Logic D. Analog share/G/G8A060000644000175000017500000000045611566750410011200 0ustar jtnjtnG8A06 (C) What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single-sideband phone transmission? A. Audio fidelity is improved B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion C. The available transmitter power can be used more effectively D. Simpler receiving equipment can be used share/G/G4B060000644000175000017500000000033011566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG4B06 (C) What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter? A. Better for measuring computer circuits B. Better for RF measurements C. Better precision for most uses D. Faster response share/G/G4A010000644000175000017500000000051311566750410011161 0ustar jtnjtnG4A01 (B) What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers? A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band share/G/G5B040000644000175000017500000000022511566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG5B04 (A) How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes? A. 2.4 watts B. 24 watts C. 6 watts D. 60 watts share/G/G5A100000644000175000017500000000012311566750410011157 0ustar jtnjtnG5A10 (B) What unit is used to measure impedance? A. Volt B. Ohm C. Ampere D. Watt share/G/G4B040000644000175000017500000000046311566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG4B04 (D) What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal? A. The local oscillator of the transmitter B. An external RF oscillator C. The transmitter balanced mixer output D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter share/G/G2B100000644000175000017500000000060511566750407011170 0ustar jtnjtnG2B10 (D) [97.407(b)] When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES? A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications C. Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting D. When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked share/G/G1C070000644000175000017500000000030511566750407011173 0ustar jtnjtnG1C07 (D) [97.305(c), 97.307(f)(3)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20 meter band? A. 56 kilobaud B. 19.6 kilobaud C. 1200 baud D. 300 baud share/G/G7B020000644000175000017500000000051211566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG7B02 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals? A. Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent with an "on" or "off" state B. The binary number system is most accurate C. Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G5C080000644000175000017500000000032311566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG5C08 (D) What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5000 picofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel? A. 576.9 picofarads B. 1733 picofarads C. 3583 picofarads D. 10750 picofarads share/G/G9B030000644000175000017500000000036611566750410011177 0ustar jtnjtnG9B03 (B) What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping? A. It decreases B. It increases C. It stays the same D. It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees share/G/G7A100000644000175000017500000000016211566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG7A10 (D) Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode? A. Symbol 4 B. Symbol 1 C. Symbol 11 D. Symbol 5 share/G/G5C150000644000175000017500000000022311566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG5C15 (A) What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor in parallel? A. 5.9 ohms B. 0.17 ohms C. 10000 ohms D. 80 ohms share/G/G9A070000644000175000017500000000062311566750410011176 0ustar jtnjtnG9A07 (D) What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line? A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential B. The feed line must be cut to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long C. The feed line must be cut to an even number of physical half wavelengths long D. The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line share/G/G9C130000644000175000017500000000022611566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG9C13 (A) Approximately how long is each side of a quad antenna driven element? A. 1/4 wavelength B. 1/2 wavelength C. 3/4 wavelength D. 1 wavelength share/G/G0B080000644000175000017500000000052611566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG0B08 (B) What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices? A. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower B. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged C. Unground the base of the tower D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G6C090000644000175000017500000000034011566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG6C09 (A) Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display? A. It requires ambient or back lighting B. It offers a wide dynamic range C. It has a wide viewing angle D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G7C040000644000175000017500000000034011566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG7C04 (D) What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in a single-sideband receiver? A. RF oscillator B. IF filter C. Balanced modulator D. Product detector share/G/G7B040000644000175000017500000000043611566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG7B04 (C) Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate? A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low B. Output is high only when both inputs are high C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high D. Output is low only when both inputs are high share/G/G6C030000644000175000017500000000040011566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG6C03 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits? A. Low power consumption B. High power handling capability C. Better suited for RF amplification D. Better suited for power supply regulation share/G/G9A090000644000175000017500000000025011566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG9A09 (A) What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 200-ohm impedance? A. 4:1 B. 1:4 C. 2:1 D. 1:2 share/G/G4A120000644000175000017500000000055611566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG4A12 (C) Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver? A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once B. To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time C. To permit ease of monitoring the transmit and receive frequencies when they are not the same D. To facilitate computer interface share/G/G4B140000644000175000017500000000045611566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG4B14 (D) What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a numerical digital readout? A. When testing logic circuits B. When high precision is desired C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator D. When adjusting tuned circuits share/G/G6B020000644000175000017500000000040111566750410011161 0ustar jtnjtnG6B02 (A) What are two major ratings that must not be exceeded for silicon diode rectifiers? A. Peak inverse voltage; average forward current B. Average power; average voltage C. Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage D. Peak load impedance; peak voltage share/G/G1C030000644000175000017500000000031311566750407011166 0ustar jtnjtnG1C03 (A) [97.303s] What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations when transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60 meter band? A. 2.8 kHz B. 5.6 kHz C. 1.8 kHz D. 3 kHz share/G/G3A110000644000175000017500000000016011566750410011157 0ustar jtnjtnG3A11 (D) Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle? A. 8 minutes B. 40 hours C. 28 days D. 11 years share/G/G8B020000644000175000017500000000046011566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG8B02 (B) If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver? A. Quadrature noise B. Image response C. Mixer interference D. Intermediate interference share/G/G5B020000644000175000017500000000053611566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG5B02 (C) How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a parallel circuit? A. It equals the average of each branch current B. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit C. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch D. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop share/G/G2E040000644000175000017500000000026411566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG2E04 (B) What segment of the 20 meter band is most often used for data transmissions? A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz B. 14.070 - 14.100 MHz C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz share/G/G4D040000644000175000017500000000017411566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG4D04 (C) What does an S meter measure? A. Conductance B. Impedance C. Received signal strength D. Transmitter power output share/G/G9C150000644000175000017500000000034711566750410011202 0ustar jtnjtnG9C15 (B) Approximately how long is each side of a quad antenna reflector element? A. Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength B. Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength C. Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength D. Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength share/G/G3B050000644000175000017500000000060011566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG3B05 (A) What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) and above the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere? A. They are bent back to the Earth B. They pass through the ionosphere C. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth share/G/G1A020000644000175000017500000000020711566750407011165 0ustar jtnjtnG1A02 (B) [97.305] On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited? A. 160 meters B. 30 meters C. 17 meters D. 12 meters share/G/G2D090000644000175000017500000000036011566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG2D09 (D) What information is traditionally contained in a station log? A. Date and time of contact B. Band and/or frequency of the contact C. Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G1B040000644000175000017500000000111711566750407011171 0ustar jtnjtnG1B04 (A) [97.113(b)] Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public? A. The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event B. The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies C. The FCC must have declared a state of emergency D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G5C110000644000175000017500000000026411566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG5C11 (C) What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor in series with a 50 millihenry inductor? A. .07 millihenrys B. 14.3 millihenrys C. 70 millihenrys D. 1000 millihenrys share/G/G3B090000644000175000017500000000030111566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG3B09 (C) What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region? A. 180 miles B. 1,200 miles C. 2,500 miles D. 12,000 miles share/G/G8B090000644000175000017500000000041711566750410011201 0ustar jtnjtnG8B09 (D) Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode? A. It is required by FCC rules B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna D. It results in the best signal to noise ratio share/G/G8B120000644000175000017500000000041511566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG8B12 (B) What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth? A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related B. Higher symbol rates require higher bandwidth C. Lower symbol rates require higher bandwidth D. Bandwidth is constant for data mode signals share/G/G3C090000644000175000017500000000036311566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG3C09 (B) What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation? A. Faraday rotation B. Scatter C. Sporadic-E skip D. Short-path skip share/G/G4C010000644000175000017500000000030111566750410011156 0ustar jtnjtnG4C01 (B) Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio-frequency devices? A. Bypass inductor B. Bypass capacitor C. Forward-biased diode D. Reverse-biased diode share/G/G5C070000644000175000017500000000031711566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG5C07 (A) What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance? A. 12.2 to 1 B. 24.4 to 1 C. 150 to 1 D. 300 to 1 share/G/G9C200000644000175000017500000000045211566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG9C20 (B) How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi? A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher B. Approximately 3 dB higher C. Approximately 6 dB higher D. Approximately 9 dB higher share/G/G9B100000644000175000017500000000020611566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG9B10 (D) What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz? A. 8 feet B. 16 feet C. 24 feet D. 32 feet share/G/G6C110000644000175000017500000000047111566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG6C11 (B) What is a microprocessor? A. A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector B. A computer on a single integrated circuit C. A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit D. A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage share/G/G0B130000644000175000017500000000040611566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG0B13 (A) What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator? A. Disconnect the incoming utility power feed B. Insure that the generator is not grounded C. Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G4C080000644000175000017500000000045411566750410011176 0ustar jtnjtnG4C08 (A) Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable? A. Placing a ferrite bead around the cable B. Adding series capacitors to the conductors C. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors D. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable share/G/G2A090000644000175000017500000000056511566750407011204 0ustar jtnjtnG2A09 (D) Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160, 75 and 40 meter bands? A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector D. Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands share/G/G4B070000644000175000017500000000044511566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG4B07 (A) Which of the following might be a use for a field strength meter? A. Close-in radio direction-finding B. A modulation monitor for a frequency or phase modulation transmitter C. An overmodulation indicator for a SSB transmitter D. A keying indicator for a RTTY or packet transmitter share/G/G1B060000644000175000017500000000045211566750407011174 0ustar jtnjtnG1B06 (B) [97.113(a)(4) and 97.207(f)] When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes? A. During a declared communications emergency B. To control a space station C. Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature D. Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC share/G/G9A110000644000175000017500000000025111566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG9A11 (B) What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 50-ohm impedance? A. 2:1 B. 1:1 C. 50:50 D. 0:0 share/G/G5A080000644000175000017500000000045611566750410011177 0ustar jtnjtnG5A08 (A) Why is impedance matching important? A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal share/G/G7C010000644000175000017500000000034011566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG7C01 (B) Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator and send them to the mixer in a single-sideband phone transmitter? A. Carrier oscillator B. Filter C. IF amplifier D. RF amplifier share/G/G4D090000644000175000017500000000033411566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG4D09 (B) What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz? A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz C. 14.344 to 14.347 MHz D. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz share/G/G4D010000644000175000017500000000054711566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG4D01 (A) What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver? A. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals C. Prevent distortion of voice signals D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation share/G/G5C050000644000175000017500000000034111566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG5C05 (C) If three equal value resistors in parallel produce 50 ohms of resistance, and the same three resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor? A. 1500 ohms B. 90 ohms C. 150 ohms D. 175 ohms share/G/G4B020000644000175000017500000000036711566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG4B02 (D) Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter? A. An oscilloscope uses less power B. Complex impedances can be easily measured C. Input impedance is much lower D. Complex waveforms can be measured share/G/G3C060000644000175000017500000000032011566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG3C06 (B) What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals? A. They have high intelligibility B. They have a wavering sound C. They have very large swings in signal strength D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G2D040000644000175000017500000000063111566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG2D04 (B) Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map? A. A world map that shows accurate land masses B. A world map projection centered on a particular location C. A world map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator D. A world map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit share/G/G5B100000644000175000017500000000020111566750410011155 0ustar jtnjtnG5B10 (C) What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB? A. 10.9% B. 12.2% C. 20.5% D. 25.9% share/G/G1C040000644000175000017500000000066511566750407011201 0ustar jtnjtnG1C04 (A) [97.313] Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 14 MHz band? A. Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used B. Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz C. Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency D. Effective radiated power cannot exceed 3000 watts share/G/G3B070000644000175000017500000000044111566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG3B07 (A) What does LUF stand for? A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points B. The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period D. The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period share/G/G1E100000644000175000017500000000034311566750407011171 0ustar jtnjtnG1E10 (D) [97.205(b)] What portion of the 10 meter band is available for repeater use? A. The entire band B. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz C. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz D. The portion above 29.5 MHz share/G/G3A140000644000175000017500000000040411566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG3A14 (B) How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes? A. HF communications are improved B. HF communications are disturbed C. VHF/UHF ducting is improved D. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed share/G/G0B140000644000175000017500000000033711566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG0B14 (C) Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code? A. Acceptable bandwidth limits B. Acceptable modulation limits C. Electrical safety inside the ham shack D. RF exposure limits of the human body share/G/G4A080000644000175000017500000000053111566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG4A08 (D) What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier? A. Minimum SWR on the antenna B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current D. Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current share/G/G3C020000644000175000017500000000033611566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG3C02 (A) Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height? A. Where the Sun is overhead B. Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth C. Where the Sun is rising D. Where the Sun has just set share/G/G3A130000644000175000017500000000041711566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG3A13 (C) What does the A-index indicate? A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun B. The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field C. The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado share/G/G2A050000644000175000017500000000027711566750407011200 0ustar jtnjtnG2A05 (C) Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the high frequency amateur bands? A. Frequency modulation B. Double sideband C. Single sideband D. Phase modulation share/G/G9D080000644000175000017500000000035511566750410011204 0ustar jtnjtnG9D08 (B) Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting? A. Its impedance is too low for effective matching B. It has high losses compared to other types of antennas C. It has poor directivity D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G9C010000644000175000017500000000032211566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG9C01 (A) Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna? A. Larger diameter elements B. Closer element spacing C. Loading coils in series with the element D. Tapered-diameter elements share/G/G0B090000644000175000017500000000060411566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG0B09 (D) Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods? A. The resistance of solder is too high B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection D. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike share/G/G3A090000644000175000017500000000051511566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG3A09 (C) What effect do high sunspot numbers have on radio communications? A. High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted B. Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication C. Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced D. Microwave communications become unstable share/G/G2A030000644000175000017500000000027411566750407011173 0ustar jtnjtnG2A03 (A) Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands? A. Upper sideband B. Lower sideband C. Vestigial sideband D. Double sideband share/G/G4E010000644000175000017500000000053011566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG4E01 (C) What is a "capacitance hat", when referring to a mobile antenna? A. A device to increase the power handling capacity of a mobile whip antenna B. A device that allows automatic band-changing for a mobile antenna C. A device to electrically lengthen a physically short antenna D. A device that allows remote tuning of a mobile antenna share/G/G1A030000644000175000017500000000021311566750407011163 0ustar jtnjtnG1A03 (B) [97.305] On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited? A. 160 meters B. 30 meters C. 20 meters D. 12 meters share/G/G5B090000644000175000017500000000020711566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG5B09 (B) What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak? A. 8.5 volts B. 12 volts C. 24 volts D. 34 volts share/G/G6C050000644000175000017500000000042111566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG6C05 (C) What is meant when memory is characterized as "non-volatile"? A. It is resistant to radiation damage B. It is resistant to high temperatures C. The stored information is maintained even if power is removed D. The stored information cannot be changed once written share/G/G9D100000644000175000017500000000036411566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG9D10 (D) Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna? A. A vertical antenna constructed from beverage cans B. A broad-band mobile antenna C. A helical antenna for space reception D. A very long and low directional receiving antenna share/G/G4B160000644000175000017500000000041211566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG4B16 (B) What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test? A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90-degrees B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals C. Two swept frequency tones D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude share/G/G8A120000644000175000017500000000043211566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG8A12 (A) What signal(s) would be found at the output of a properly adjusted balanced modulator? A. Both upper and lower sidebands B. Either upper or lower sideband, but not both C. Both upper and lower sidebands and the carrier D. The modulating signal and the unmodulated carrier share/G/G4E020000644000175000017500000000045511566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG4E02 (D) What is the purpose of a "corona ball" on a HF mobile antenna? A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna B. To increase the "Q" of the antenna C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object D. To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna share/G/G7C020000644000175000017500000000037211566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG7C02 (D) Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier and send the result to the filter in a typical single-sideband phone transmitter? A. Discriminator B. Detector C. IF amplifier D. Balanced modulator share/G/G0B070000644000175000017500000000063511566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG0B07 (B) Which of the following should be observed for safety when climbing on a tower using a safety belt or harness? A. Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight B. Always attach the belt safety hook to the belt D-ring with the hook opening away from the tower C. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring D. Make sure that your belt is grounded at all times share/G/G1E090000644000175000017500000000054311566750407011203 0ustar jtnjtnG1E09 (C) [97.119(b)(2)] What language must you use when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission? A. The language being used for the contact B. Any language if the US has a third party agreement with that country C. English D. Any language of a country that is a member of the ITU share/G/G6A130000644000175000017500000000036611566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG6A13 (B) What is an effect of inter-turn capacitance in an inductor? A. The magnetic field may become inverted B. The inductor may become self resonant at some frequencies C. The permeability will increase D. The voltage rating may be exceeded share/G/G5A060000644000175000017500000000052111566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG5A06 (A) How does a capacitor react to AC? A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases share/G/G0B110000644000175000017500000000053411566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG0B11 (D) Which of the following is good engineering practice for lightning protection grounds? A. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines B. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle C. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring D. They must be bonded together with all other grounds share/G/G2C100000644000175000017500000000016711566750407011174 0ustar jtnjtnG2C10 (B) What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean? A. Slow down B. Send faster C. Zero beat my signal D. Quitting operation share/G/G1B050000644000175000017500000000054011566750407011171 0ustar jtnjtnG1B05 (D) [97.113(a)(5),(e)] When may music be transmitted by an amateur station? A. At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions B. When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter C. When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz D. When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission share/G/G8A050000644000175000017500000000030011566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG8A05 (D) What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal? A. Frequency shift keying B. Pulse position modulation C. Frequency modulation D. Amplitude modulation share/G/G5A070000644000175000017500000000045311566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG5A07 (D) What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal impedance of the power source? A. The source delivers minimum power to the load B. The electrical load is shorted C. No current can flow through the circuit D. The source can deliver maximum power to the load share/G/G3C100000644000175000017500000000061211566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG3C10 (D) Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation? A. The communication is during a sunspot maximum B. The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance C. The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency D. The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency share/G/G9A120000644000175000017500000000031511566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG9A12 (A) What would be the SWR if you feed a vertical antenna that has a 25-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable? A. 2:1 B. 2.5:1 C. 1.25:1 D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values share/G/G7B070000644000175000017500000000041611566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG7B07 (D) What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators? A. An amplifier and a divider B. A frequency multiplier and a mixer C. A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop D. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop share/G/G9A080000644000175000017500000000056611566750410011205 0ustar jtnjtnG9A08 (B) If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line? A. 1 to 1 B. 5 to 1 C. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line D. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter share/G/G1A010000644000175000017500000000042411566750407011165 0ustar jtnjtnG1A01 (C) [97.301(d), 97.303(s)] On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges? A. 60, 20, 17, and 12 meters B. 160, 80, 40, and 10 meters C. 160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters D. 160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters share/G/G2E090000644000175000017500000000045611566750410011201 0ustar jtnjtnG2E09 (D) In what segment of the 20 meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found? A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz B. At the top of the SSB phone segment near 14.325 MHz C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz share/G/G8B080000644000175000017500000000053011566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG8B08 (B) Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the data mode you are using when transmitting? A. To aid in tuning your transmitter B. Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating. C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G1B110000644000175000017500000000052011566750407011164 0ustar jtnjtnG1B11 (C) [97.101(a)] How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules? A. In conformance with the rules of the IARU B. In conformance with Amateur Radio custom C. In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G5A050000644000175000017500000000052111566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG5A05 (D) How does an inductor react to AC? A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases share/G/G1C080000644000175000017500000000030511566750407011174 0ustar jtnjtnG1C08 (D) [97.307(f)(3)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz? A. 56 kilobaud B. 19.6 kilobaud C. 1200 baud D. 300 baud share/G/G1D060000644000175000017500000000103711566750407011176 0ustar jtnjtnG1D06 (A) [97.119(f)(2)] When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its Web site? A. Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges B. Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC share/G/G3B030000644000175000017500000000046711566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG3B03 (A) Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF? A. Select a frequency just below the MUF B. Select a frequency just above the LUF C. Select a frequency just below the critical frequency D. Select a frequency just above the critical frequency share/G/G7B060000644000175000017500000000034211566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG7B06 (A) What is a shift register? A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri state arithmetic operations C. A digital mixer D. An analog mixer share/G/G1A040000644000175000017500000000031011566750407011162 0ustar jtnjtnG1A04 (D) [97.303 (s)] Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges? A. 11 meters B. 12 meters C. 30 meters D. 60 meters share/G/G2C020000644000175000017500000000022011566750407011163 0ustar jtnjtnG2C02 (A) What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"? A. Send slower B. Change frequency C. Increase your power D. Repeat everything twice share/G/G6C070000644000175000017500000000024211566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG6C07 (D) What is one disadvantage of an incandescent indicator compared to an LED? A. Low power consumption B. High speed C. Long life D. High power consumption share/G/G8B030000644000175000017500000000020411566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG8B03 (A) What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals? A. Heterodyning B. Synthesizing C. Cancellation D. Phase inverting share/G/G9B080000644000175000017500000000044611566750410011203 0ustar jtnjtnG9B08 (A) How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed-point location is moved from the center toward the ends? A. It steadily increases B. It steadily decreases C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point share/G/G7A070000644000175000017500000000046611566750410011201 0ustar jtnjtnG7A07 (A) What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load? A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input D. A steady DC voltage share/G/G5B030000644000175000017500000000022611566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG5B03 (B) How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load? A. 0.5 watts B. 200 watts C. 400 watts D. 3200 watts share/G/G6B090000644000175000017500000000047411566750410011202 0ustar jtnjtnG6B09 (B) Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET? A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction B. The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon share/G/G9B120000644000175000017500000000020611566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG9B12 (A) What is the approximate length for a 1/4-wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz? A. 8 feet B. 11 feet C. 16 feet D. 21 feet share/G/G7B050000644000175000017500000000012211566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG7B05 (C) How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have? A. 3 B. 6 C. 8 D. 16 share/G/G5C030000644000175000017500000000032711566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG5C03 (B) Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance? A. A resistor in parallel B. A resistor in series C. A capacitor in series D. A capacitor in parallel share/G/G9D010000644000175000017500000000032711566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG9D01 (D) What does the term "NVIS" mean as related to antennas? A. Nearly Vertical Inductance System B. Non-Visible Installation Specification C. Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing D. Near Vertical Incidence Sky wave share/G/G1C010000644000175000017500000000031511566750407011166 0ustar jtnjtnG1C01 (A) [97.313(c)(1)] What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts PEP output C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts PEP output share/G/G6B070000644000175000017500000000044211566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG6B07 (A) What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit? A. Its saturation and cut-off regions B. Its active region (between the cut-off and saturation regions) C. Its peak and valley current points D. Its enhancement and deletion modes share/G/G1E070000644000175000017500000000063511566750407011203 0ustar jtnjtnG1E07 (C) [97.115(a)(2)] With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications? A. Countries in ITU Region 2 B. Countries in ITU Region 1 C. Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country D. Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU) share/G/G2D060000644000175000017500000000033011566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG2D06 (C) How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station? A. Toward the rising Sun B. Along the gray line C. 180 degrees from its short-path heading D. Toward the north share/G/G3B010000644000175000017500000000046311566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG3B01 (D) How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation? A. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB C. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation D. A well-defined echo might be heard share/G/G2A100000644000175000017500000000034111566750407011164 0ustar jtnjtnG2A10 (B) Which of the following statements is true of SSB VOX operation? A. The received signal is more natural sounding B. VOX allows "hands free" operation C. Frequency spectrum is conserved D. Provides more power output share/G/G1A080000644000175000017500000000025511566750407011176 0ustar jtnjtnG1A08 (C) [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20 meter phone band? A. 14005 kHz B. 14105 kHz C. 14305 kHz D. 14405 kHz share/G/G4B050000644000175000017500000000037611566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG4B05 (D) Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter? A. It improves the frequency response B. It decreases battery consumption in the meter C. It improves the resolution of the readings D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured share/G/G0A120000644000175000017500000000042411566750410011160 0ustar jtnjtnG0A12 (B) What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna? A. Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded B. Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line C. Wear a radiation badge D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G7B110000644000175000017500000000025311566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG7B11 (B) For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal? A. SSB B. CW C. AM D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G2A060000644000175000017500000000052611566750407011176 0ustar jtnjtnG2A06 (B) Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands? A. Very high fidelity voice modulation B. Less bandwidth used and higher power efficiency C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise D. Less subject to static crashes (atmospherics) share/G/G4C100000644000175000017500000000054411566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG4C10 (A) What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station? A. You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station share/G/G4D030000644000175000017500000000030411566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG4D03 (D) Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor? A. Distorted speech B. Splatter C. Excessive background pickup D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G4A050000644000175000017500000000040711566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG4A05 (C) What is a purpose of using Automatic Level Control (ALC) with a RF power amplifier? A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response B. To reduce harmonic radiation C. To reduce distortion due to excessive drive D. To increase overall efficiency share/G/G1C020000644000175000017500000000047411566750407011175 0ustar jtnjtnG1C02 (C) [97.313(a),(b)] What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12 meter band? A. 1500 PEP output, except for 200 watts PEP output in the Novice portion B. 200 watts PEP output C. 1500 watts PEP output D. An effective radiated power equivalent to 50 watts from a half-wave dipole share/G/G7A090000644000175000017500000000017511566750410011200 0ustar jtnjtnG7A09 (C) Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor? A. Symbol 2 B. Symbol 5 C. Symbol 1 D. Symbol 4 share/G/G6C080000644000175000017500000000020111566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG6C08 (D) How is an LED biased when emitting light? A. Beyond cutoff B. At the Zener voltage C. Reverse Biased D. Forward Biased share/G/G6B110000644000175000017500000000032011566750410011161 0ustar jtnjtnG6B11 (B) Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics? A. A bipolar transistor B. A Field Effect Transistor C. A tunnel diode D. A varistor share/G/G9C020000644000175000017500000000023011566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG9C02 (B) What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna? A. 1/4 wavelength B. 1/2 wavelength C. 3/4 wavelength D. 1 wavelength share/G/G2B110000644000175000017500000000053211566750407011170 0ustar jtnjtnG2B11 (A) [97.405] What frequency should be used to send a distress call? A. Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message B. Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations C. Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges D. Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services share/G/G1B010000644000175000017500000000042611566750407011170 0ustar jtnjtnG1B01 (C) [97.15(a)] What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport? A. 50 feet B. 100 feet C. 200 feet D. 300 feet share/G/G5A120000644000175000017500000000033311566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG5A12 (B) What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer? A. To minimize transmitter power output B. To maximize the transfer of power C. To reduce power supply ripple D. To minimize radiation resistance share/G/G1D100000644000175000017500000000026011566750407011166 0ustar jtnjtnG1D10 (B) [97.509(b)(2)] What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner? A. 12 years B. 18 years C. 21 years D. There is no age limit share/G/G4C090000644000175000017500000000041611566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG4C09 (D) How can a ground loop be avoided? A. Connect all ground conductors in series B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections D. Connect all ground conductors to a single point share/G/G8A010000644000175000017500000000031211566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG8A01 (D) What is the name of the process that changes the envelope of an RF wave to carry information? A. Phase modulation B. Frequency modulation C. Spread spectrum modulation D. Amplitude modulation share/G/G5A130000644000175000017500000000031111566750410011161 0ustar jtnjtnG5A13 (D) Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies? A. A transformer B. A Pi-network C. A length of transmission line D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G2B060000644000175000017500000000075111566750407011177 0ustar jtnjtnG2B06 (A) What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ on CW or phone? A. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ C. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response D. Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use", then send your call and listen for a response share/G/G9D070000644000175000017500000000052711566750410011204 0ustar jtnjtnG9D07 (A) Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna? A. Length and spacing of the elements increases logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other B. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency C. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency D. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length share/G/G2E060000644000175000017500000000020611566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG2E06 (B) What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands? A. 85 Hz B. 170 Hz C. 425 Hz D. 850 Hz share/G/G2E050000644000175000017500000000036011566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG2E05 (C) Which of the following describes Baudot code? A. A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits B. A code using error detection and correction C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits D. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN share/G/G6B130000644000175000017500000000024411566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG6B13 (B) What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries? A. Long life B. High discharge current C. High voltage D. Rapid recharge share/G/G8B010000644000175000017500000000030611566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG8B01 (A) What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal? A. Mixer B. BFO C. VFO D. Discriminator share/G/G2E070000644000175000017500000000024511566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG2E07 (B) What does the abbreviation "RTTY" stand for? A. Returning to you B. Radioteletype C. A general call to all digital stations D. Repeater transmission type share/G/G6B140000644000175000017500000000024611566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG6B14 (C) What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery? A. 6 volts B. 8.5 volts C. 10.5 volts D. 12 volts share/G/G9B090000644000175000017500000000036011566750410011177 0ustar jtnjtnG9B09 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to vertically polarized HF antenna? A. Lower ground reflection losses B. Lower feed-point impedance C. Shorter Radials D. Lower radiation resistance share/G/G5B140000644000175000017500000000033411566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG5B14 (B) What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output? A. 8.75 watts B. 625 watts C. 2500 watts D. 5000 watts share/G/G5C010000644000175000017500000000037611566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG5C01 (C) What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding? A. Capacitive coupling B. Displacement current coupling C. Mutual inductance D. Mutual capacitance share/G/G3A120000644000175000017500000000037611566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG3A12 (B) What does the K-index indicate? A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun B. The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field C. The stability of the Sun's magnetic field D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado share/G/G8A030000644000175000017500000000032011566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG8A03 (D) What is the name of the process which changes the frequency of an RF wave to convey information? A. Frequency convolution B. Frequency transformation C. Frequency conversion D. Frequency modulation share/G/G4D100000644000175000017500000000054211566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG4D10 (A) How close to the lower edge of the 40 meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB? A. 3 kHz above the edge of the segment B. 3 kHz below the edge of the segment C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment D. Center your signal on the edge of the segment share/G/G4C060000644000175000017500000000032111566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG4C06 (C) What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection? A. Overheating of ground straps B. Corrosion of the ground rod C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment D. A ground loop share/G/G9C140000644000175000017500000000033111566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG9C14 (B) How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna? A. About 2/3 as much B. About the same C. About 1.5 times as much D. About twice as much share/G/G4B130000644000175000017500000000050211566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG4B13 (C) What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system? A. Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna B. Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer C. Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable D. Determining the gain of a directional antenna share/G/G4B010000644000175000017500000000024111566750410011160 0ustar jtnjtnG4B01 (D) What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers? A. An ohmmeter B. A signal generator C. An ammeter D. An oscilloscope share/G/G9C070000644000175000017500000000060511566750410011200 0ustar jtnjtnG9C07 (C) What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna? A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain share/G/G9B020000644000175000017500000000043511566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG9B02 (D) What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a quarter wave ground-plane antenna? A. They lower the radiation angle B. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms C. They increase the radiation angle D. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms share/G/G6C100000644000175000017500000000032411566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG6C10 (A) What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface? A. Computer and transceiver B. Microphone and transceiver C. Amplifier and antenna D. Power supply and amplifier share/G/G1E030000644000175000017500000000033411566750407011173 0ustar jtnjtnG1E03 (B) [97.301(d)] In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC-issued General Class license? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. All three regions share/G/G6C160000644000175000017500000000043111566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG6C16 (A) Which of the following describes a type-N connector? A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz B. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits C. A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems D. An audio connector used in surround-sound installations share/G/G6C010000644000175000017500000000022311566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG6C01 (D) Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit? A. NAND Gate B. Microprocessor C. Frequency Counter D. Linear voltage regulator share/G/G7A110000644000175000017500000000017711566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG7A11 (B) Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 7 D. Symbol 11 share/G/G0B150000644000175000017500000000047511566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG0B15 (A) Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation? A. The generator should be located in a well ventilated area B. The generator should be insulated from ground C. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G8B040000644000175000017500000000034611566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG8B04 (D) What is the name of the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency? A. Mixer B. Reactance modulator C. Pre-emphasis network D. Multiplier share/G/G1C100000644000175000017500000000031011566750407011161 0ustar jtnjtnG1C10 (C) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(4)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10 meter band? A. 56 kilobaud B. 19.6 kilobaud C. 1200 baud D. 300 baud share/G/G0A010000644000175000017500000000032611566750410011157 0ustar jtnjtnG0A01 (A) What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue? A. It heats body tissue B. It causes radiation poisoning C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level D. It cools body tissue share/G/G7A030000644000175000017500000000052511566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG7A03 (D) What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply? A. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply C. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply D. Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply share/G/G2E120000644000175000017500000000040511566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG2E12 (B) How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors? A. Terminates the contact B. Requests the packet be retransmitted C. Sends the packet back to the transmitting station D. Requests a change in transmitting protocol share/G/G0B020000644000175000017500000000030411566750410011155 0ustar jtnjtnG0B02 (C) What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current? A. AWG number 20 B. AWG number 16 C. AWG number 12 D. AWG number 8 share/G/G2E010000644000175000017500000000020011566750410011154 0ustar jtnjtnG2E01 (D) Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter? A. USB B. DSB C. CW D. LSB share/G/G6C170000644000175000017500000000051511566750410011176 0ustar jtnjtnG6C17 (C) What is the general description of a DIN type connector? A. A special connector for microwave interfacing B. A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes C. A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals D. A special watertight connector for use in marine applications share/G/G2C040000644000175000017500000000032511566750407011173 0ustar jtnjtnG2C04 (D) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission? A. Keep frequency clear B. Operating full break-in C. Listening only for a specific station or stations D. Closing station share/G/G9C110000644000175000017500000000042111566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG9C11 (A) What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas? A. To match the relatively low feed-point impedance to 50 ohms B. To match the relatively high feed-point impedance to 50 ohms C. To increase the front to back ratio D. To increase the main lobe gain share/G/G7C030000644000175000017500000000033511566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG7C03 (C) What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator and send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver? A. Balanced modulator B. IF amplifier C. Mixer D. Detector share/G/G0A090000644000175000017500000000045211566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG0A09 (B) What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field? A. A receiver with an S meter B. A calibrated field-strength meter with a calibrated antenna C. A betascope with a dummy antenna calibrated at 50 ohms D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator share/G/G3C110000644000175000017500000000046311566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG3C11 (B) Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40 meters during the day? A. Vertical antennas B. Horizontal dipoles placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground C. Left-hand circularly polarized antennas D. Right-hand circularly polarized antenna share/G/G6C150000644000175000017500000000036211566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG6C15 (B) What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types? A. Prevention of use by unauthorized persons B. Reduced chance of incorrect mating C. Higher current carrying capacity D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G6A100000644000175000017500000000026311566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG6A10 (C) How should the winding axes of solenoid inductors be placed to minimize their mutual inductance? A. In line B. Parallel to each other C. At right angles D. Interleaved share/G/G5A110000644000175000017500000000045111566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG5A11 (A) Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits? A. Insert an LC network between the two circuits B. Reduce the power output of the first circuit C. Increase the power output of the first circuit D. Insert a circulator between the two circuits share/G/G5B050000644000175000017500000000033211566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG5B05 (A) How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms? A. Approximately 61 milliwatts B. Approximately 61 watts C. Approximately 11 milliwatts D. Approximately 11 watts share/G/G9C100000644000175000017500000000046711566750410011200 0ustar jtnjtnG9C10 (D) Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth? A. The physical length of the boom B. The number of elements on the boom C. The spacing of each element along the boom D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G0B160000644000175000017500000000032011566750410011160 0ustar jtnjtnG0B16 (C) When might a lead acid storage battery give off explosive hydrogen gas? A. When stored for long periods of time B. When being discharged C. When being charged D. When not placed on a level surface share/G/G2C070000644000175000017500000000031411566750407011174 0ustar jtnjtnG2C07 (A) When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report? A. Chirpy or unstable signal B. Report was read from S meter reading rather than estimated C. 100 percent copy D. Key clicks share/G/G6A050000644000175000017500000000037711566750410011177 0ustar jtnjtnG6A05 (A) Which of the following is one effect of lead inductance in a capacitor used at VHF and above? A. Effective capacitance may be reduced B. Voltage rating may be reduced C. ESR may be reduced D. The polarity of the capacitor might become reversed share/G/G1E040000644000175000017500000000064011566750407011174 0ustar jtnjtnG1E04 (D) [97.13(b),97.311(b),97.303] Which of the following conditions require an Amateur Radio station licensee to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities? A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station B. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G1D030000644000175000017500000000070511566750407011174 0ustar jtnjtnG1D03 (C) [97.9(b)] On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges? A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted on the FCC database B. Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail C. On any General or Technician Class band segment D. On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30 and 60 meters share/G/G6B150000644000175000017500000000037611566750410011200 0ustar jtnjtnG6B15 (D) When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell? A. As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt B. When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period C. When a constant current charger is used D. Never share/G/G1A070000644000175000017500000000025111566750407011171 0ustar jtnjtnG1A07 (C) [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75 meter phone band? A. 1875 kHz B. 3750 kHz C. 3900 kHz D. 4005 kHz share/G/G9C080000644000175000017500000000050511566750410011200 0ustar jtnjtnG9C08 (D) What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna? A. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna share/G/G2B010000644000175000017500000000045411566750407011172 0ustar jtnjtnG2B01 (C) Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies? A. Nets always have priority B. QSO's in process always have priority C. No one has priority access to frequencies, common courtesy should be a guide D. Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies share/G/G2B070000644000175000017500000000056311566750407011201 0ustar jtnjtnG2B07 (C) Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call? A. Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station B. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times C. Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G8B060000644000175000017500000000024211566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG8B06 (D) What is the total bandwidth of an FM-phone transmission having a 5 kHz deviation and a 3 kHz modulating frequency? A. 3 kHz B. 5 kHz C. 8 kHz D. 16 kHz share/G/G5C040000644000175000017500000000020111566750410011161 0ustar jtnjtnG5C04 (C) What is the total resistance of three 100-ohm resistors in parallel? A. .30 ohms B. .33 ohms C. 33.3 ohms D. 300 ohms share/G/G1A090000644000175000017500000000024411566750407011175 0ustar jtnjtnG1A09 (C) [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80 meter band? A. 1855 kHz B. 2560 kHz C. 3560 kHz D. 3650 kHz share/G/G3C050000644000175000017500000000055111566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG3C05 (C) Why is long distance communication on the 40, 60, 80 and 160 meter bands more difficult during the day? A. The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours B. The F layer is unstable during daylight hours C. The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours D. The E layer is unstable during daylight hours share/G/G1D070000644000175000017500000000035411566750407011200 0ustar jtnjtnG1D07 (C) [97.509(b)(1)] Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization? A. The Federal Communications Commission B. The Universal Licensing System C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau share/G/G6C120000644000175000017500000000020411566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG6C12 (D) Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port? A. PL-259 B. Type N C. Type SMA D. DE-9 share/G/G7B010000644000175000017500000000026211566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG7B01 (A) Complex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit? A. Microcontroller B. Charge-coupled device C. Phase detector D. Window comparator share/G/G3C080000644000175000017500000000057011566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG3C08 (A) Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak? A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector C. Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy D. Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy share/G/G2B030000644000175000017500000000060611566750407011173 0ustar jtnjtnG2B03 (C) If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do? A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency B. Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator C. As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency D. Increase power to overcome interference share/G/G9D020000644000175000017500000000050511566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG9D02 (B) Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna? A. Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers B. High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers C. High forward gain D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G1C110000644000175000017500000000030711566750407011170 0ustar jtnjtnG1C11 (B) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(5)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2 meter band? A. 56 kilobaud B. 19.6 kilobaud C. 1200 baud D. 300 baud share/G/G2A020000644000175000017500000000031011566750407011161 0ustar jtnjtnG2A02 (B) Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands? A. Upper sideband B. Lower sideband C. Vestigial sideband D. Double sideband share/G/G1B070000644000175000017500000000043411566750407011175 0ustar jtnjtnG1B07 (B) [97.113(a)(4)] What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service? A. Only "Q" codes are permitted B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message C. They are not permitted D. Only "10 codes" are permitted share/G/G7A040000644000175000017500000000052111566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG7A04 (D) What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply? A. One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply B. One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply D. Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply share/G/G7C090000644000175000017500000000033411566750410011177 0ustar jtnjtnG7C09 (D) Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter? A. An analog to digital converter B. A digital to analog converter C. A digital processor chip D. All of the these choices are correct share/G/G1B080000644000175000017500000000057311566750407011202 0ustar jtnjtnG1B08 (D) When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice? A. Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted frequencies and emissions? B. Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community. C. Before transmitting, listen to avoid interfering with ongoing communication D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G8A090000644000175000017500000000034611566750410011201 0ustar jtnjtnG8A09 (B) What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver? A. The RF clipping level B. Transmit audio or microphone gain C. Antenna inductance or capacitance D. Attenuator level share/G/G5B010000644000175000017500000000026111566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG5B01 (B) A two-times increase or decrease in power results in a change of how many dB? A. Approximately 2 dB B. Approximately 3 dB C. Approximately 6 dB D. Approximately 12 dB share/G/G1D080000644000175000017500000000066411566750407011205 0ustar jtnjtnG1D08 (B) [97.509(b)(3)] Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner? A. The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years B. The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above C. The person's home citizenship must be in the ITU 2 region D. None of these choices is correct; non-U.S. citizens cannot be volunteer examiners share/G/G6B120000644000175000017500000000032611566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG6B12 (A) What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube? A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance B. To increase efficiency C. To increase the control grid resistance D. To decrease plate resistance share/G/G1E080000644000175000017500000000075311566750407011205 0ustar jtnjtnG1E08 (B) [97.115(a)(b)] Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC granted license at which a licensed control operator is present? A. Information must be exchanged in English B. The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement C. The control operator must have at least a General Class license D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G3A050000644000175000017500000000047611566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG3A05 (D) [Modified} What is the solar-flux index? A. A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth B. A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions C. Another name for the American sunspot number D. A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 cm share/G/G2D020000644000175000017500000000052511566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG2D02 (B) Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary? A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations B. To encourage amateur self regulation and compliance with the rules C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage D. To provide emergency and public safety communications share/G/G9C060000644000175000017500000000067411566750410011205 0ustar jtnjtnG9C06 (C) Which of the following is a reason why a Yagi antenna is often used for radio communications on the 20 meter band? A. It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or vertical antenna C. It helps reduce interference from other stations to the side or behind the antenna D. It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands share/G/G9A100000644000175000017500000000025011566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG9A10 (D) What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 10-ohm impedance? A. 2:1 B. 50:1 C. 1:5 D. 5:1 share/G/G4E110000644000175000017500000000066411566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG4E11 (C) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station? A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G6C130000644000175000017500000000021711566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG6C13 (C) Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF service at frequencies up to 150 MHz? A. Octal B. RJ-11 C. PL-259 D. DB-25 share/G/G1B120000644000175000017500000000037011566750407011170 0ustar jtnjtnG1B12 (A) [97.101(a)] Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules? A. The FCC B. The Control Operator C. The IEEE D. The ITU share/G/G2C050000644000175000017500000000043211566750407011173 0ustar jtnjtnG2C05 (B) What is the best speed to use answering a CQ in Morse Code? A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying B. The speed at which the CQ was sent C. A slow speed until contact is established D. 5 wpm, as all operators licensed to operate CW can copy this speed share/G/G8B110000644000175000017500000000047511566750410011176 0ustar jtnjtnG8B11 (C) How does forward error correction allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets? A. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength B. By using the varicode character set C. By transmitting redundant information with the data D. By using a parity bit with each character share/G/G4B110000644000175000017500000000032311566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG4B11 (C) Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements? A. Receiver B. Transmitter C. Antenna and feed line D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G6B010000644000175000017500000000043411566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG6B01 (C) What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a rectifier? A. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the conducting direction B. 1.4 times the AC frequency C. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the non-conducting direction D. 2.8 times the AC frequency share/G/G1D090000644000175000017500000000032011566750407011173 0ustar jtnjtnG1D09 (C) [97.9(b)] How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit? A. 30 days B. 180 days C. 365 days D. For as long as your current license is valid share/G/G1B100000644000175000017500000000024111566750407011163 0ustar jtnjtnG1B10 (C) [97.203(c)] What is the power limit for beacon stations? A. 10 watts PEP output B. 20 watts PEP output C. 100 watts PEP output D. 200 watts PEP output share/G/G7C060000644000175000017500000000037011566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG7C06 (B) What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted? A. Substantially higher B. About the same C. Substantially lower D. Twice the transmission line impedance share/G/G1C050000644000175000017500000000030611566750407011172 0ustar jtnjtnG1C05 (C) [97.313] Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band? A. 100 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts PEP output C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts PEP output share/G/G1A130000644000175000017500000000021111566750407011162 0ustar jtnjtnG1A13 (D) [97.303] Which, if any, amateur band is shared with the Citizens Radio Service? A. 10 meters B. 12 meters C. 15 meters D. None share/G/G3B020000644000175000017500000000050711566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG3B02 (A) Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6 meter band? A. Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band B. Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band C. Severe attenuation of signals on the 10 meter band D. Long delayed echoes on the 10 meter band share/G/G2B050000644000175000017500000000031711566750407011174 0ustar jtnjtnG2B05 (B) What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions? A. Between 150 and 500 Hz B. Approximately 3 kHz C. Approximately 6 kHz D. Approximately 10 kHz share/G/G2E100000644000175000017500000000044511566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG2E10 (D) What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes? A. It is much higher speed than RTTY B. It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes C. It has built-in error correction D. It offers good performance in weak signal environments without error correction share/G/G4D070000644000175000017500000000035711566750410011200 0ustar jtnjtnG4D07 (C) How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S- meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9? A. Approximately 1.5 times B. Approximately 2 times C. Approximately 4 times D. Approximately 8 times share/G/G1E010000644000175000017500000000056211566750407011174 0ustar jtnjtnG1E01 (A) [97.115(b)(2)] Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station? A. The third party's amateur license had ever been revoked B. The third party is not a U.S. citizen C. The third party is a licensed amateur D. The third party is speaking in a language other than English, French, or Spanish share/G/G1A120000644000175000017500000000070611566750407011172 0ustar jtnjtnG1A12 (B) [97.301] When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them? A. The lower frequency end B. The upper frequency end C. The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz D. The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz share/G/G2B020000644000175000017500000000056011566750407011171 0ustar jtnjtnG2B02 (B) What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in? A. Continue your communication because you were on frequency first B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed C. Change to a different frequency D. Immediately cease all transmissions share/G/G4D080000644000175000017500000000032711566750410011176 0ustar jtnjtnG4D08 (C) What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz? A. 7.178 to 7.181 MHz B. 7.178 to 7.184 MHz C. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz D. 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz share/G/G1E020000644000175000017500000000067611566750407011203 0ustar jtnjtnG1E02 (D) [97.205(a)] When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator? A. Under no circumstances B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission C. Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency D. Only if the 10 meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license share/G/G5C090000644000175000017500000000024711566750410011200 0ustar jtnjtnG5C09 (C) What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series? A. .30 microfarads B. .33 microfarads C. 33.3 microfarads D. 300 microfarads share/G/G4A070000644000175000017500000000033711566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG4A07 (D) What condition can lead to permanent damage when using a solid-state RF power amplifier? A. Exceeding the Maximum Usable Frequency B. Low input SWR C. Shorting the input signal to ground D. Excessive drive power share/G/G5C120000644000175000017500000000026611566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG5C12 (B) What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor? A. .07 microfarads B. 14.3 microfarads C. 70 microfarads D. 1000 microfarads share/G/G4E060000644000175000017500000000050611566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG4E06 (C) What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna? A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals B. Short antennas can only receive vertically polarized signals C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited D. Harmonic radiation may increase share/G/G5C020000644000175000017500000000023511566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG5C02 (B) Which part of a transformer is normally connected to the incoming source of energy? A. The secondary B. The primary C. The core D. The plates share/G/G7B090000644000175000017500000000034711566750410011202 0ustar jtnjtnG7B09 (C) What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator? A. The number of stages in the counter B. The number of stages in the divider C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit D. The time delay of the lag circuit share/G/G2D110000644000175000017500000000031011566750410011156 0ustar jtnjtnG2D11 (C) Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference? A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna B. An isotropic antenna C. A unidirectional antenna D. An omnidirectional antenna share/G/G9A130000644000175000017500000000030311566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG9A13 (C) What would be the SWR if you feed an antenna that has a 300-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable? A. 1.5:1 B. 3:1 C. 6:1 D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values share/G/G3C120000644000175000017500000000027611566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG3C12 (D) Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz? A. The F2 layer B. The F1 layer C. The E layer D. The D layer share/G/G1A140000644000175000017500000000110211566750407011163 0ustar jtnjtnG1A14 (C) [97.303] Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band? A. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station B. Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies C. Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users D. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band share/G/G0B100000644000175000017500000000051711566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG0B10 (A) Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder? A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling B. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly C. Tin in the solder can "cold flow" causing shorts in the circuit D. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas share/G/G3C070000644000175000017500000000042311566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG3C07 (D) What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted? A. The ionospheric layer involved is unstable B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal C. The E-region is not present D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths share/G/G2C060000644000175000017500000000041411566750407011174 0ustar jtnjtnG2C06 (D) What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation? A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency C. Sending without error D. Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal. share/G/G2C030000644000175000017500000000034111566750407011170 0ustar jtnjtnG2C03 (C) What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission? A. Listening for novice stations B. Operating full break-in C. Listening only for a specific station or stations D. Closing station now share/G/G4E050000644000175000017500000000046011566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG4E05 (C) Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75 meter band? A. "Picket Fencing" signal variation B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver C. The antenna system D. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75 meter band share/G/G3B120000644000175000017500000000031611566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG3B12 (D) What factors affect the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)? A. Path distance and location B. Time of day and season C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G2A010000644000175000017500000000027211566750407011167 0ustar jtnjtnG2A01 (A) Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher? A. Upper sideband B. Lower sideband C. Vestigial sideband D. Double sideband share/G/G7A060000644000175000017500000000022011566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG7A06 (D) What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier? A. 90 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 270 degrees D. 360 degrees share/G/G4D110000644000175000017500000000051611566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG4D11 (B) How close to the upper edge of the 20 meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB? A. 3 kHz above the edge of the band B. 3 kHz below the edge of the band C. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band D. Center your signal on the edge of the band share/G/G4A060000644000175000017500000000030211566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG4A06 (C) What type of device is often used to enable matching the transmitter output to an impedance other than 50 ohms? A. Balanced modulator B. SWR Bridge C. Antenna coupler D. Q Multiplier share/G/G1A100000644000175000017500000000024711566750407011170 0ustar jtnjtnG1A10 (C) [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15 meter band? A. 14250 kHz B. 18155 kHz C. 21300 kHz D. 24900 kHz share/G/G9C090000644000175000017500000000031711566750410011202 0ustar jtnjtnG9C09 (A) What is the approximate maximum theoretical forward gain of a three element, single-band Yagi antenna? A. 9.7 dBi B. 9.7 dBd C. 5.4 times the gain of a dipole D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G4E090000644000175000017500000000023011566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG4E09 (B) What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a modern, well-illuminated photovoltaic cell? A. 0.02 VDC B. 0.5 VDC C. 0.2 VDC D. 1.38 VDC share/G/G2C080000644000175000017500000000016211566750407011176 0ustar jtnjtnG2C08 (C) What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW? A. SK B. BK C. AR D. KN share/G/G4C030000644000175000017500000000042211566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG4C03 (C) What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single-sideband phone transmitter? A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air B. On-and-off humming or clicking C. Distorted speech D. Clearly audible speech share/G/G6B060000644000175000017500000000035611566750410011176 0ustar jtnjtnG6B06 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit as compared to a standard silicon diode? A. Lower capacitance B. Lower inductance C. Longer switching times D. Higher breakdown voltage share/G/G3C030000644000175000017500000000046511566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG3C03 (C) Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation? A. Because it is the densest ionospheric layer B. Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions C. Because it is the highest ionospheric region D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G3C040000644000175000017500000000061711566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG3C04 (D) What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation? A. The long path azimuth of a distant station B. The short path azimuth of a distant station C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions share/G/G6B050000644000175000017500000000022111566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG6B05 (C) What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode? A. 0.1 volt B. 0.3 volts C. 0.7 volts D. 1.0 volts share/G/G0B040000644000175000017500000000043011566750410011157 0ustar jtnjtnG0B04 (A) Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area? A. Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning B. Danger of engine over torque C. Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion D. Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion share/G/G2B120000644000175000017500000000045211566750407011172 0ustar jtnjtnG2B12 (C) [97.405(b)] When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress? A. Only when transmitting in RACES B. At any time when transmitting in an organized net C. At any time during an actual emergency D. Only on authorized HF frequencies share/G/G9C040000644000175000017500000000046611566750410011202 0ustar jtnjtnG9C04 (A) Which statement about a three-element; single-band Yagi antenna is true? A. The reflector is normally the longest parasitic element B. The director is normally the longest parasitic element C. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element D. All of the elements must be the same length share/G/G7A050000644000175000017500000000022011566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG7A05 (B) What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier? A. 90 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 270 degrees D. 360 degrees share/G/G5C130000644000175000017500000000031711566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG5C13 (C) Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance? A. An inductor in series B. A resistor in series C. A capacitor in parallel D. A capacitor in series share/G/G1B020000644000175000017500000000060511566750407011170 0ustar jtnjtnG1B02 (D) [97.203(b)] With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply? A. A beacon station may not use automatic control B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization C. The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical D. There must be no more than one beacon signal in the same band from a single location share/G/G6A060000644000175000017500000000044111566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG6A06 (C) What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased? A. It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient B. It will stay the same C. It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient D. It will become time dependent share/G/G3A040000644000175000017500000000032611566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG3A04 (D) Which of the following amateur radio HF frequencies are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity? A. 3.5 MHz and lower B. 7 MHz C. 10 MHz D. 21 MHz and higher share/G/G5B120000644000175000017500000000022011566750410011160 0ustar jtnjtnG5B12 (B) What would be the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts? A. 173 volts B. 245 volts C. 346 volts D. 692 volts share/G/G3A160000644000175000017500000000045111566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG3A16 (A) What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity? A. Aurora that can reflect VHF signals B. Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions C. Improved HF long path propagation D. Reduced long delayed echoes share/G/G0A060000644000175000017500000000056411566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG0A06 (C) Question withdrawn by QPC 2/22/2011 Which transmitter(s) at a multiple user site is/are responsible for RF safety compliance? A. Only the most powerful transmitter on site B. All transmitters on site, regardless of their power level or duty cycle C. Any transmitter that contributes 5% or more of the MPE D. Only those that operate at more than 50% duty cycle share/G/G6A020000644000175000017500000000026611566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG6A02 (D) Which of the following types of capacitors are often used in power supply circuits to filter the rectified AC? A. Disc ceramic B. Vacuum variable C. Mica D. Electrolytic share/G/G2E030000644000175000017500000000020211566750410011160 0ustar jtnjtnG2E03 (C) What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information? A. Directory B. Preamble C. Header D. Footer share/G/G4A100000644000175000017500000000035111566750410011161 0ustar jtnjtnG4A10 (B) What is the purpose of an electronic keyer? A. Automatic transmit/receive switching B. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation C. VOX operation D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation share/G/G4B150000644000175000017500000000032511566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG4B15 (A) What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze? A. Linearity B. Carrier and undesired sideband suppression C. Percentage of frequency modulation D. Percentage of carrier phase shift share/G/G7B080000644000175000017500000000044711566750410011202 0ustar jtnjtnG7B08 (B) How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined? A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power share/G/G3A100000644000175000017500000000041111566750410011155 0ustar jtnjtnG3A10 (C) What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28-day cycle? A. Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere B. Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts C. The Sun's rotation on its axis D. The position of the Moon in its orbit share/G/G6C040000644000175000017500000000022711566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG6C04 (B) What is meant by the term ROM? A. Resistor Operated Memory B. Read Only Memory C. Random Operational Memory D. Resistant to Overload Memory share/G/G7C100000644000175000017500000000047011566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG7C10 (B) How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished? A. By using direct signal phasing B. By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing C. By differential spurious phasing D. By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products share/G/G1A060000644000175000017500000000021011566750407011163 0ustar jtnjtnG1A06 (D) [97.301(d) Which of the following frequencies is in the 12 meter band? A. 3.940 MHz B. 12.940 MHz C. 17.940 MHz D. 24.940 MHz share/G/G4C020000644000175000017500000000053011566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG4C02 (C) Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies? A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection D. The use of horizontal rather than vertical antennas share/G/G9B010000644000175000017500000000043711566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG9B01 (B) What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire antenna? A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength B. You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station C. It produces only vertically polarized radiation D. It is not effective on the higher HF bands share/G/G6B040000644000175000017500000000055111566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG6B04 (C) When two or more diodes are connected in parallel to increase current handling capacity, what is the purpose of the resistor connected in series with each diode? A. To ensure the thermal stability of the power supply B. To regulate the power supply output voltage C. To ensure that one diode doesn't carry most of the current D. To act as an inductor share/G/G3A020000644000175000017500000000062411566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG3A02 (B) What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves? A. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications D. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected share/G/G4A140000644000175000017500000000053111566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG4A14 (B) How should the transceiver audio input be adjusted when transmitting PSK31 data signals? A. So that the transceiver is at maximum rated output power B. So that the transceiver ALC system does not activate C. So that the transceiver operates at no more than 25% of rated power D. So that the transceiver ALC indicator shows half scale share/G/G0A050000644000175000017500000000060711566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG0A05 (A) What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits? A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC C. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G2B080000644000175000017500000000072111566750407011176 0ustar jtnjtnG2B08 (A) What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan? A. A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States B. An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions on that band segment C. An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band D. A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only share/G/G8A100000644000175000017500000000046411566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG8A10 (C) What is meant by flat-topping of a single-sideband phone transmission? A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed share/G/G6B080000644000175000017500000000041611566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG6B08 (D) Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground? A. To increase the beta of the transistor B. To improve the power dissipation capability C. To reduce stray capacitance D. To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground share/G/G9B070000644000175000017500000000043011566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG9B07 (B) How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered from 1/4 wave above ground? A. It steadily increases B. It steadily decreases C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground D. It is unaffected by the height above ground share/G/G5A030000644000175000017500000000023611566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG5A03 (D) Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor? A. Conductance B. Reluctance C. Admittance D. Reactance share/G/G2C110000644000175000017500000000026311566750407011172 0ustar jtnjtnG2C11 (D) What does the Q signal "QRV" mean? A. You are sending too fast B. There is interference on the frequency C. I am quitting for the day D. I am ready to receive messages share/G/G4C050000644000175000017500000000060511566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG4C05 (D) What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod? A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire C. The ground rod is resonant D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency share/G/G2B040000644000175000017500000000036011566750407011171 0ustar jtnjtnG2B04 (B) When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation should you allow in order to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies? A. 5 to 50 Hz B. 150 to 500 Hz C. 1 to 3 kHz D. 3 to 6 kHz share/G/G2A110000644000175000017500000000035311566750407011170 0ustar jtnjtnG2A11 (C) What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate? A. A general call for any station B. The caller is listening for a station in Germany C. The caller is looking for any station outside their own country D. A distress call share/G/G4A110000644000175000017500000000056511566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG4A11 (A) Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver? A. To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency B. To change frequency rapidly C. To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting D. To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency share/G/G9A040000644000175000017500000000054611566750410011177 0ustar jtnjtnG9A04 (C) What is the reason for the occurrence of reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna? A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle C. A difference between feed-line impedance and antenna feed-point impedance D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line share/G/G1C090000644000175000017500000000033711566750407011202 0ustar jtnjtnG1C09 (A) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(5)] What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25 meter and 70 centimeter bands A. 56 kilobaud B. 19.6 kilobaud C. 1200 baud D. 300 baud share/G/G6A040000644000175000017500000000026411566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG6A04 (C) Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor? A. Tight tolerance B. Non-polarized C. High capacitance for given volume D. Inexpensive RF capacitor share/G/G0A040000644000175000017500000000046111566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG0A04 (D) What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure? A. The average time of day when the exposure occurs B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body C. The total time of the exposure D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time share/G/G9C160000644000175000017500000000026111566750410011176 0ustar jtnjtnG9C16 (D) How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna? A. 3 dB higher B. 3 dB lower C. 2.54 dB higher D. About the same share/G/G4A030000644000175000017500000000050511566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG4A03 (C) What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode? A. The radio is operating at half power B. The transceiver is operating from an external power source C. The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies D. The transmitter is emitting a SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation share/G/G5B070000644000175000017500000000032411566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG5B07 (C) Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value? A. The peak-to-peak value B. The peak value C. The RMS value D. The reciprocal of the RMS value share/G/G9B060000644000175000017500000000040111566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG9B06 (C) Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed? A. As high as possible above the ground B. Parallel to the antenna element C. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground D. At the top of the antenna share/G/G5C100000644000175000017500000000023311566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG5C10 (C) What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel? A. .30 Henrys B. 3.3 Henrys C. 3.3 millihenrys D. 30 millihenrys share/G/G0A080000644000175000017500000000054311566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG0A08 (C) Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in part 97.13? A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97 in the station B. Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G1D040000644000175000017500000000067511566750407011203 0ustar jtnjtnG1D04 (A) [97.509(a)(b)] Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class operator examination? A. At least three VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present B. At least two VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present C. At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC accredited D. At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must be present share/G/G8B070000644000175000017500000000027411566750410011200 0ustar jtnjtnG8B07 (B) What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactance-modulated oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz FM-phone transmitter? A. 101.75 Hz B. 416.7 Hz C. 5 kHz D. 60 kHz share/G/G9B050000644000175000017500000000066211566750410011200 0ustar jtnjtnG9B05 (C) How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna? A. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable B. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional D. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated share/G/G1A050000644000175000017500000000024511566750407011172 0ustar jtnjtnG1A05 (A) [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40 meter band? A. 7.250 MHz B. 7.500 MHz C. 40.200 MHz D. 40.500 MHz share/G/G6A070000644000175000017500000000052411566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG6A07 (B) Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit? A. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit B. The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable C. The resistor could overheat D. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit share/G/G3A070000644000175000017500000000043511566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG3A07 (D) At what point in the solar cycle does the 20 meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours? A. At the summer solstice B. Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle C. Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle D. At any point in the solar cycle share/G/G7B030000644000175000017500000000043511566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG7B03 (B) Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate? A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low B. Output is high only when both inputs are high C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high D. Output is low only when both inputs are high share/G/G8B100000644000175000017500000000035111566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG8B10 (A) What does the number 31 represent in PSK31? A. The approximate transmitted symbol rate B. The version of the PSK protocol C. The year in which PSK31 was invented D. The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31 share/G/G4E080000644000175000017500000000027211566750410011176 0ustar jtnjtnG4E08 (A) What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity? A. Photovoltaic conversion B. Photon emission C. Photosynthesis D. Photon decomposition share/G/G2D080000644000175000017500000000053211566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG2D08 (D) Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the FCC doesn't require it? A. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts B. The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information share/G/G9D030000644000175000017500000000043011566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG9D03 (D) At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed? A. As close to one-half wave as possible B. As close to one wavelength as possible C. Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength D. Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength share/G/G2D010000644000175000017500000000063211566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG2D01 (A) What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC? A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency share/G/G8A040000644000175000017500000000027111566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG8A04 (B) What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier? A. Multiplex modulation B. Phase modulation C. Amplitude modulation D. Pulse modulation share/G/G4C040000644000175000017500000000040011566750410011161 0ustar jtnjtnG4C04 (A) What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter? A. On-and-off humming or clicking B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency C. A chirpy CW signal D. Severely distorted audio share/G/G3A030000644000175000017500000000033311566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG3A03 (C) Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth? A. 28 days B. 1 to 2 hours C. 8 minutes D. 20 to 40 hours share/G/G2D100000644000175000017500000000027111566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG2D10 (B) What is QRP operation? A. Remote piloted model control B. Low power transmit operation C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol D. Traffic relay procedure net operation share/G/G1D020000644000175000017500000000035711566750407011176 0ustar jtnjtnG1D02 (C) [97.509(b)(3)(i)] What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license? A. General and Technician B. General only C. Technician only D. Extra, General and Technician share/G/G5B110000644000175000017500000000020111566750410011156 0ustar jtnjtnG5B11 (B) What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier? A. .707 B. 1.00 C. 1.414 D. 2.00 share/G/G4C130000644000175000017500000000027711566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG4C13 (B) Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers? A. Band-pass tuning B. A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter C. Balanced mixing D. A noise limiter share/G/G5B130000644000175000017500000000031511566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG5B13 (B) What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts? A. 530 watts B. 1060 watts C. 1500 watts D. 2120 watts share/G/G4C110000644000175000017500000000035211566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG4C11 (B) Which of the following is one use for a Digital Signal Processor in an amateur station? A. To provide adequate grounding B. To remove noise from received signals C. To increase antenna gain D. To increase antenna bandwidth share/G/G9A010000644000175000017500000000063511566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG9A01 (A) Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line? A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line share/G/G8A020000644000175000017500000000027611566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG8A02 (B) What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information? A. Phase convolution B. Phase modulation C. Angle convolution D. Radian inversion share/G/G7A010000644000175000017500000000036611566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG7A01 (B) What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide? A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage B. It discharges the filter capacitors C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils D. It eliminates ground-loop current share/G/G2E130000644000175000017500000000046611566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG2E13 (A) In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet? A. The receiver is requesting the packet be re-transmitted B. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error C. The receiver is busy decoding the packet D. The entire file has been received correctly share/G/G7C080000644000175000017500000000026611566750410011202 0ustar jtnjtnG7C08 (D) What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio? A. Product detector B. Phase inverter C. Mixer D. Discriminator share/G/G9A030000644000175000017500000000017611566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG9A03 (D) What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead? A. 50 ohms B. 75 ohms C. 100 ohms D. 300 ohms share/G/G4A090000644000175000017500000000056711566750410011202 0ustar jtnjtnG4A09 (C) Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit? A. To prevent stations from talking over each other B. To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly C. To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed D. To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations share/G/G4C120000644000175000017500000000052011566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG4C12 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver Digital Signal Processor IF filter as compared to an analog filter? A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created B. Fewer digital components are required C. Mixing products are greatly reduced D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies share/G/G3B040000644000175000017500000000070611566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG3B04 (A) What is a reliable way to determine if the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz? A. Listen for signals from an international beacon B. Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal C. Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe D. Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band share/G/G6A030000644000175000017500000000032611566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG6A03 (D) Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors? A. Tight tolerance B. High stability C. High capacitance for given volume D. Comparatively low cost share/G/G0B120000644000175000017500000000050311566750410011157 0ustar jtnjtnG0B12 (C) What is the purpose of a transmitter power supply interlock? A. To prevent unauthorized access to a transmitter B. To guarantee that you cannot accidentally transmit out of band C. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened D. To shut off the transmitter if too much current is drawn share/G/G8A080000644000175000017500000000023411566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG8A08 (D) Which of the following is an effect of over-modulation? A. Insufficient audio B. Insufficient bandwidth C. Frequency drift D. Excessive bandwidth share/G/G3B060000644000175000017500000000044411566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG3B06 (C) What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF)? A. They are bent back to the Earth B. They pass through the ionosphere C. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth share/G/G0B050000644000175000017500000000056311566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG0B05 (B) Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device? A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground C. Over-voltage on the hot wire D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G4A020000644000175000017500000000060411566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG4A02 (C) What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver? A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals D. Accidental out of band operation can be prevented share/G/G4C070000644000175000017500000000050611566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG4C07 (A) What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station? A. Connect all equipment grounds together B. Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire C. Use a ground loop for best conductivity D. Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station share/G/G2B090000644000175000017500000000064211566750407011201 0ustar jtnjtnG2B09 (A) [97.407(a)] Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster? A. Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license B. Only a RACES net control operator C. A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational share/G/G0B060000644000175000017500000000045611566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG0B06 (D) Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded? A. It prevents blowing of fuses in case of an internal short circuit B. It prevents signal overload C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis share/G/G5B080000644000175000017500000000024011566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG5B08 (D) What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 volts? A. 84.8 volts B. 169.7 volts C. 240.0 volts D. 339.4 volts share/G/G1A110000644000175000017500000000031411566750407011164 0ustar jtnjtnG1A11 (D) [97.301(d)] Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license? A. 28.020 MHz B. 28.350 MHz C. 28.550 MHz D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G9C120000644000175000017500000000052611566750410011176 0ustar jtnjtnG9C12 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50-ohm coax feed line? A. It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom B. It does not require any inductors or capacitors C. It is useful for matching multiband antennas D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G6A110000644000175000017500000000044011566750410011163 0ustar jtnjtnG6A11 (B) Why would it be important to minimize the mutual inductance between two inductors? A. To increase the energy transfer between circuits B. To reduce unwanted coupling between circuits C. To reduce conducted emissions D. To increase the self-resonant frequency of the inductors share/G/G7B120000644000175000017500000000017111566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG7B12 (D) Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class AB D. Class C share/G/G9D060000644000175000017500000000027711566750410011205 0ustar jtnjtnG9D06 (A) Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna? A. Wide bandwidth B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna C. Harmonic suppression D. Polarization diversity share/G/G5C140000644000175000017500000000031711566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG5C14 (D) Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance? A. A capacitor in series B. A resistor in parallel C. An inductor in parallel D. An inductor in series share/G/G7C050000644000175000017500000000045511566750410011177 0ustar jtnjtnG7C05 (D) Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? A. Wide tuning range and no need for band switching B. Relatively high power output C. Relatively low power consumption D. Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator share/G/G6A120000644000175000017500000000031711566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG6A12 (D) What is a common name for an inductor used to help smooth the DC output from the rectifier in a conventional power supply? A. Back EMF choke B. Repulsion coil C. Charging inductor D. Filter choke share/G/G2A080000644000175000017500000000053511566750407011200 0ustar jtnjtnG2A08 (B) Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone? A. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations C. Say "Break. Break. Break." and wait for a response D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station share/G/G0B010000644000175000017500000000037211566750410011161 0ustar jtnjtnG0B01 (A) Which wire or wires in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240-VAC single-phase source? A. Only the hot wires B. Only the neutral wire C. Only the ground wire D. All wires share/G/G9C180000644000175000017500000000064311566750410011204 0ustar jtnjtnG9C18 (A) What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna is changed from the center of either horizontal wire to the center of either vertical wire? A. The polarization of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical B. The polarization of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal C. The direction of the main lobe is reversed D. The radiated signal changes to an omnidirectional pattern share/G/G4A040000644000175000017500000000037011566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG4A04 (B) What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control? A. A pronounced peak B. A pronounced dip C. No change will be observed D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation share/G/G1B090000644000175000017500000000103611566750407011176 0ustar jtnjtnG1B09 (A) [97.113(a)(3)] When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest? A. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis B. Only when there is no other means of communications readily available C. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis D. Never share/G/G1D050000644000175000017500000000056711566750407011204 0ustar jtnjtnG1D05 (D) [97.509(b)(3)(i)] Which of the following is sufficient for you to be an administering VE for a Technician Class operator license examination? A. Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination B. Receipt of a CSCE for General Class C. Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license D. An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation share/G/G7A020000644000175000017500000000026111566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG7A02 (D) Which of the following components are used in a power-supply filter network? A. Diodes B. Transformers and transducers C. Quartz crystals D. Capacitors and inductors share/G/G6A080000644000175000017500000000051611566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG6A08 (B) Which of the following describes a thermistor? A. A resistor that is resistant to changes in value with temperature variations B. A device having a specific change in resistance with temperature variations C. A special type of transistor for use at very cold temperatures D. A capacitor that changes value with temperature share/G/G2D050000644000175000017500000000112711566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG2D05 (B) [97.111(a)(1)] When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission? A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications C. When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English D. Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union share/G/G9A060000644000175000017500000000021611566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG9A06 (D) In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed? A. ohms per 1000 ft B. dB per 1000 ft C. ohms per 100 ft D. dB per 100 ft share/G/G9C030000644000175000017500000000046111566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG9C03 (B) Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true? A. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element B. The director is normally the shortest parasitic element C. The driven element is the longest parasitic element D. Low feed-point impedance increases bandwidth share/G/G8B050000644000175000017500000000042611566750410011175 0ustar jtnjtnG8B05 (C) Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 29.5 MHz? A. The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low B. Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels C. The wide bandwidth is prohibited by FCC rules D. The frequency stability would not be adequate share/G/G2D070000644000175000017500000000065411566750410011176 0ustar jtnjtnG2D07 (A) [97.303s] Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60 meter band? A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna B. You must keep a log of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked C. You must keep a log of all third party traffic D. You must keep a log of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used share/G/G4B080000644000175000017500000000033311566750410011171 0ustar jtnjtnG4B08 (A) Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments? A. A field-strength meter B. An antenna noise bridge C. A multimeter D. A Q meter share/G/G6A090000644000175000017500000000046011566750410011174 0ustar jtnjtnG6A09 (D) What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor? A. Large values of inductance may be obtained B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core D. All of these choices are correct share/G/G3A080000644000175000017500000000037311566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG3A08 (B) Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio-wave propagation? A. Improved high-latitude HF propagation B. Degraded high-latitude HF propagation C. Improved ground-wave propagation D. Improved chances of UHF ducting share/G/G7A120000644000175000017500000000020311566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG7A12 (C) Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer? A. Symbol 4 B. Symbol 7 C. Symbol 6 D. Symbol 1 share/G/G2A040000644000175000017500000000026111566750407011170 0ustar jtnjtnG2A04 (A) Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands? A. Upper sideband B. Lower sideband C. Vestigial sideband D. Double sideband share/G/G7C110000644000175000017500000000061311566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG7C11 (A) What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)? A. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software B. A radio which provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency C. A radio which uses crystal filters designed using software D. A computer model which can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process share/G/G0B030000644000175000017500000000026511566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG0B03 (D) Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring? A. 100 amperes B. 60 amperes C. 30 amperes D. 15 amperes share/G/G3B100000644000175000017500000000030411566750410011157 0ustar jtnjtnG3B10 (B) What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region? A. 180 miles B. 1,200 miles C. 2,500 miles D. 12,000 miles share/G/G4D050000644000175000017500000000034411566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG4D05 (D) How does an S meter reading of 20 dB over S-9 compare to an S-9 signal, assuming a properly calibrated S meter? A. It is 10 times weaker B. It is 20 times weaker C. It is 20 times stronger D. It is 100 times stronger share/G/G6B100000644000175000017500000000026411566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG6B10 (A) Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate? A. Control grid B. Heater C. Screen Grid D. Trigger electrode share/G/G1B030000644000175000017500000000045711566750407011176 0ustar jtnjtnG1B03 (A) [97.3(a)(9)] Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC Rules? A. Observation of propagation and reception B. Automatic identification of repeaters C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees D. Identifying net frequencies share/G/G2C090000644000175000017500000000022411566750407011176 0ustar jtnjtnG2C09 (C) What does the Q signal "QSL" mean? A. Send slower B. We have already confirmed by card C. I acknowledge receipt D. We have worked before share/G/G1E050000644000175000017500000000071111566750407011174 0ustar jtnjtnG1E05 (C) [97.115(a)(2),97.117] What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station? A. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid B. Only messages for other licensed amateurs C. Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief D. Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log share/G/G6B030000644000175000017500000000020711566750410011166 0ustar jtnjtnG6B03 (B) What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode? A. 0.1 volt B. 0.3 volts C. 0.7 volts D. 1.0 volts share/G/G9C050000644000175000017500000000025411566750410011176 0ustar jtnjtnG9C05 (A) How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna? A. Gain increases B. Beamwidth increases C. Weight decreases D. Wind load decreases share/G/G7B100000644000175000017500000000023311566750410011164 0ustar jtnjtnG7B10 (D) Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier? A. Low standby power B. High Efficiency C. No need for bias D. Low distortion share/G/G3B110000644000175000017500000000057011566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG3B11 (A) What happens to HF propagation when the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) exceeds the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)? A. No HF radio frequency will support ordinary skywave communications over the path B. HF communications over the path are enhanced C. Double hop propagation along the path is more common D. Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced share/G/G9D050000644000175000017500000000044511566750410011201 0ustar jtnjtnG9D05 (D) What is the advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas? A. Allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization B. Allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization C. Narrows the main lobe in azimuth D. Narrows the main lobe in elevation share/G/G9D040000644000175000017500000000031311566750410011172 0ustar jtnjtnG9D04 (A) What is the primary purpose of antenna traps? A. To permit multiband operation B. To notch spurious frequencies C. To provide balanced feed-point impedance D. To prevent out of band operation share/G/G2D030000644000175000017500000000050711566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG2D03 (B) What skills learned during "hidden transmitter hunts" are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary? A. Identification of out of band operation B. Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules C. Identification of different call signs D. Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies share/G/G3C130000644000175000017500000000037211566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG3C13 (B) What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation? A. Propagation near the MUF B. Short distance HF propagation using high elevation angles C. Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset D. Double hop propagation near the LUF share/G/G3A150000644000175000017500000000027011566750410011165 0ustar jtnjtnG3A15 (D) How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth? A. 28 days B. 14 days C. 4 to 8 minutes D. 20 to 40 hours share/G/G2E080000644000175000017500000000024711566750410011176 0ustar jtnjtnG2E08 (A) What segment of the 80 meter band is most commonly used for data transmissions? A. 3570 - 3600 kHz B. 3500 - 3525 kHz C. 3700 - 3750 kHz D. 3775 - 3825 kHz share/G/G4B030000644000175000017500000000031111566750410011160 0ustar jtnjtnG4B03 (A) Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter? A. An oscilloscope B. A field-strength meter C. A sidetone monitor D. A wavemeter share/G/G9A020000644000175000017500000000030711566750410011170 0ustar jtnjtnG9A02 (B) What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations? A. 25 and 30 ohms B. 50 and 75 ohms C. 80 and 100 ohms D. 500 and 750 ohms share/G/G4B120000644000175000017500000000064611566750410011173 0ustar jtnjtnG4B12 (B) What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer? A. SWR readings may be incorrect if the antenna is too close to the Earth B. Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements C. The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted D. Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics share/G/G2E020000644000175000017500000000014711566750410011167 0ustar jtnjtnG2E02 (A) How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character? A. The number varies B. 5 C. 7 D. 8 share/G/G9C190000644000175000017500000000075211566750410011206 0ustar jtnjtnG9C19 (D) What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector? A. The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer B. The driven element must be open-circuited on the side opposite the feed point C. The reflector element must be approximately 5% shorter than the driven element D. The reflector element must be approximately 5% longer than the driven element share/G/G3A060000644000175000017500000000033011566750410011162 0ustar jtnjtnG3A06 (D) What is a geomagnetic storm? A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index B. A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation C. Ripples in the ionosphere D. A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere share/G/G6C180000644000175000017500000000047211566750410011201 0ustar jtnjtnG6C18 (B) What is a type SMA connector? A. A large bayonet-type connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW B. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz C. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals D. A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications share/G/G9D090000644000175000017500000000042211566750410011200 0ustar jtnjtnG9D09 (B) Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna? A. Directional transmitting for low HF bands B. Directional receiving for low HF bands C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies D. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies share/T/0000755000175000017500000000000011566750314010543 5ustar jtnjtnshare/T/T1C060000644000175000017500000000072511566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT1C06 (D) [97.5(a)(2)] From which of the following may an FCC-licensed amateur station transmit, in addition to places where the FCC regulates communications? A. From within any country that belongs to the International Telecommunications Union B. From within any country that is a member of the United Nations C. From anywhere within in ITU Regions 2 and 3 D. From any vessel or craft located in international waters and documented or registered in the United States share/T/T5B020000644000175000017500000000020311566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT5B02 (A) What is another way to specify a radio signal frequency of 1,500,000 hertz? A. 1500 kHz B. 1500 MHz C. 15 GHz D. 150 kHz share/T/T7B100000644000175000017500000000044511566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT7B10 (D) What might be the problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through the repeater is distorted or unintelligible? A. Your transmitter may be slightly off frequency B. Your batteries may be running low C. You could be in a bad location D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T7B060000644000175000017500000000105411566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT7B06 (A) What should you do first if someone tells you that your station's transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception? A. Make sure that your station is functioning properly and that it does not cause interference to your own television B. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC office for assistance C. Tell them that your license gives you the right to transmit and nothing can be done to reduce the interference D. Continue operating normally because your equipment cannot possibly cause any interference share/T/T7B090000644000175000017500000000060011566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT7B09 (D) What could be happening if another operator reports a variable high-pitched whine on the audio from your mobile transmitter? A. Your microphone is picking up noise from an open window B. You have the volume on your receiver set too high C. You need to adjust your squelch control D. Noise on the vehicle's electrical system is being transmitted along with your speech audio share/T/T6B020000644000175000017500000000020111566750314011214 0ustar jtnjtnT6B02 (C) What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction? A. Resistor B. Fuse C. Diode D. Driven Element share/T/T7B010000644000175000017500000000036211566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT7B01 (D) What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over deviating? A. Talk louder into the microphone B. Let the transceiver cool off C. Change to a higher power level D. Talk farther away from the microphone share/T/T4A100000644000175000017500000000034711566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT4A10 (B) What is the source of a high-pitched whine that varies with engine speed in a mobile transceiver's receive audio? A. The ignition system B. The alternator C. The electric fuel pump D. Anti-lock braking system controllers share/T/T7B110000644000175000017500000000043511566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT7B11 (C) What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or transceiver? A. Excessive SWR at the antenna connection B. The transmitter will not stay on the desired frequency C. Reports of garbled, distorted, or unintelligible transmissions D. Frequent blowing of power supply fuses share/T/T8A110000644000175000017500000000020011566750314011214 0ustar jtnjtnT8A11 (B) What is the approximate maximum bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal? A. 2.4 kHz B. 150 Hz C. 1000 Hz D. 15 kHz share/T/T5A080000644000175000017500000000015311566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT5A08 (B) Which of the following is a good electrical insulator? A. Copper B. Glass C. Aluminum D. Mercury share/T/T5B070000644000175000017500000000031111566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT5B07 (C) If a frequency readout calibrated in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were calibrated in kilohertz? A. 0.003525 kHz B. 35.25 kHz C. 3525 kHz D. 3,525,000 kHz share/T/T4B010000644000175000017500000000034611566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT4B01 (B) What may happen if a transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high? A. The output power might be too high B. The output signal might become distorted C. The frequency might vary D. The SWR might increase share/T/T5B060000644000175000017500000000027311566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT5B06 (C) If an ammeter calibrated in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere current, what reading would it show? A. 0.003 amperes B. 0.3 amperes C. 3 amperes D. 3,000,000 amperes share/T/T1F010000644000175000017500000000027411566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT1F01 (A) What type of identification is being used when identifying a station on the air as "Race Headquarters"? A. Tactical call B. Self-assigned designator C. SSID D. Broadcast station share/T/T5C060000644000175000017500000000016111566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT5C06 (C) What is the abbreviation that refers to radio frequency signals of all types? A. AF B. HF C. RF D. VHF share/T/T4A020000644000175000017500000000027111566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT4A02 (C) What could be used in place of a regular speaker to help you copy signals in a noisy area? A. A video display B. A low pass filter C. A set of headphones D. A boom microphone share/T/T8C070000644000175000017500000000026011566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT8C07 (B) [97.215(c)] What is the maximum power allowed when transmitting telecommand signals to radio controlled models? A. 500 milliwatts B. 1 watt C. 25 watts D. 1500 watts share/T/T1D030000644000175000017500000000054011566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT1D03 (C) [97.113(a)(4), 97.211(b), 97.217] When is the transmission of codes or ciphers allowed to hide the meaning of a message transmitted by an amateur station? A. Only during contests B. Only when operating mobile C. Only when transmitting control commands to space stations or radio control craft D. Only when frequencies above 1280 MHz are used share/T/T1E030000644000175000017500000000022211566750314011216 0ustar jtnjtnT1E03 (A) [97.103(b)] Who must designate the station control operator? A. The station licensee B. The FCC C. The frequency coordinator D. The ITU share/T/T5A020000644000175000017500000000015511566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT5A02 (B) Electrical power is measured in which of the following units? A. Volts B. Watts C. Ohms D. Amperes share/T/T5C040000644000175000017500000000014411566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT5C04 (C) What is the basic unit of inductance? A. The coulomb B. The farad C. The henry D. The ohm share/T/T3C100000644000175000017500000000055411566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT3C10 (A) What is the radio horizon? A. The distance at which radio signals between two points are effectively blocked by the curvature of the Earth B. The distance from the ground to a horizontally mounted antenna C. The farthest point you can see when standing at the base of your antenna tower D. The shortest distance between two points on the Earth's surface share/T/T1A040000644000175000017500000000064011566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT1A04 (C) [97.3(a)(23)] Which of the following meets the FCC definition of harmful interference? A. Radio transmissions that annoy users of a repeater B. Unwanted radio transmissions that cause costly harm to radio station apparatus C. That which seriously degrades, obstructs, or repeatedly interrupts a radio communication service operating in accordance with the Radio Regulations D. Static from lightning storms share/T/T7D010000644000175000017500000000023211566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT7D01 (B) Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or electromotive force? A. An ammeter B. A voltmeter C. A wavemeter D. An ohmmeter share/T/T9A040000644000175000017500000000051011566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT9A04 (A) What is a disadvantage of the "rubber duck" antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers? A. It does not transmit or receive as effectively as a full-sized antenna B. It transmits a circularly polarized signal C. If the rubber end cap is lost it will unravel very quickly D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T5C070000644000175000017500000000022511566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT5C07 (C) What is a usual name for electromagnetic waves that travel through space? A. Gravity waves B. Sound waves C. Radio waves D. Pressure waves share/T/T5B040000644000175000017500000000024311566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT5B04 (A) How many volts are equal to one microvolt? A. One one-millionth of a volt B. One million volts C. One thousand kilovolts D. One one-thousandth of a volt share/T/T9B080000644000175000017500000000040111566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT9B08 (A) Why should coax connectors exposed to the weather be sealed against water intrusion? A. To prevent an increase in feedline loss B. To prevent interference to telephones C. To keep the jacket from becoming loose D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T5A100000644000175000017500000000017111566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT5A10 (C) Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used? A. Resistance B. Current C. Power D. Voltage share/T/T6D110000644000175000017500000000044011566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT6D11 (B) Which of the following is a common use of coaxial cable? A. Carry dc power from a vehicle battery to a mobile radio B. Carry RF signals between a radio and antenna C. Secure masts, tubing, and other cylindrical objects on towers D. Connect data signals from a TNC to a computer share/T/T6B080000644000175000017500000000024511566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT6B08 (A) What does the abbreviation "FET" stand for? A. Field Effect Transistor B. Fast Electron Transistor C. Free Electron Transition D. Field Emission Thickness share/T/T2B080000644000175000017500000000043011566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT2B08 (B) What is the proper course of action if your station's transmission unintentionally interferes with another station? A. Rotate your antenna slightly B. Properly identify your transmission and move to a different frequency C. Increase power D. Change antenna polarization share/T/T5C020000644000175000017500000000014211566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT5C02 (A) What is the basic unit of capacitance? A. The farad B. The ohm C. The volt D. The henry share/T/T8A080000644000175000017500000000016411566750314011233 0ustar jtnjtnT8A08 (B) What is the approximate bandwidth of a single sideband voice signal? A. 1 kHz B. 3 kHz C. 6 kHz D. 15 kHz share/T/T3B020000644000175000017500000000023711566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT3B02 (D) What term describes the number of times per second that an alternating current reverses direction? A. Pulse rate B. Speed C. Wavelength D. Frequency share/T/T2A090000644000175000017500000000044411566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT2A09 (B) What brief statement is often used in place of "CQ" to indicate that you are listening on a repeater? A. Say "Hello test" followed by your call sign B. Say your call sign C. Say the repeater call sign followed by your call sign D. Say the letters "QSY" followed by your call sign share/T/T7B020000644000175000017500000000040711566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT7B02 (C) What is meant by fundamental overload in reference to a receiver? A. Too much voltage from the power supply B. Too much current from the power supply C. Interference caused by very strong signals D. Interference caused by turning the volume up too high share/T/T6B120000644000175000017500000000023511566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT6B12 (A) What is the term that describes a transistor's ability to amplify a signal? A. Gain B. Forward resistance C. Forward voltage drop D. On resistance share/T/T1D020000644000175000017500000000045711566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT1D02 (A) [97.111(a)(5)] On which of the following occasions may an FCC-licensed amateur station exchange messages with a U.S. military station? A. During an Armed Forces Day Communications Test B. During a Memorial Day Celebration C. During an Independence Day celebration D. During a propagation test share/T/T1D040000644000175000017500000000054711566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT1D04 (A) [97.113(a)(4), 97.113(e)] What is the only time an amateur station is authorized to transmit music? A. When incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications B. When the music produces no spurious emissions C. When the purpose is to interfere with an illegal transmission D. When the music is transmitted above 1280 MHz share/T/T5B090000644000175000017500000000023611566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT5B09 (B) What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts? A. 2 dB B. 3 dB C. 5 dB D. 10 dB share/T/T4B040000644000175000017500000000036111566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT4B04 (B) What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite frequency on your transceiver? A. Enable the CTCSS tones B. Store the frequency in a memory channel C. Disable the CTCSS tones D. Use the scan mode to select the desired frequency share/T/T1F020000644000175000017500000000040211566750314011216 0ustar jtnjtnT1F02 (C) [97.119 (a)] When using tactical identifiers, how often must your station transmit the station's FCC-assigned call sign? A. Never, the tactical call is sufficient B. Once during every hour C. Every ten minutes D. At the end of every communication share/T/T5C030000644000175000017500000000020311566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT5C03 (D) What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called? A. Admittance B. Capacitance C. Resistance D. Inductance share/T/T1D060000644000175000017500000000046511566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT1D06 (A) [97.113(a)(4)] Which of the following types of transmissions are prohibited? A. Transmissions that contain obscene or indecent words or language B. Transmissions to establish one-way communications C. Transmissions to establish model aircraft control D. Transmissions for third party communications share/T/T8A100000644000175000017500000000024111566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT8A10 (B) What is the typical bandwidth of analog fast-scan TV transmissions on the 70 cm band? A. More than 10 MHz B. About 6 MHz C. About 3 MHz D. About 1 MHz share/T/T7C100000644000175000017500000000055011566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT7C10 (D) Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light? A. Ultraviolet resistant jackets prevent harmonic radiation B. Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the cable's jacket C. Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix together, causing interference D. Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and allow water to enter the cable share/T/T6D010000644000175000017500000000026011566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT6D01 (B) Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal? A. Transformer B. Rectifier C. Amplifier D. Reflector share/T/T2A100000644000175000017500000000047411566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT2A10 (A) What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC? A. A voluntary guideline for using different modes or activities within an amateur band B. A mandated list of operating schedules C. A list of scheduled net frequencies D. A plan devised by a club to use a frequency band during a contest share/T/T6C020000644000175000017500000000013611566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT6C02 (A) What is component 1 in figure T1? A. Resistor B. Transistor C. Battery D. Connector share/T/T2C050000644000175000017500000000061411566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT2C05 (B) [97.3(a)(37), 97.407 ] What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service? A. An emergency radio service organized by amateur operators B. A radio service using amateur stations for emergency management or civil defense communications C. A radio service organized to provide communications at civic events D. A radio service organized by amateur operators to assist non-military persons share/T/T5C090000644000175000017500000000026211566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT5C09 (A) How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 13.8 volts DC and the current is 10 amperes? A. 138 watts B. 0.7 watts C. 23.8 watts D. 3.8 watts share/T/T0B100000644000175000017500000000042211566750314011212 0ustar jtnjtnT0B10 (C) Which of the following is true concerning grounding conductors used for lightning protection? A. Only non-insulated wire must be used B. Wires must be carefully routed with precise right-angle bends C. Sharp bends must be avoided D. Common grounds must be avoided share/T/T1F100000644000175000017500000000045611566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT1F10 (A) [97.205(g)] Who is accountable should a repeater inadvertently retransmit communications that violate the FCC rules? A. The control operator of the originating station B. The control operator of the repeater C. The owner of the repeater D. Both the originating station and the repeater owner share/T/T9A010000644000175000017500000000036711566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT9A01 (C) What is a beam antenna? A. An antenna built from aluminum I-beams B. An omnidirectional antenna invented by Clarence Beam C. An antenna that concentrates signals in one direction D. An antenna that reverses the phase of received signals share/T/T3B090000644000175000017500000000020511566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT3B09 (D) What are the frequency limits of the UHF spectrum? A. 30 to 300 kHz B. 30 to 300 MHz C. 300 to 3000 kHz D. 300 to 3000 MHz share/T/T6C100000644000175000017500000000015511566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT6C10 (D) What is component 3 in figure T3? A. Connector B. Meter C. Variable capacitor D. Variable inductor share/T/T6B110000644000175000017500000000022411566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT6B11 (B) Which semiconductor component has a gate electrode? A. Bipolar transistor B. Field effect transistor C. Silicon diode D. Bridge rectifier share/T/T1F110000644000175000017500000000044611566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT1F11 (A) [97.115(a)] To which foreign stations do the FCC rules authorize the transmission of non-emergency third party communications? A. Any station whose government permits such communications B. Those in ITU Region 2 only C. Those in ITU Regions 2 and 3 only D. Those in ITU Region 3 only share/T/T1C010000644000175000017500000000024011566750314011212 0ustar jtnjtnT1C01 (C) [97.3(a)(11)(iii)] Which type of call sign has a single letter in both the prefix and suffix? A. Vanity B. Sequential C. Special event D. In-memoriam share/T/T6C130000644000175000017500000000034711566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT6C13 (C) Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical circuit schematic diagrams? A. Wire lengths B. Physical appearance of components C. The way components are interconnected D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T1F060000644000175000017500000000035011566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT1F06 (D) [97.119(c)] Which of the following formats of a self-assigned indicator is acceptable when identifying using a phone transmission? A. KL7CC stroke W3 B. KL7CC slant W3 C. KL7CC slash W3 D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T9B110000644000175000017500000000030611566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT9B11 (C) Which of the following types of feedline has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF? A. 50-ohm flexible coax B. Multi-conductor unbalanced cable C. Air-insulated hard line D. 75-ohm flexible coax share/T/T5D100000644000175000017500000000022611566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT5D10 (A) What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it? A. 1 volt B. 0.25 volts C. 2.5 volts D. 1.5 volts share/T/T3B100000644000175000017500000000017311566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT3B10 (C) What frequency range is referred to as HF? A. 300 to 3000 MHz B. 30 to 300 MHz C. 3 to 30 MHz D. 300 to 3000 kHz share/T/T8B040000644000175000017500000000061211566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT8B04 (B) Which amateur stations may make contact with an amateur station on the International Space Station using 2 meter and 70 cm band amateur radio frequencies? A. Only members of amateur radio clubs at NASA facilities B. Any amateur holding a Technician or higher class license C. Only the astronaut's family members who are hams D. You cannot talk to the ISS on amateur radio frequencies share/T/T3C050000644000175000017500000000056211566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT3C05 (C) What is meant by the term "knife-edge" propagation? A. Signals are reflected back toward the originating station at acute angles B. Signals are sliced into several discrete beams and arrive via different paths C. Signals are partially refracted around solid objects exhibiting sharp edges D. Signals propagated close to the band edge exhibiting a sharp cutoff share/T/T6B090000644000175000017500000000021311566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT6B09 (C) What are the names of the two electrodes of a diode? A. Plus and minus B. Source and drain C. Anode and cathode D. Gate and base share/T/T6D050000644000175000017500000000021211566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT6D05 (A) What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from a power supply? A. Regulator B. Oscillator C. Filter D. Phase inverter share/T/T6D080000644000175000017500000000022511566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT6D08 (D) Which of the following is used together with an inductor to make a tuned circuit? A. Resistor B. Zener diode C. Potentiometer D. Capacitor share/T/T9A030000644000175000017500000000035511566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT9A03 (B) Which of the following describes a simple dipole mounted so the conductor is parallel to the Earth's surface? A. A ground wave antenna B. A horizontally polarized antenna C. A rhombic antenna D. A vertically polarized antenna share/T/T2C040000644000175000017500000000050611566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT2C04 (D) What do RACES and ARES have in common? A. They represent the two largest ham clubs in the United States B. Both organizations broadcast road and weather traffic information C. Neither may handle emergency traffic supporting public service agencies D. Both organizations may provide communications during emergencies share/T/T1E060000644000175000017500000000035511566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT1E06 (B) [97.109(d)] Under which of the following types of control is it permissible for the control operator to be at a location other than the control point? A. Local control B. Automatic control C. Remote control D. Indirect control share/T/T8D070000644000175000017500000000032311566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT8D07 (D) What is PSK31? A. A high-rate data transmission mode B. A method of reducing noise interference to FM signals C. A method of compressing digital television signal D. A low-rate data transmission mode share/T/T7A080000644000175000017500000000024211566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT7A08 (C) Which of the following circuits combines a speech signal and an RF carrier? A. Beat frequency oscillator B. Discriminator C. Modulator D. Noise blanker share/T/T1A020000644000175000017500000000024511566750314011216 0ustar jtnjtnT1A02 (C) [97.1] What agency regulates and enforces the rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States? A. FEMA B. The ITU C. The FCC D. Homeland Security share/T/T5B010000644000175000017500000000020411566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT5B01 (C) How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes? A. 15 milliamperes B. 150 milliamperes C. 1,500 milliamperes D. 15,000 milliamperes share/T/T6B010000644000175000017500000000025611566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT6B01 (D) What class of electronic components is capable of using a voltage or current signal to control current flow? A. Capacitors B. Inductors C. Resistors D. Transistors share/T/T8D050000644000175000017500000000026411566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT8D05 (B) Which of the following emission modes may be used by a Technician Class operator between 219 and 220 MHz? A. Spread spectrum B. Data C. SSB voice D. Fast-scan television share/T/T1E020000644000175000017500000000064511566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT1E02 (D) [97.7(a)] Who is eligible to be the control operator of an amateur station? A. Only a person holding an amateur service license from any country that belongs to the United Nations B. Only a citizen of the United States C. Only a person over the age of 18 D. Only a person for whom an amateur operator/primary station license grant appears in the FCC database or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation share/T/T6C090000644000175000017500000000016711566750314011237 0ustar jtnjtnT6C09 (D) What is component 4 in figure T2? A. Variable inductor B. Double-pole switch C. Potentiometer D. Transformer share/T/T8B080000644000175000017500000000055611566750314011241 0ustar jtnjtnT8B08 (B) What is meant by the statement that a satellite is operating in "mode U/V"? A. The satellite uplink is in the 15 meter band and the downlink is in the 10 meter band B. The satellite uplink is in the 70 cm band and the downlink is in the 2 meter band C. The satellite operates using ultraviolet frequencies D. The satellite frequencies are usually variable share/T/T7D020000644000175000017500000000030411566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT7D02 (B) What is the correct way to connect a voltmeter to a circuit? A. In series with the circuit B. In parallel with the circuit C. In quadrature with the circuit D. In phase with the circuit share/T/T8D030000644000175000017500000000041111566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT8D03 (D) Which of the following is normally used when sending automatic location reports via amateur radio? A. A connection to the vehicle speedometer B. A WWV receiver C. A connection to a broadcast FM sub-carrier receiver D. A Global Positioning System receiver share/T/T6A090000644000175000017500000000022311566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT6A09 (A) What electrical component is used to protect other circuit components from current overloads? A. Fuse B. Capacitor C. Shield D. Inductor share/T/T6A110000644000175000017500000000016011566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT6A11 (B) Which battery type is not rechargeable? A. Nickel-cadmium B. Carbon-zinc C. Lead-acid D. Lithium-ion share/T/T5B030000644000175000017500000000022411566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT5B03 (C) How many volts are equal to one kilovolt? A. One one-thousandth of a volt B. One hundred volts C. One thousand volts D. One million volts share/T/T1E050000644000175000017500000000044211566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT1E05 (C) [97.3(a)(14)] What is an amateur station control point? A. The location of the station's transmitting antenna B. The location of the station transmitting apparatus C. The location at which the control operator function is performed D. The mailing address of the station licensee share/T/T1C100000644000175000017500000000054511566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT1C10 (C) [97.5a] How soon may you operate a transmitter on an amateur service frequency after you pass the examination required for your first amateur radio license? A. Immediately B. 30 days after the test date C. As soon as your name and call sign appear in the FCC's ULS database D. You must wait until you receive your license in the mail from the FCC share/T/T1B040000644000175000017500000000025211566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT1B04 (A) [97.301(a)] Which amateur band are you using when your station is transmitting on 146.52 MHz? A. 2 meter band B. 20 meter band C. 14 meter band D. 6 meter band share/T/T0C030000644000175000017500000000041511566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT0C03 (C) What is the maximum power level that an amateur radio station may use at VHF frequencies before an RF exposure evaluation is required? A. 1500 watts PEP transmitter output B. 1 watt forward power C. 50 watts PEP at the antenna D. 50 watts PEP reflected power share/T/T7C070000644000175000017500000000032111566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT7C07 (C) What happens to power lost in a feedline? A. It increases the SWR B. It comes back into your transmitter and could cause damage C. It is converted into heat D. It can cause distortion of your signal share/T/T0B030000644000175000017500000000041011566750314011211 0ustar jtnjtnT0B03 (D) Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer? A. When no electrical work is being performed B. When no mechanical work is being performed C. When the work being done is not more than 20 feet above the ground D. Never share/T/T8B020000644000175000017500000000047411566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT8B02 (B) [97.313(a)] How much transmitter power should be used on the uplink frequency of an amateur satellite or space station? A. The maximum power of your transmitter B. The minimum amount of power needed to complete the contact C. No more than half the rating of your linear amplifier D. Never more than 1 watt share/T/T3A020000644000175000017500000000053211566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT3A02 (B) Why are UHF signals often more effective from inside buildings than VHF signals? A. VHF signals lose power faster over distance B. The shorter wavelength allows them to more easily penetrate the structure of buildings C. This is incorrect; VHF works better than UHF inside buildings D. UHF antennas are more efficient than VHF antennas share/T/T6D060000644000175000017500000000025411566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT6D06 (B) What component is commonly used to change 120V AC house current to a lower AC voltage for other uses? A. Variable capacitor B. Transformer C. Transistor D. Diode share/T/T6D070000644000175000017500000000017411566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT6D07 (A) Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator? A. LED B. FET C. Zener diode D. Bipolar transistor share/T/T2A010000644000175000017500000000024011566750314011211 0ustar jtnjtnT2A01 (B) What is the most common repeater frequency offset in the 2 meter band? A. plus 500 kHz B. plus or minus 600 kHz C. minus 500 kHz D. Only plus 600 kHz share/T/T6D090000644000175000017500000000027211566750314011235 0ustar jtnjtnT6D09 (C) What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package? A. Transducer B. Multi-pole relay C. Integrated circuit D. Transformer share/T/T2B040000644000175000017500000000057511566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT2B04 (D) Which of the following common problems might cause you to be able to hear but not access a repeater even when transmitting with the proper offset? A. The repeater receiver requires audio tone burst for access B. The repeater receiver requires a CTCSS tone for access C. The repeater receiver may require a DCS tone sequence for access D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T9B030000644000175000017500000000053511566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT9B03 (A) Why is coaxial cable used more often than any other feedline for amateur radio antenna systems? A. It is easy to use and requires few special installation considerations B. It has less loss than any other type of feedline C. It can handle more power than any other type of feedline D. It is less expensive than any other types of feedline share/T/T2C080000644000175000017500000000061511566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT2C08 (A) What is usually considered to be the most important job of an amateur operator when handling emergency traffic messages? A. Passing messages exactly as written, spoken or as received B. Estimating the number of people affected by the disaster C. Communicating messages to the news media for broadcast outside the disaster area D. Broadcasting emergency information to the general public share/T/T0C110000644000175000017500000000055211566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT0C11 (C) What is meant by "duty cycle" when referring to RF exposure? A. The difference between lowest usable output and maximum rated output power of a transmitter B. The difference between PEP and average power of an SSB signal C. The ratio of on-air time to total operating time of a transmitted signal D. The amount of time the operator spends transmitting share/T/T1B020000644000175000017500000000017311566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT1B02 (B) North American amateur stations are located in which ITU region? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 share/T/T6A010000644000175000017500000000021711566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT6A01 (B) What electrical component is used to oppose the flow of current in a DC circuit? A. Inductor B. Resistor C. Voltmeter D. Transformer share/T/T5D080000644000175000017500000000023211566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT5D08 (C) What is the current flowing through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts? A. 20,000 amperes B. 0.5 amperes C. 2 amperes D. 100 amperes share/T/T3C110000644000175000017500000000054011566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT3C11 (C) Why do VHF and UHF radio signals usually travel somewhat farther than the visual line of sight distance between two stations? A. Radio signals move somewhat faster than the speed of light B. Radio waves are not blocked by dust particles C. The Earth seems less curved to radio waves than to light D. Radio waves are blocked by dust particles share/T/T7C090000644000175000017500000000026411566750314011236 0ustar jtnjtnT7C09 (A) Which of the following is the most common cause for failure of coaxial cables? A. Moisture contamination B. Gamma rays C. The velocity factor exceeds 1.0 D. Overloading share/T/T6B050000644000175000017500000000023711566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT6B05 (A) Which of the following electronic components can amplify signals? A. Transistor B. Variable resistor C. Electrolytic capacitor D. Multi-cell battery share/T/T2B110000644000175000017500000000015711566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT2B11 (B) What is the "Q" signal used to indicate that you are changing frequency? A. QRU B. QSY C. QSL D. QRZ share/T/T8C050000644000175000017500000000040611566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT8C05 (A) What is a grid locator? A. A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location B. A letter-number designator assigned to an azimuth and elevation C. An instrument for neutralizing a final amplifier D. An instrument for radio direction finding share/T/T1D100000644000175000017500000000046511566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT1D10 (D) [97.3(a)(10)] What is the meaning of the term broadcasting in the FCC rules for the amateur services? A. Two-way transmissions by amateur stations B. Transmission of music C. Transmission of messages directed only to amateur operators D. Transmissions intended for reception by the general public share/T/T4A070000644000175000017500000000060011566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT4A07 (C) How is the computer's sound card used when conducting digital communications using a computer? A. The sound card communicates between the computer CPU and the video display B. The sound card records the audio frequency for video display C. The sound card provides audio to the microphone input and converts received audio to digital form D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T8D080000644000175000017500000000045011566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT8D08 (D) Which of the following may be included in packet transmissions? A. A check sum which permits error detection B. A header which contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent C. Automatic repeat request in case of error D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T1C040000644000175000017500000000054111566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT1C04 (A) When are you allowed to operate your amateur station in a foreign country? A. When the foreign country authorizes it B. When there is a mutual agreement allowing third party communications C. When authorization permits amateur communications in a foreign language D. When you are communicating with non-licensed individuals in another country share/T/T4B050000644000175000017500000000030411566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT4B05 (C) Which of the following would reduce ignition interference to a receiver? A. Change frequency slightly B. Decrease the squelch setting C. Turn on the noise blanker D. Use the RIT control share/T/T1B050000644000175000017500000000026511566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT1B05 (C) [97.301(a)] Which 70 cm frequency is authorized to a Technician Class license holder operating in ITU Region 2? A. 53.350 MHz B. 146.520 MHz C. 443.350 MHz D. 222.520 MHz share/T/T0A040000644000175000017500000000036011566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT0A04 (B) What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit? A. To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a circuit B. To interrupt power in case of overload C. To limit current to prevent shocks D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T1D090000644000175000017500000000110311566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT1D09 (A) [97.113(b)] Under which of the following circumstances are amateur stations authorized to transmit signals related to broadcasting, program production, or news gathering, assuming no other means is available? A. Only where such communications directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property B. Only when broadcasting communications to or from the space shuttle. C. Only where noncommercial programming is gathered and supplied exclusively to the National Public Radio network D. Only when using amateur repeaters linked to the Internet share/T/T5C050000644000175000017500000000011511566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT5C05 (A) What is the unit of frequency? A. Hertz B. Henry C. Farad D. Tesla share/T/T8C020000644000175000017500000000030011566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT8C02 (B) Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt? A. Calibrated SWR meter B. A directional antenna C. A calibrated noise bridge D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T4B080000644000175000017500000000057211566750314011233 0ustar jtnjtnT4B08 (B) What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver? A. Permits monitoring several modes at once B. Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode C. Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory D. Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies share/T/T2A060000644000175000017500000000047311566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT2A06 (A) What must an amateur operator do when making on-air transmissions to test equipment or antennas? A. Properly identify the transmitting station B. Make test transmissions only after 10:00 p.m. local time C. Notify the FCC of the test transmission D. State the purpose of the test during the test procedure share/T/T7B040000644000175000017500000000041311566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT7B04 (B) What is the most likely cause of interference to a non-cordless telephone from a nearby transmitter? A. Harmonics from the transmitter B. The telephone is inadvertently acting as a radio receiver C. Poor station grounding D. Improper transmitter adjustment share/T/T1C080000644000175000017500000000022711566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT1C08 (C) [97.25] What is the normal term for an FCC-issued primary station/operator license grant? A. Five years B. Life C. Ten years D. Twenty years share/T/T9B010000644000175000017500000000041211566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT9B01 (B) Why is it important to have a low SWR in an antenna system that uses coaxial cable feedline? A. To reduce television interference B. To allow the efficient transfer of power and reduce losses C. To prolong antenna life D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T1A050000644000175000017500000000047611566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT1A05 (D) [97.3(a)(40)] What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a space station? A. Any multi-stage satellite B. An Earth satellite that carries one of more amateur operators C. An amateur station located less than 25 km above the Earth's surface D. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface share/T/T1F130000644000175000017500000000046311566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT1F13 (B) [97.103(c)] When must the station licensee make the station and its records available for FCC inspection? A. Any time upon request by an official observer B. Any time upon request by an FCC representative C. 30 days prior to renewal of the station license D. 10 days before the first transmission share/T/T5D070000644000175000017500000000026111566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT5D07 (D) What is the current flow in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms? A. 9600 amperes B. 200 amperes C. 0.667 amperes D. 1.5 amperes share/T/T8A060000644000175000017500000000026711566750314011235 0ustar jtnjtnT8A06 (A) Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF and UHF single-sideband communications? A. Upper sideband B. Lower sideband C. Suppressed sideband D. Inverted sideband share/T/T3A050000644000175000017500000000052111566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT3A05 (B) When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to access a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path? A. Change from vertical to horizontal polarization B. Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater C. Try the long path D. Increase the antenna SWR share/T/T2C110000644000175000017500000000062211566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT2C11 (A) What is meant by the term "check" in reference to a formal traffic message? A. The check is a count of the number of words or word equivalents in the text portion of the message B. The check is the value of a money order attached to the message C. The check is a list of stations that have relayed the message D. The check is a box on the message form that tells you the message was received share/T/T1C020000644000175000017500000000016711566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT1C02 (B) Which of the following is a valid US amateur radio station call sign? A. KMA3505 B. W3ABC C. KDKA D. 11Q1176 share/T/T8A040000644000175000017500000000016411566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT8A04 (D) Which type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters? A. AM B. SSB C. PSK D. FM share/T/T0B020000644000175000017500000000040511566750314011214 0ustar jtnjtnT0B02 (C) What is a good precaution to observe before climbing an antenna tower? A. Make sure that you wear a grounded wrist strap B. Remove all tower grounding connections C. Put on a climbing harness and safety glasses D. All of the these choices are correct share/T/T1A010000644000175000017500000000063111566750314011214 0ustar jtnjtnT1A01 (D) [97.3(a)(4)] For whom is the Amateur Radio Service intended? A. Persons who have messages to broadcast to the public B. Persons who need communications for the activities of their immediate family members, relatives and friends C. Persons who need two-way communications for personal reasons D. Persons who are interested in radio technique solely with a personal aim and without pecuniary interest share/T/T3B050000644000175000017500000000046411566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT3B05 (B) How does the wavelength of a radio wave relate to its frequency? A. The wavelength gets longer as the frequency increases B. The wavelength gets shorter as the frequency increases C. There is no relationship between wavelength and frequency D. The wavelength depends on the bandwidth of the signal share/T/T8C090000644000175000017500000000032511566750314011235 0ustar jtnjtnT8C09 (C) How might you obtain a list of active nodes that use VoIP? A. From the FCC Rulebook B. From your local emergency coordinator C. From a repeater directory D. From the local repeater frequency coordinator share/T/T0A070000644000175000017500000000107211566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT0A07 (D) Which of these precautions should be taken when installing devices for lightning protection in a coaxial cable feedline? A. Include a parallel bypass switch for each protector so that it can be switched out of the circuit when running high power B. Include a series switch in the ground line of each protector to prevent RF overload from inadvertently damaging the protector C. Keep the ground wires from each protector separate and connected to station ground D. Ground all of the protectors to a common plate which is in turn connected to an external ground share/T/T6A040000644000175000017500000000016611566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT6A04 (B) What electrical component stores energy in an electric field? A. Resistor B. Capacitor C. Inductor D. Diode share/T/T0B110000644000175000017500000000036011566750314011214 0ustar jtnjtnT0B11 (B) Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna? A. FCC Part 97 Rules B. Local electrical codes C. FAA tower lighting regulations D. Underwriters Laboratories' recommended practices share/T/T8A030000644000175000017500000000023111566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT8A03 (C) Which type of voice modulation is most often used for long-distance or weak signal contacts on the VHF and UHF bands? A. FM B. AM C. SSB D. PM share/T/T4B060000644000175000017500000000034411566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT4B06 (D) Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal seems too high or low? A. The AGC or limiter B. The bandwidth selection C. The tone squelch D. The receiver RIT or clarifier share/T/T0B070000644000175000017500000000047411566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT0B07 (C) Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower? A. This type of tower must never be painted B. This type of tower must never be grounded C. This type of tower must never be climbed unless it is in the fully retracted position D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T2A080000644000175000017500000000032711566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT2A08 (D) What is the meaning of the procedural signal "CQ"? A. Call on the quarter hour B. A new antenna is being tested (no station should answer) C. Only the called station should transmit D. Calling any station share/T/T0C060000644000175000017500000000050211566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT0C06 (D) Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations? A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65 B. By calculation based on computer modeling C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T8D090000644000175000017500000000016611566750314011241 0ustar jtnjtnT8D09 (C) What code is used when sending CW in the amateur bands? A. Baudot B. Hamming C. International Morse D. Gray share/T/T1A060000644000175000017500000000052011566750314011216 0ustar jtnjtnT1A06 (C) [97.3(a)(43)] What is the FCC Part 97 definition of telecommand? A. An instruction bulletin issued by the FCC B. A one-way radio transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument C. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a device at a distance D. An instruction from a VEC share/T/T3A010000644000175000017500000000060111566750314011213 0ustar jtnjtnT3A01 (D) What should you do if another operator reports that your station's 2 meter signals were strong just a moment ago, but now they are weak or distorted? A. Change the batteries in your radio to a different type B. Turn on the CTCSS tone C. Ask the other operator to adjust his squelch control D. Try moving a few feet, as random reflections may be causing multi-path distortion share/T/T1B060000644000175000017500000000022411566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT1B06 (B) [97.301(a)] Which 23 cm frequency is authorized to a Technician Class operator license? A. 2315 MHz B. 1296 MHz C. 3390 MHz D. 146.52 MHz share/T/T2A040000644000175000017500000000053511566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT2A04 (B) What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station's call sign? A. Say "break, break" then say the station's call sign B. Say the station's call sign then identify with your call sign C. Say "CQ" three times then the other station's call sign D. Wait for the station to call "CQ" then answer it share/T/T7A070000644000175000017500000000040211566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT7A07 (B) If figure T5 represents a transceiver in which block 1 is the transmitter portion and block 3 is the receiver portion, what is the function of block 2? A. A balanced modulator B. A transmit-receive switch C. A power amplifier D. A high-pass filter share/T/T9A100000644000175000017500000000034311566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT9A10 (C) In which direction is the radiation strongest from a half-wave dipole antenna in free space? A. Equally in all directions B. Off the ends of the antenna C. Broadside to the antenna D. In the direction of the feedline share/T/T8C100000644000175000017500000000034311566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT8C10 (D) How do you select a specific IRLP node when using a portable transceiver? A. Choose a specific CTCSS tone B. Choose the correct DSC tone C. Access the repeater autopatch D. Use the keypad to transmit the IRLP node ID share/T/T7D110000644000175000017500000000046311566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT7D11 (B) Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring circuit resistance with an ohmmeter? A. Ensure that the applied voltages are correct B. Ensure that the circuit is not powered C. Ensure that the circuit is grounded D. Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency share/T/T3A090000644000175000017500000000057011566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT3A09 (B) Which of the following is a common effect of "skip" reflections between the Earth and the ionosphere? A. The sidebands become reversed at each reflection B. The polarization of the original signal is randomized C. The apparent frequency of the received signal is shifted by a random amount D. Signals at frequencies above 30 MHz become stronger with each reflection share/T/T3A030000644000175000017500000000031311566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT3A03 (C) What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF and UHF bands? A. Right-hand circular B. Left-hand circular C. Horizontal D. Vertical share/T/T1A080000644000175000017500000000042611566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT1A08 (B) [97.3(a)(22)] Which of the following entities recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations? A. Frequency Spectrum Manager B. Frequency Coordinator C. FCC Regional Field Office D. International Telecommunications Union share/T/T9A080000644000175000017500000000020411566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT9A08 (C) What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz? A. 112 B. 50 C. 19 D. 12 share/T/T0A120000644000175000017500000000053311566750314011216 0ustar jtnjtnT0A12 (D) What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it is turned off and disconnected? A. Static electricity could damage the grounding system B. Circulating currents inside the transformer might cause damage C. The fuse might blow if you remove the cover D. You might receive an electric shock from stored charge in large capacitors share/T/T1C090000644000175000017500000000030111566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT1C09 (A) [97.21(a)(b)] What is the grace period following the expiration of an amateur license within which the license may be renewed? A. Two years B. Three years C. Five years D. Ten years share/T/T5A010000644000175000017500000000015711566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT5A01 (D) Electrical current is measured in which of the following units? A. Volts B. Watts C. Ohms D. Amperes share/T/T8A020000644000175000017500000000020211566750314011216 0ustar jtnjtnT8A02 (A) What type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions? A. FM B. SSB C. AM D. Spread Spectrum share/T/T1F040000644000175000017500000000043411566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT1F04 (C) [97.119(b)] Which of the following is an acceptable language for use for station identification when operating in a phone sub-band? A. Any language recognized by the United Nations B. Any language recognized by the ITU C. The English language D. English, French, or Spanish share/T/T7A060000644000175000017500000000027211566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT7A06 (C) What device takes the output of a low-powered 28 MHz SSB exciter and produces a 222 MHz output signal? A. High-pass filter B. Low-pass filter C. Transverter D. Phase converter share/T/T3B010000644000175000017500000000022311566750314011214 0ustar jtnjtnT3B01 (C) What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle? A. Wave speed B. Waveform C. Wavelength D. Wave spread share/T/T3B060000644000175000017500000000053711566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT3B06 (D) What is the formula for converting frequency to wavelength in meters? A. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz multiplied by 300 B. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz divided by 300 C. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by 300 D. Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz share/T/T8B050000644000175000017500000000042511566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT8B05 (D) What is a satellite beacon? A. The primary transmit antenna on the satellite B. An indicator light that that shows where to point your antenna C. A reflective surface on the satellite D. A transmission from a space station that contains information about a satellite share/T/T7A020000644000175000017500000000025211566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT7A02 (C) What type of receiver is shown in Figure T6? A. Direct conversion B. Super-regenerative C. Single-conversion superheterodyne D. Dual-conversion superheterodyne share/T/T0A030000644000175000017500000000020711566750314011214 0ustar jtnjtnT0A03 (C) What is connected to the green wire in a three-wire electrical AC plug? A. Neutral B. Hot C. Safety ground D. The white wire share/T/T0C080000644000175000017500000000037411566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT0C08 (A) Which of the following actions might amateur operators take to prevent exposure to RF radiation in excess of FCC-supplied limits? A. Relocate antennas B. Relocate the transmitter C. Increase the duty cycle D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T7B070000644000175000017500000000035211566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT7B07 (D) Which of the following may be useful in correcting a radio frequency interference problem? A. Snap-on ferrite chokes B. Low-pass and high-pass filters C. Band-reject and band-pass filters D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T7C060000644000175000017500000000022611566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT7C06 (D) What does an SWR reading of 4:1 mean? A. An antenna loss of 4 dB B. A good impedance match C. An antenna gain of 4 D. An impedance mismatch share/T/T1A100000644000175000017500000000057511566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT1A10 (A) [97.3(a)(5)] What is the FCC Part 97 definition of an amateur station? A. A station in an Amateur Radio Service consisting of the apparatus necessary for carrying on radio communications B. A building where Amateur Radio receivers, transmitters, and RF power amplifiers are installed C. Any radio station operated by a non-professional D. Any radio station for hobby use share/T/T0B040000644000175000017500000000051111566750314011214 0ustar jtnjtnT0B04 (C) Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower? A. Wear a ground strap connected to your wrist at all times B. Insulate the base of the tower to avoid lightning strikes C. Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T1F030000644000175000017500000000051611566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT1F03 (D) [97.119(a)] When is an amateur station required to transmit its assigned call sign? A. At the beginning of each contact, and every 10 minutes thereafter B. At least once during each transmission C. At least every 15 minutes during and at the end of a contact D. At least every 10 minutes during and at the end of a contact share/T/T1C110000644000175000017500000000061011566750314011214 0ustar jtnjtnT1C11 (A) [97.21(b)] If your license has expired and is still within the allowable grace period, may you continue to operate a transmitter on amateur service frequencies? A. No, transmitting is not allowed until the ULS database shows that the license has been renewed B. Yes, but only if you identify using the suffix "GP" C. Yes, but only during authorized nets D. Yes, for up to two years share/T/T1B080000644000175000017500000000055111566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT1B08 (C) [97.303] What do the FCC rules mean when an amateur frequency band is said to be available on a secondary basis? A. Secondary users of a frequency have equal rights to operate B. Amateurs are only allowed to use the frequency at night C. Amateurs may not cause harmful interference to primary users D. Secondary users are not allowed on amateur bands share/T/T4A110000644000175000017500000000035211566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT4A11 (A) Where should a mobile transceiver's power negative connection be made? A. At the battery or engine block ground strap B. At the antenna mount C. To any metal part of the vehicle D. Through the transceiver's mounting bracket share/T/T1B110000644000175000017500000000027511566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT1B11 (A) [97.305 (a)(c)] What emission modes are permitted in the mode-restricted sub-bands at 50.0 to 50.1 MHz and 144.0 to 144.1 MHz? A. CW only B. CW and RTTY C. SSB only D. CW and SSB share/T/T9A070000644000175000017500000000045111566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT9A07 (A) What is a good reason not to use a "rubber duck" antenna inside your car? A. Signals can be significantly weaker than when it is outside of the vehicle B. It might cause your radio to overheat C. The SWR might decrease, decreasing the signal strength D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T6D040000644000175000017500000000021511566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT6D04 (C) Which of the following can be used to display signal strength on a numeric scale? A. Potentiometer B. Transistor C. Meter D. Relay share/T/T1B010000644000175000017500000000042111566750314011212 0ustar jtnjtnT1B01 (B) [97.3(a)(28)] What is the ITU? A. An agency of the United States Department of Telecommunications Management B. A United Nations agency for information and communication technology issues C. An independent frequency coordination agency D. A department of the FCC share/T/T6C080000644000175000017500000000020411566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT6C08 (C) What is component 9 in figure T2? A. Variable capacitor B. Variable inductor C. Variable resistor D. Variable transformer share/T/T1A070000644000175000017500000000052111566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT1A07 (C) [97.3(a)(45)] What is the FCC Part 97 definition of telemetry? A. An information bulletin issued by the FCC B. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a device at a distance C. A one-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument D. An information bulletin from a VEC share/T/T0C100000644000175000017500000000051411566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT0C10 (A) Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels? A. It affects the average exposure of people to radiation B. It affects the peak exposure of people to radiation C. It takes into account the antenna feedline loss D. It takes into account the thermal effects of the final amplifier share/T/T6B030000644000175000017500000000022011566750314011216 0ustar jtnjtnT6B03 (C) Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch or amplifier? A. Oscillator B. Potentiometer C. Transistor D. Voltmeter share/T/T5D110000644000175000017500000000021711566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT5D11 (B) What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it? A. 1 volt B. 10 volts C. 11 volts D. 9 volts share/T/T1A030000644000175000017500000000023211566750314011213 0ustar jtnjtnT1A03 (D) Which part of the FCC rules contains the rules and regulations governing the Amateur Radio Service? A. Part 73 B. Part 95 C. Part 90 D. Part 97 share/T/T7C020000644000175000017500000000031311566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT7C02 (B) Which of the following instruments can be used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency? A. A VTVM B. An antenna analyzer C. A "Q" meter D. A frequency counter share/T/T8B010000644000175000017500000000063311566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT8B01 (D) Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station? A. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator B. A General Class licensee or higher licensee who has a satellite operator certification C. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator who is also an AMSAT member D. Any amateur whose license privileges allow them to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency share/T/T0B060000644000175000017500000000051411566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT0B06 (D) What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna? A. Half the width of your property B. The height of the power line above ground C. 1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency D. So that if the antenna falls unexpectedly, no part of it can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires share/T/T3A070000644000175000017500000000025311566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT3A07 (A) What type of wave carries radio signals between transmitting and receiving stations? A. Electromagnetic B. Electrostatic C. Surface acoustic D. Magnetostrictive share/T/T7D030000644000175000017500000000027111566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT7D03 (A) How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit? A. In series with the circuit B. In parallel with the circuit C. In quadrature with the circuit D. In phase with the circuit share/T/T5D040000644000175000017500000000025211566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT5D04 (B) What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts? A. 3 ohms B. 30 ohms C. 93 ohms D. 270 ohms share/T/T6B040000644000175000017500000000024511566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT6B04 (B) Which of these components is made of three layers of semiconductor material? A. Alternator B. Bipolar junction transistor C. Triode D. Pentagrid converter share/T/T9B070000644000175000017500000000032611566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT9B07 (C) Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors? A. They are good for UHF frequencies B. They are water tight C. The are commonly used at HF frequencies D. They are a bayonet type connector share/T/T3C010000644000175000017500000000051511566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT3C01 (C) Why are "direct" (not via a repeater) UHF signals rarely heard from stations outside your local coverage area? A. They are too weak to go very far B. FCC regulations prohibit them from going more than 50 miles C. UHF signals are usually not reflected by the ionosphere D. They collide with trees and shrubbery and fade out share/T/T5C110000644000175000017500000000026111566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT5C11 (B) How many amperes are flowing in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the load is 120 watts? A. 0.1 amperes B. 10 amperes C. 12 amperes D. 132 amperes share/T/T2B070000644000175000017500000000052211566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT2B07 (D) What should you do if you receive a report that your station's transmissions are causing splatter or interference on nearby frequencies? A. Increase transmit power B. Change mode of transmission C. Report the interference to the equipment manufacturer D. Check your transmitter for off-frequency operation or spurious emissions share/T/T9A060000644000175000017500000000022611566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT9A06 (C) What type of antennas are the quad, Yagi, and dish? A. Non-resonant antennas B. Loop antennas C. Directional antennas D. Isotropic antennas share/T/T1F050000644000175000017500000000047311566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT1F05 (B) [97.119(b)] What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals? A. Send the call sign followed by the indicator RPT B. Send the call sign using CW or phone emission C. Send the call sign followed by the indicator R D. Send the call sign using only phone emission share/T/T2B020000644000175000017500000000030311566750314011213 0ustar jtnjtnT2B02 (D) What is the term used to describe the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver? A. Carrier squelch B. Tone burst C. DTMF D. CTCSS share/T/T7B080000644000175000017500000000065511566750314011240 0ustar jtnjtnT7B08 (D) What should you do if a "Part 15" device in your neighbor's home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station? A. Work with your neighbor to identify the offending device B. Politely inform your neighbor about the rules that require him to stop using the device if it causes interference C. Check your station and make sure it meets the standards of good amateur practice D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T3C020000644000175000017500000000050311566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT3C02 (D) Which of the following might be happening when VHF signals are being received from long distances? A. Signals are being reflected from outer space B. Signals are arriving by sub-surface ducting C. Signals are being reflected by lightning storms in your area D. Signals are being refracted from a sporadic E layer share/T/T5B080000644000175000017500000000021711566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT5B08 (B) How many microfarads are 1,000,000 picofarads? A. 0.001 microfarads B. 1 microfarad C. 1000 microfarads D. 1,000,000,000 microfarads share/T/T8A090000644000175000017500000000024711566750314011236 0ustar jtnjtnT8A09 (C) What is the approximate bandwidth of a VHF repeater FM phone signal? A. Less than 500 Hz B. About 150 kHz C. Between 5 and 15 kHz D. Between 50 and 125 kHz share/T/T2C090000644000175000017500000000067011566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT2C09 (B) [97.403] When may an amateur station use any means of radio communications at its disposal for essential communications in connection with immediate safety of human life and protection of property? A. Only when FEMA authorizes it by declaring an emergency B. When normal communications systems are not available C. Only when RACES authorizes it by declaring an emergency D. Only when authorized by the local MARS program director share/T/T8D010000644000175000017500000000022211566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT8D01 (D) Which of the following is an example of a digital communications method? A. Packet B. PSK31 C. MFSK D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T5C010000644000175000017500000000020411566750314011216 0ustar jtnjtnT5C01 (D) What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called? A. Inductance B. Resistance C. Tolerance D. Capacitance share/T/T1E090000644000175000017500000000026011566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT1E09 (D) [97.109(a)] What type of control is being used when transmitting using a handheld radio? A. Radio control B. Unattended control C. Automatic control D. Local control share/T/T1F120000644000175000017500000000030711566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT1F12 (B) [97.5(b)(2)] How many persons are required to be members of a club for a club station license to be issued by the FCC? A. At least 5 B. At least 4 C. A trustee and 2 officers D. At least 2 share/T/T3B070000644000175000017500000000037711566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT3B07 (A) What property of radio waves is often used to identify the different frequency bands? A. The approximate wavelength B. The magnetic intensity of waves C. The time it takes for waves to travel one mile D. The voltage standing wave ratio of waves share/T/T5D020000644000175000017500000000045611566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT5D02 (A) What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit? A. Voltage (E) equals current (I) multiplied by resistance (R) B. Voltage (E) equals current (I) divided by resistance (R) C. Voltage (E) equals current (I) added to resistance (R) D. Voltage (E) equals current (I) minus resistance (R) share/T/T5B110000644000175000017500000000024311566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT5B11 (A) What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts? A. 10 dB B. 12 dB C. 18 dB D. 28 dB share/T/T1A110000644000175000017500000000035111566750314011214 0ustar jtnjtnT1A11 (C) [97.3(a)(7)] Which of the following stations transmits signals over the air from a remote receive site to a repeater for retransmission? A. Beacon station B. Relay station C. Auxiliary station D. Message forwarding station share/T/T8A070000644000175000017500000000037511566750314011236 0ustar jtnjtnT8A07 (C) What is the primary advantage of single sideband over FM for voice transmissions? A. SSB signals are easier to tune B. SSB signals are less susceptible to interference C. SSB signals have narrower bandwidth D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T9B040000644000175000017500000000050611566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT9B04 (A) What does an antenna tuner do? A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations C. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive D. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used share/T/T6B100000644000175000017500000000023011566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT6B10 (A) Which semiconductor component has an emitter electrode? A. Bipolar transistor B. Field effect transistor C. Silicon diode D. Bridge rectifier share/T/T7A120000644000175000017500000000023711566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT7A12 (C) Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals? A. Tuning rate B. Sensitivity C. Selectivity D. Noise floor share/T/T5D120000644000175000017500000000022311566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT5D12 (D) What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it? A. 8 volts B. 0.2 volts C. 12 volts D. 20 volts share/T/T2B090000644000175000017500000000045111566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT2B09 (A) [97.119(b)(2)] Which of the following methods is encouraged by the FCC when identifying your station when using phone? A. Use of a phonetic alphabet B. Send your call sign in CW as well as voice C. Repeat your call sign three times D. Increase your signal to full power when identifying share/T/T2C060000644000175000017500000000070111566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT2C06 (C) Which of the following is common practice during net operations to get the immediate attention of the net control station when reporting an emergency? A. Repeat the words SOS three times followed by the call sign of the reporting station B. Press the push-to-talk button three times C. Begin your transmission with "Priority" or "Emergency" followed by your call sign D. Play a pre-recorded emergency alert tone followed by your call sign share/T/T5C100000644000175000017500000000026211566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT5C10 (B) How much power is being used in a circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the current is 2.5 amperes? A. 4.8 watts B. 30 watts C. 14.5 watts D. 0.208 watts share/T/T0A060000644000175000017500000000046211566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT0A06 (D) What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station? A. Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC powered equipment B. Connect all AC powered station equipment to a common safety ground C. Use a circuit protected by a ground-fault interrupter D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T2A070000644000175000017500000000063211566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT2A07 (D) Which of the following is true when making a test transmission? A. Station identification is not required if the transmission is less than 15 seconds B. Station identification is not required if the transmission is less than 1 watt C. Station identification is required only if your station can be heard D. Station identification is required at least every ten minutes during the test and at the end share/T/T1E010000644000175000017500000000043111566750314011216 0ustar jtnjtnT1E01 (A) [97.7(a)] When must an amateur station have a control operator? A. Only when the station is transmitting B. Only when the station is being locally controlled C. Only when the station is being remotely controlled D. Only when the station is being automatically controlled share/T/T3A110000644000175000017500000000026011566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT3A11 (C) Which part of the atmosphere enables the propagation of radio signals around the world? A. The stratosphere B. The troposphere C. The ionosphere D. The magnetosphere share/T/T4A080000644000175000017500000000023711566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT4A08 (D) Which type of conductor is best to use for RF grounding? A. Round stranded wire B. Round copper-clad steel wire C. Twisted-pair cable D. Flat strap share/T/T1E100000644000175000017500000000033311566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT1E10 (B) [97.3] What type of control is used when the control operator is not at the station location but can indirectly manipulate the operating adjustments of a station? A. Local B. Remote C. Automatic D. Unattended share/T/T5D060000644000175000017500000000020411566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT5D06 (A) What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source? A. 3 ohms B. 16 ohms C. 48 ohms D. 8 Ohms share/T/T8C010000644000175000017500000000026311566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT8C01 (C) Which of the following methods is used to locate sources of noise interference or jamming? A. Echolocation B. Doppler radar C. Radio direction finding D. Phase locking share/T/T9B100000644000175000017500000000046311566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT9B10 (C) What electrical difference exists between the smaller RG-58 and larger RG-8 coaxial cables? A. There is no significant difference between the two types B. RG-58 cable has less loss at a given frequency C. RG-8 cable has less loss at a given frequency D. RG-58 cable can handle higher power levels share/T/T2B050000644000175000017500000000042311566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT2B05 (C) What determines the amount of deviation of an FM signal? A. Both the frequency and amplitude of the modulating signal B. The frequency of the modulating signal C. The amplitude of the modulating signal D. The relative phase of the modulating signal and the carrier share/T/T0C090000644000175000017500000000046311566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT0C09 (B) How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations? A. By informing the FCC of any changes made in your station B. By re-evaluating the station whenever an item of equipment is changed C. By making sure your antennas have low SWR D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T1F090000644000175000017500000000035711566750314011236 0ustar jtnjtnT1F09 (C) [97.3(a)(39)] What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels? A. Beacon station B. Earth station C. Repeater station D. Message forwarding station share/T/T6C070000644000175000017500000000015411566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT6C07 (D) What is component 8 in figure T2? A. Resistor B. Inductor C. Regulator IC D. Light emitting diode share/T/T9B060000644000175000017500000000030111566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT9B06 (B) Which of the following connectors is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz? A. A UHF (PL-259/SO-239) connector B. A Type N connector C. An RS-213 connector D. A DB-23 connector share/T/T7C050000644000175000017500000000027611566750314011235 0ustar jtnjtnT7C05 (A) What is the approximate SWR value above which the protection circuits in most solid-state transmitters begin to reduce transmitter power? A. 2 to 1 B. 1 to 2 C. 6 to 1 D. 10 to 1 share/T/T6D030000644000175000017500000000026511566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT6D03 (A) What type of switch is represented by item 3 in figure T2? A. Single-pole single-throw B. Single-pole double-throw C. Double-pole single-throw D. Double-pole double-throw share/T/T3A040000644000175000017500000000046011566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT3A04 (B) What can happen if the antennas at opposite ends of a VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using the same polarization? A. The modulation sidebands might become inverted B. Signals could be significantly weaker C. Signals have an echo effect on voices D. Nothing significant will happen share/T/T6A100000644000175000017500000000020211566750314011213 0ustar jtnjtnT6A10 (B) What is the nominal voltage of a fully charged nickel-cadmium cell? A. 1.0 volts B. 1.2 volts C. 1.5 volts D. 2.2 volts share/T/T7B030000644000175000017500000000026011566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT7B03 (D) Which of the following may be a cause of radio frequency interference? A. Fundamental overload B. Harmonics C. Spurious emissions D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T5C080000644000175000017500000000044611566750314011235 0ustar jtnjtnT5C08 (A) What is the formula used to calculate electrical power in a DC circuit? A. Power (P) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I) B. Power (P) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I) C. Power (P) equals voltage (E) minus current (I) D. Power (P) equals voltage (E) plus current (I) share/T/T9A090000644000175000017500000000017711566750314011241 0ustar jtnjtnT9A09 (C) What is the approximate length, in inches, of a 6 meter 1/2-wavelength wire dipole antenna? A. 6 B. 50 C. 112 D. 236 share/T/T7A110000644000175000017500000000020411566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT7A11 (B) Which of the following circuits demodulates FM signals? A. Limiter B. Discriminator C. Product detector D. Phase inverter share/T/T0B090000644000175000017500000000043711566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT0B09 (C) Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole? A. The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages B. The utility company will charge you an extra monthly fee C. The antenna could contact high-voltage power wires D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T1B030000644000175000017500000000017011566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT1B03 (B) [97.301(a)] Which frequency is within the 6 meter band? A. 49.00 MHz B. 52.525 MHz C. 28.50 MHz D. 222.15 MHz share/T/T0C070000644000175000017500000000043111566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT0C07 (B) What could happen if a person accidentally touched your antenna while you were transmitting? A. Touching the antenna could cause television interference B. They might receive a painful RF burn C. They might develop radiation poisoning D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T4B030000644000175000017500000000040511566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT4B03 (D) What is the purpose of the squelch control on a transceiver? A. To set the highest level of volume desired B. To set the transmitter power level C. To adjust the automatic gain control D. To mute receiver output noise when no signal is being received share/T/T7D070000644000175000017500000000027211566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT7D07 (D) Which of the following measurements are commonly made using a multimeter? A. SWR and RF power B. Signal strength and noise C. Impedance and reactance D. Voltage and resistance share/T/T0A080000644000175000017500000000042311566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT0A08 (C) What is one way to recharge a 12-volt lead-acid station battery if the commercial power is out? A. Cool the battery in ice for several hours B. Add acid to the battery C. Connect the battery to a car's battery and run the engine D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T0B080000644000175000017500000000060611566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT0B08 (C) What is considered to be a proper grounding method for a tower? A. A single four-foot ground rod, driven into the ground no more than 12 inches from the base B. A ferrite-core RF choke connected between the tower and ground C. Separate eight-foot long ground rods for each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other D. A connection between the tower base and a cold water pipe share/T/T8C040000644000175000017500000000061211566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT8C04 (C) Which of the following is good procedure when contacting another station in a radio contest? A. Be sure to sign only the last two letters of your call if there is a pileup calling the station B. Work the station twice to be sure that you are in his log C. Send only the minimum information needed for proper identification and the contest exchange D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T5D010000644000175000017500000000045611566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT5D01 (B) What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit? A. Current (I) equals voltage (E) multiplied by resistance (R) B. Current (I) equals voltage (E) divided by resistance (R) C. Current (I) equals voltage (E) added to resistance (R) D. Current (I) equals voltage (E) minus resistance (R) share/T/T3C060000644000175000017500000000035611566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT3C06 (A) What mode is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis? A. Tropospheric scatter B. D layer refraction C. F2 layer refraction D. Faraday rotation share/T/T6D100000644000175000017500000000032511566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT6D10 (C) What is the function of component 2 in Figure T1? A. Give off light when current flows through it B. Supply electrical energy C. Control the flow of current D. Convert electrical energy into radio waves share/T/T7D100000644000175000017500000000050211566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT7D10 (B) What is probably happening when an ohmmeter, connected across a circuit, initially indicates a low resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time? A. The ohmmeter is defective B. The circuit contains a large capacitor C. The circuit contains a large inductor D. The circuit is a relaxation oscillator share/T/T7D090000644000175000017500000000025211566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT7D09 (C) What is the characteristic appearance of a "cold" solder joint? A. Dark black spots B. A bright or shiny surface C. A grainy or dull surface D. A greenish tint share/T/T1A090000644000175000017500000000055311566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT1A09 (C) [97.3(a)(22)] Who selects a Frequency Coordinator? A. The FCC Office of Spectrum Management and Coordination Policy B. The local chapter of the Office of National Council of Independent Frequency Coordinators C. Amateur operators in a local or regional area whose stations are eligible to be auxiliary or repeater stations D. FCC Regional Field Office share/T/T6B060000644000175000017500000000026111566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT6B06 (B) How is a semiconductor diode's cathode lead usually identified? A. With the word "cathode" B. With a stripe C. With the letter "C" D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T9A050000644000175000017500000000033711566750314011233 0ustar jtnjtnT9A05 (C) How would you change a dipole antenna to make it resonant on a higher frequency? A. Lengthen it B. Insert coils in series with radiating wires C. Shorten it D. Add capacity hats to the ends of the radiating wires share/T/T8D110000644000175000017500000000043011566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT8D11 (C) What is a "parity" bit? A. A control code required for automatic position reporting B. A timing bit used to ensure equal sharing of a frequency C. An extra code element used to detect errors in received data D. A "triple width" bit used to signal the end of a character share/T/T8A050000644000175000017500000000017711566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT8A05 (C) Which of the following types of emission has the narrowest bandwidth? A. FM voice B. SSB voice C. CW D. Slow-scan TV share/T/T4A090000644000175000017500000000024411566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT4A09 (D) Which would you use to reduce RF current flowing on the shield of an audio cable? A. Band-pass filter B. Low-pass filter C. Preamplifier D. Ferrite choke share/T/T2B060000644000175000017500000000033511566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT2B06 (A) What happens when the deviation of an FM transmitter is increased? A. Its signal occupies more bandwidth B. Its output power increases C. Its output power and bandwidth increases D. Asymmetric modulation occurs share/T/T3B030000644000175000017500000000024211566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT3B03 (C) What are the two components of a radio wave? A. AC and DC B. Voltage and current C. Electric and magnetic fields D. Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation share/T/T8C060000644000175000017500000000051411566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT8C06 (C) For what purpose is a temporary "1 by 1" format (letter-number-letter) call sign assigned? A. To designate an experimental station B. To honor a deceased relative who was a radio amateur C. For operations in conjunction with an activity of special significance to the amateur community D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T2A050000644000175000017500000000043211566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT2A05 (C) What should you transmit when responding to a call of CQ? A. CQ followed by the other station's call sign B. Your call sign followed by the other station's call sign C. The other station's call sign followed by your call sign D. A signal report followed by your call sign share/T/T7C080000644000175000017500000000030411566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT7C08 (D) What instrument other than an SWR meter could you use to determine if a feedline and antenna are properly matched? A. Voltmeter B. Ohmmeter C. Iambic pentameter D. Directional wattmeter share/T/T1D010000644000175000017500000000067311566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT1D01 (A) [97.111(a)(1)] With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur stations prohibited from exchanging communications? A. Any country whose administration has notified the ITU that it objects to such communications B. Any country whose administration has notified the United Nations that it objects to such communications C. Any country engaged in hostilities with another country D. Any country in violation of the War Powers Act of 1934 share/T/T3A100000644000175000017500000000061411566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT3A10 (D) What may occur if VHF or UHF data signals propagate over multiple paths? A. Transmission rates can be increased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed B. Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed C. No significant changes will occur if the signals are transmitting using FM D. Error rates are likely to increase share/T/T0A090000644000175000017500000000041311566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT0A09 (C) What kind of hazard is presented by a conventional 12-volt storage battery? A. It emits ozone which can be harmful to the atmosphere B. Shock hazard due to high voltage C. Explosive gas can collect if not properly vented D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T6A060000644000175000017500000000017511566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT6A06 (C) What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field? A. Resistor B. Capacitor C. Inductor D. Diode share/T/T8D100000644000175000017500000000025711566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT8D10 (D) Which of the following can be used to transmit CW in the amateur bands? A. Straight Key B. Electronic Keyer C. Computer Keyboard D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T7A050000644000175000017500000000023711566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT7A05 (D) What is the function of block 1 if figure T4 is a simple CW transmitter? A. Reactance modulator B. Product detector C. Low-pass filter D. Oscillator share/T/T8C110000644000175000017500000000026011566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT8C11 (A) What name is given to an amateur radio station that is used to connect other amateur stations to the Internet? A. A gateway B. A repeater C. A digipeater D. A beacon share/T/T5A050000644000175000017500000000023311566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT5A05 (A) What is the electrical term for the electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow? A. Voltage B. Ampere-hours C. Capacitance D. Inductance share/T/T1E080000644000175000017500000000031111566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT1E08 (C) [97.3(a)] What type of control is being used for a repeater when the control operator is not present at a control point? A. Local control B. Remote control C. Automatic control D. Unattended share/T/T4A010000644000175000017500000000056711566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT4A01 (B) Which of the following is true concerning the microphone connectors on amateur transceivers? A. All transceivers use the same microphone connector type B. Some connectors include push-to-talk and voltages for powering the microphone C. All transceivers using the same connector type are wired identically D. Un-keyed connectors allow any microphone to be connected share/T/T4B110000644000175000017500000000055311566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT4B11 (C) Which of the following describes the common meaning of the term "repeater offset"? A. The distance between the repeater's transmit and receive antennas B. The time delay before the repeater timer resets C. The difference between the repeater's transmit and receive frequencies D. The maximum frequency deviation permitted on the repeater's input signal share/T/T5A070000644000175000017500000000014611566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT5A07 (C) Which of the following is a good electrical conductor? A. Glass B. Wood C. Copper D. Rubber share/T/T0C020000644000175000017500000000021411566750314011213 0ustar jtnjtnT0C02 (B) Which of the following frequencies has the lowest Maximum Permissible Exposure limit? A. 3.5 MHz B. 50 MHz C. 440 MHz D. 1296 MHz share/T/T9B020000644000175000017500000000023411566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT9B02 (B) What is the impedance of the most commonly used coaxial cable in typical amateur radio installations? A. 8 ohms B. 50 ohms C. 600 ohms D. 12 ohms share/T/T7A090000644000175000017500000000033411566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT7A09 (B) Which of the following devices is most useful for VHF weak-signal communication? A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna B. A multi-mode VHF transceiver C. An omni-directional antenna D. A mobile VHF FM transceiver share/T/T3C070000644000175000017500000000016611566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT3C07 (B) What band is best suited to communicating via meteor scatter? A. 10 meters B. 6 meters C. 2 meters D. 70 cm share/T/T9A020000644000175000017500000000034011566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT9A02 (B) Which of the following is true regarding vertical antennas? A. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the Earth B. The electric field is perpendicular to the Earth C. The phase is inverted D. The phase is reversed share/T/T1C030000644000175000017500000000074011566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT1C03 (A) [97.117] What types of international communications are permitted by an FCC-licensed amateur station? A. Communications incidental to the purposes of the amateur service and remarks of a personal character B. Communications incidental to conducting business or remarks of a personal nature C. Only communications incidental to contest exchanges, all other communications are prohibited D. Any communications that would be permitted on an international broadcast station share/T/T7D050000644000175000017500000000020411566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT7D05 (D) What instrument is used to measure resistance? A. An oscilloscope B. A spectrum analyzer C. A noise bridge D. An ohmmeter share/T/T0B050000644000175000017500000000030311566750314011214 0ustar jtnjtnT0B05 (C) What is the purpose of a gin pole? A. To temporarily replace guy wires B. To be used in place of a safety harness C. To lift tower sections or antennas D. To provide a temporary ground share/T/T7C030000644000175000017500000000043611566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT7C03 (A) What, in general terms, is standing wave ratio (SWR)? A. A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line B. The ratio of high to low impedance in a feedline C. The transmitter efficiency ratio D. An indication of the quality of your station's ground connection share/T/T5D030000644000175000017500000000046111566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT5D03 (B) What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit? A. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) multiplied by current (I) B. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) divided by current (I) C. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) added to current (I) D. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) minus current (I) share/T/T3B110000644000175000017500000000032011566750314011213 0ustar jtnjtnT3B11 (B) What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave as it travels through free space? A. 3000 kilometers per second B. 300,000,000 meters per second C. 300,000 miles per hour D. 186,000 miles per hour share/T/T1B090000644000175000017500000000053111566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT1B09 (D) [97.101(a)] Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band? A. To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display B. So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge C. To allow for transmitter frequency drift D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T6A030000644000175000017500000000020311566750314011216 0ustar jtnjtnT6A03 (B) What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer? A. Inductance B. Resistance C. Capacitance D. Field strength share/T/T2B030000644000175000017500000000030711566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT2B03 (B) Which of the following describes the muting of receiver audio controlled solely by the presence or absence of an RF signal? A. Tone squelch B. Carrier squelch C. CTCSS D. Modulated carrier share/T/T4A040000644000175000017500000000032411566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT4A04 (A) Where must a filter be installed to reduce harmonic emissions? A. Between the transmitter and the antenna B. Between the receiver and the transmitter C. At the station power supply D. At the microphone share/T/T4A050000644000175000017500000000035211566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT4A05 (D) What type of filter should be connected to a TV receiver as the first step in trying to prevent RF overload from a nearby 2 meter transmitter? A. Low-pass filter B. High-pass filter C. Band-pass filter D. Band-reject filter share/T/T9B090000644000175000017500000000037511566750314011242 0ustar jtnjtnT9B09 (B) What might cause erratic changes in SWR readings? A. The transmitter is being modulated B. A loose connection in an antenna or a feedline C. The transmitter is being over-modulated D. Interference from other stations is distorting your signal share/T/T0B010000644000175000017500000000044711566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT0B01 (C) When should members of a tower work team wear a hard hat and safety glasses? A. At all times except when climbing the tower B. At all times except when belted firmly to the tower C. At all times when any work is being done on the tower D. Only when the tower exceeds 30 feet in height share/T/T5D050000644000175000017500000000025511566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT5D05 (C) What is the resistance in a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes? A. 18 ohms B. 0.125 ohms C. 8 ohms D. 13.5 ohms share/T/T7C110000644000175000017500000000045211566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT7C11 (C) What is a disadvantage of "air core" coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types? A. It has more loss per foot B. It cannot be used for VHF or UHF antennas C. It requires special techniques to prevent water absorption D. It cannot be used at below freezing temperatures share/T/T8B090000644000175000017500000000043011566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT8B09 (B) What causes "spin fading" when referring to satellite signals? A. Circular polarized noise interference radiated from the sun B. Rotation of the satellite and its antennas C. Doppler shift of the received signal D. Interfering signals within the satellite uplink band share/T/T0A020000644000175000017500000000034211566750314011213 0ustar jtnjtnT0A02 (D) How does current flowing through the body cause a health hazard? A. By heating tissue B. It disrupts the electrical functions of cells C. It causes involuntary muscle contractions D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T0C040000644000175000017500000000036711566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT0C04 (D) What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna? A. Frequency and power level of the RF field B. Distance from the antenna to a person C. Radiation pattern of the antenna D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T3B040000644000175000017500000000033511566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT3B04 (A) How fast does a radio wave travel through free space? A. At the speed of light B. At the speed of sound C. Its speed is inversely proportional to its wavelength D. Its speed increases as the frequency increases share/T/T1B100000644000175000017500000000040611566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT1B10 (C) [97.305(c)] Which of the bands available to Technician Class operators have mode-restricted sub-bands? A. The 6 meter, 2 meter, and 70 cm bands B. The 2 meter and 13 cm bands C. The 6 meter, 2 meter, and 1.25 meter bands D. The 2 meter and 70 cm bands share/T/T2A110000644000175000017500000000064511566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT2A11 (D) [97.313(a)] What are the FCC rules regarding power levels used in the amateur bands? A. Always use the maximum power allowed to ensure that you complete the contact B. An amateur may use no more than 200 watts PEP to make an amateur contact C. An amateur may use up to 1500 watts PEP on any amateur frequency D. An amateur must use the minimum transmitter power necessary to carry out the desired communication share/T/T6A020000644000175000017500000000022411566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT6A02 (C) What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control? A. Fixed resistor B. Power resistor C. Potentiometer D. Transformer share/T/T4B020000644000175000017500000000034511566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT4B02 (A) Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver? A. The keypad or VFO knob B. The CTCSS or DTMF encoder C. The Automatic Frequency Control D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T5B050000644000175000017500000000016411566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT5B05 (B) Which of the following is equivalent to 500 milliwatts? A. 0.02 watts B. 0.5 watts C. 5 watts D. 50 watts share/T/T3C030000644000175000017500000000064711566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT3C03 (B) What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral reflection? A. Signals from distances of 10,000 or more miles are common B. The signals exhibit rapid fluctuations of strength and often sound distorted C. These types of signals occur only during winter nighttime hours D. These types of signals are generally strongest when your antenna is aimed to the south (for stations in the Northern Hemisphere) share/T/T1D050000644000175000017500000000076611566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT1D05 (A) [97.113(a)(3)] When may amateur radio operators use their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade? A. When the equipment is normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not conducted on a regular basis B. When the asking price is $100.00 or less C. When the asking price is less than its appraised value D. When the equipment is not the personal property of either the station licensee or the control operator or their close relatives share/T/T2C010000644000175000017500000000032111566750314011213 0ustar jtnjtnT2C01 (C) [97.103(a)] What set of rules applies to proper operation of your station when using amateur radio at the request of public service officials? A. RACES Rules B. ARES Rules C. FCC Rules D. FEMA Rules share/T/T8B110000644000175000017500000000020711566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT8B11 (C) What is a commonly used method of sending signals to and from a digital satellite? A. USB AFSK B. PSK31 C. FM Packet D. WSJT share/T/T9B050000644000175000017500000000035111566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT9B05 (D) What generally happens as the frequency of a signal passing through coaxial cable is increased? A. The apparent SWR increases B. The reflected power increases C. The characteristic impedance increases D. The loss increases share/T/T1E070000644000175000017500000000050611566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT1E07 (D) [97.103(a)] When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station? A. All licensed amateurs who are present at the operation B. Only the station licensee C. Only the control operator D. The control operator and the station licensee are equally responsible share/T/T8B070000644000175000017500000000055611566750314011240 0ustar jtnjtnT8B07 (C) With regard to satellite communications, what is Doppler shift? A. A change in the satellite orbit B. A mode where the satellite receives signals on one band and transmits on another C. An observed change in signal frequency caused by relative motion between the satellite and the earth station D. A special digital communications mode for some satellites share/T/T5A030000644000175000017500000000020111566750314011213 0ustar jtnjtnT5A03 (D) What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit? A. Voltage B. Resistance C. Capacitance D. Current share/T/T7B120000644000175000017500000000027111566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT7B12 (C) What does the acronym "BER" mean when applied to digital communications systems? A. Baud Enhancement Recovery B. Baud Error Removal C. Bit Error Rate D. Bit Exponent Resource share/T/T0A110000644000175000017500000000055111566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT0A11 (C) Which of the following is good practice when installing ground wires on a tower for lightning protection? A. Put a loop in the ground connection to prevent water damage to the ground system B. Make sure that all bends in the ground wires are clean, right angle bends C. Ensure that connections are short and direct D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T1C070000644000175000017500000000053511566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT1C07 (B) [97.23] What may result when correspondence from the FCC is returned as undeliverable because the grantee failed to provide the correct mailing address? A. Fine or imprisonment B. Revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license C. Require the licensee to be re-examined D. A reduction of one rank in operator class share/T/T1F070000644000175000017500000000074611566750314011236 0ustar jtnjtnT1F07 (D) [97.119(c)] Which of the following restrictions apply when appending a self-assigned call sign indicator? A. It must be more than three letters and less than five letters B. It must be less than five letters C. It must start with the letters AA through AL, K, N, or W and be not less than two characters or more than five characters in length D. It must not conflict with any other indicator specified by the FCC rules or with any call sign prefix assigned to another country share/T/T5D090000644000175000017500000000023211566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT5D09 (C) What is the current flowing through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts? A. 24,000 amperes B. 0.1 amperes C. 10 amperes D. 216 amperes share/T/T1F080000644000175000017500000000051011566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT1F08 (A) [97.119(e)] When may a Technician Class licensee be the control operator of a station operating in an exclusive Extra Class operator segment of the amateur bands? A. Never B. On Armed Forces Day C. As part of a multi-operator contest team D. When using a club station whose trustee is an Extra Class operator licensee share/T/T7A100000644000175000017500000000025711566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT7A10 (B) What device increases the low-power output from a handheld transceiver? A. A voltage divider B. An RF power amplifier C. An impedance network D. A voltage regulator share/T/T8C080000644000175000017500000000073011566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT8C08 (C) [97.215(a)] What is required in place of on-air station identification when sending signals to a radio control model using amateur frequencies? A. Voice identification must be transmitted every 10 minutes B. Morse code ID must be sent once per hour C. A label indicating the licensee's name, call sign and address must be affixed to the transmitter D. A flag must be affixed to the transmitter antenna with the station call sign in 1 inch high letters or larger share/T/T1D080000644000175000017500000000065511566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT1D08 (B) [97.113] When may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating the station? A. When engaging in communications on behalf of their employer B. When the communication is incidental to classroom instruction at an educational institution C. When re-broadcasting weather alerts during a RACES net D. When notifying other amateur operators of the availability for sale or trade of apparatus share/T/T6A050000644000175000017500000000025311566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT6A05 (D) What type of electrical component consists of two or more conductive surfaces separated by an insulator? A. Resistor B. Potentiometer C. Oscillator D. Capacitor share/T/T6C010000644000175000017500000000027611566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT6C01 (C) What is the name for standardized representations of components in an electrical wiring diagram? A. Electrical depictions B. Grey sketch C. Schematic symbols D. Component callouts share/T/T7B050000644000175000017500000000044411566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT7B05 (C) What is a logical first step when attempting to cure a radio frequency interference problem in a nearby telephone? A. Install a low-pass filter at the transmitter B. Install a high-pass filter at the transmitter C. Install an RF filter at the telephone D. Improve station grounding share/T/T7C040000644000175000017500000000023211566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT7C04 (C) What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feedline? A. 2 to 1 B. 1 to 3 C. 1 to 1 D. 10 to 1 share/T/T4A030000644000175000017500000000045611566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT4A03 (A) Which is a good reason to use a regulated power supply for communications equipment? A. It prevents voltage fluctuations from reaching sensitive circuits B. A regulated power supply has FCC approval C. A fuse or circuit breaker regulates the power D. Power consumption is independent of load share/T/T6D020000644000175000017500000000023611566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT6D02 (A) What best describes a relay? A. A switch controlled by an electromagnet B. A current controlled amplifier C. An optical sensor D. A pass transistor share/T/T7D040000644000175000017500000000017311566750314011231 0ustar jtnjtnT7D04 (D) Which instrument is used to measure electric current? A. An ohmmeter B. A wavemeter C. A voltmeter D. An ammeter share/T/T2C070000644000175000017500000000074011566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT2C07 (C) What should you do to minimize disruptions to an emergency traffic net once you have checked in? A. Whenever the net frequency is quiet, announce your call sign and location B. Move 5 kHz away from the net's frequency and use high power to ask other hams to keep clear of the net frequency C. Do not transmit on the net frequency until asked to do so by the net control station D. Wait until the net frequency is quiet, then ask for any emergency traffic for your area share/T/T8B030000644000175000017500000000034711566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT8B03 (A) Which of the following can be done using an amateur radio satellite? A. Talk to amateur radio operators in other countries B. Get global positioning information C. Make telephone calls D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T8D040000644000175000017500000000036411566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT8D04 (C) What type of transmission is indicated by the term NTSC? A. A Normal Transmission mode in Static Circuit B. A special mode for earth satellite uplink C. An analog fast scan color TV signal D. A frame compression scheme for TV signals share/T/T8A010000644000175000017500000000022011566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT8A01 (C) Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation? A. Spread-spectrum B. Packet radio C. Single sideband D. Phase shift keying share/T/T4B070000644000175000017500000000022611566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT4B07 (B) What does the term "RIT" mean? A. Receiver Input Tone B. Receiver Incremental Tuning C. Rectifier Inverter Test D. Remote Input Transmitter share/T/T5A110000644000175000017500000000015211566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT5A11 (A) What is the basic unit of electromotive force? A. The volt B. The watt C. The ampere D. The ohm share/T/T2C100000644000175000017500000000043611566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT2C10 (D) What is the preamble in a formal traffic message? A. The first paragraph of the message text B. The message number C. The priority handling indicator for the message D. The information needed to track the message as it passes through the amateur radio traffic handling system share/T/T6B070000644000175000017500000000022311566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT6B07 (B) What does the abbreviation "LED" stand for? A. Low Emission Diode B. Light Emitting Diode C. Liquid Emission Detector D. Long Echo Delay share/T/T8C030000644000175000017500000000033011566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT8C03 (A) What popular operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period of time? A. Contesting B. Net operations C. Public service events D. Simulated emergency exercises share/T/T0C050000644000175000017500000000050011566750314011214 0ustar jtnjtnT0C05 (D) Why do exposure limits vary with frequency? A. Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than higher frequency fields B. Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the human body C. Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature D. The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others share/T/T4A060000644000175000017500000000026011566750314011222 0ustar jtnjtnT4A06 (C) Which of the following would be connected between a transceiver and computer in a packet radio station? A. Transmatch B. Mixer C. Terminal node controller D. Antenna share/T/T3B080000644000175000017500000000020511566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT3B08 (B) What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum? A. 30 to 300 kHz B. 30 to 300 MHz C. 300 to 3000 kHz D. 300 to 3000 MHz share/T/T0A010000644000175000017500000000024111566750314011210 0ustar jtnjtnT0A01 (B) Which is a commonly accepted value for the lowest voltage that can cause a dangerous electric shock? A. 12 volts B. 30 volts C. 120 volts D. 300 volts share/T/T6A070000644000175000017500000000016711566750314011233 0ustar jtnjtnT6A07 (D) What electrical component is usually composed of a coil of wire? A. Switch B. Capacitor C. Diode D. Inductor share/T/T6C040000644000175000017500000000013711566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT6C04 (C) What is component 3 in figure T1? A. Resistor B. Transistor C. Lamp D. Ground symbol share/T/T0C010000644000175000017500000000022611566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT0C01 (D) What type of radiation are VHF and UHF radio signals? A. Gamma radiation B. Ionizing radiation C. Alpha radiation D. Non-ionizing radiation share/T/T0A100000644000175000017500000000045111566750314011213 0ustar jtnjtnT0A10 (A) What can happen if a lead-acid storage battery is charged or discharged too quickly? A. The battery could overheat and give off flammable gas or explode B. The voltage can become reversed C. The "memory effect" will reduce the capacity of the battery D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T4B090000644000175000017500000000026611566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT4B09 (C) Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter to select in order to minimize noise and interference for SSB reception? A. 500 Hz B. 1000 Hz C. 2400 Hz D. 5000 Hz share/T/T8D020000644000175000017500000000025711566750314011233 0ustar jtnjtnT8D02 (A) What does the term APRS mean? A. Automatic Position Reporting System B. Associated Public Radio Station C. Auto Planning Radio Set-up D. Advanced Polar Radio System share/T/T1E110000644000175000017500000000043711566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT1E11 (D) [97.103(a)] Who does the FCC presume to be the control operator of an amateur station, unless documentation to the contrary is in the station records? A. The station custodian B. The third party participant C. The person operating the station equipment D. The station licensee share/T/T5B100000644000175000017500000000023511566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT5B10 (C) What is the approximate amount of change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts? A. 1 dB B. 3 dB C. 6 dB D. 9 dB share/T/T1D110000644000175000017500000000067511566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT1D11 (A) [97.113(a)(5)] Which of the following types of communications are permitted in the Amateur Radio Service? A. Brief transmissions to make station adjustments B. Retransmission of entertainment programming from a commercial radio or TV station C. Retransmission of entertainment material from a public radio or TV station D. Communications on a regular basis that could reasonably be furnished alternatively through other radio services share/T/T2B100000644000175000017500000000020711566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT2B10 (A) What is the "Q" signal used to indicate that you are receiving interference from other stations? A. QRM B. QRN C. QTH D. QSB share/T/T4B100000644000175000017500000000026511566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT4B10 (A) Which of the following is an appropriate receive filter to select in order to minimize noise and interference for CW reception? A. 500 Hz B. 1000 Hz C. 2400 Hz D. 5000 Hz share/T/T6A080000644000175000017500000000022411566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT6A08 (B) What electrical component is used to connect or disconnect electrical circuits? A. Zener Diode B. Switch C. Inductor D. Variable resistor share/T/T7A030000644000175000017500000000046311566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT7A03 (C) What is the function of a mixer in a superheterodyne receiver? A. To reject signals outside of the desired passband B. To combine signals from several stations together C. To shift the incoming signal to an intermediate frequency D. To connect the receiver with an auxiliary device, such as a TNC share/T/T3C080000644000175000017500000000032511566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT3C08 (D) What causes "tropospheric ducting"? A. Discharges of lightning during electrical storms B. Sunspots and solar flares C. Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes D. Temperature inversions in the atmosphere share/T/T7C010000644000175000017500000000041111566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT7C01 (A) What is the primary purpose of a dummy load? A. To prevent the radiation of signals when making tests B. To prevent over-modulation of your transmitter C. To improve the radiation from your antenna D. To improve the signal to noise ratio of your receiver share/T/T2A020000644000175000017500000000023211566750314011213 0ustar jtnjtnT2A02 (D) What is the national calling frequency for FM simplex operations in the 70 cm band? A. 146.520 MHz B. 145.000 MHz C. 432.100 MHz D. 446.000 MHz share/T/T6C060000644000175000017500000000014311566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT6C06 (B) What is component 6 in figure T2? A. Resistor B. Capacitor C. Regulator IC D. Transistor share/T/T6C110000644000175000017500000000013611566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT6C11 (A) What is component 4 in figure T3? A. Antenna B. Transmitter C. Dummy load D. Ground share/T/T6C050000644000175000017500000000014211566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT6C05 (C) What is component 4 in figure T1? A. Resistor B. Transistor C. Battery D. Ground symbol share/T/T3A060000644000175000017500000000033111566750314011220 0ustar jtnjtnT3A06 (B) What term is commonly used to describe the rapid fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile stations that are moving while transmitting? A. Flip-flopping B. Picket fencing C. Frequency shifting D. Pulsing share/T/T1E040000644000175000017500000000052611566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT1E04 (D) [97.103(b)] What determines the transmitting privileges of an amateur station? A. The frequency authorized by the frequency coordinator B. The class of operator license held by the station licensee C. The highest class of operator license held by anyone on the premises D. The class of operator license held by the control operator share/T/T1B070000644000175000017500000000024211566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT1B07 (D) [97.301(a)] What amateur band are you using if you are transmitting on 223.50 MHz? A. 15 meter band B. 10 meter band C. 2 meter band D. 1.25 meter band share/T/T9A110000644000175000017500000000060311566750314011224 0ustar jtnjtnT9A11 (C) What is meant by the gain of an antenna? A. The additional power that is added to the transmitter power B. The additional power that is lost in the antenna when transmitting on a higher frequency C. The increase in signal strength in a specified direction when compared to a reference antenna D. The increase in impedance on receive or transmit compared to a reference antenna share/T/T7D080000644000175000017500000000024411566750314011234 0ustar jtnjtnT7D08 (C) Which of the following types of solder is best for radio and electronic use? A. Acid-core solder B. Silver solder C. Rosin-core solder D. Aluminum solder share/T/T2B010000644000175000017500000000034411566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT2B01 (C) What is the term used to describe an amateur station that is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency? A. Full duplex communication B. Diplex communication C. Simplex communication D. Half duplex communication share/T/T5A060000644000175000017500000000022011566750314011217 0ustar jtnjtnT5A06 (A) How much voltage does a mobile transceiver usually require? A. About 12 volts B. About 30 volts C. About 120 volts D. About 240 volts share/T/T1D070000644000175000017500000000062411566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT1D07 (B) [97.113(f)] When is an amateur station authorized to automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations? A. When the signals are from an auxiliary, beacon, or Earth station B. When the signals are from an auxiliary, repeater, or space station C. When the signals are from a beacon, repeater, or space station D. When the signals are from an Earth, repeater, or space station share/T/T6C120000644000175000017500000000023711566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT6C12 (A) What do the symbols on an electrical circuit schematic diagram represent? A. Electrical components B. Logic states C. Digital codes D. Traffic nodes share/T/T3C090000644000175000017500000000032511566750314011230 0ustar jtnjtnT3C09 (A) What is generally the best time for long-distance 10 meter band propagation? A. During daylight hours B. During nighttime hours C. When there are coronal mass ejections D. Whenever the solar flux is low share/T/T0A130000644000175000017500000000052211566750314011215 0ustar jtnjtnT0A13 (A) What safety equipment should always be included in home-built equipment that is powered from 120V AC power circuits? A. A fuse or circuit breaker in series with the AC "hot" conductor B. An AC voltmeter across the incoming power source C. An inductor in series with the AC power source D. A capacitor across the AC power source share/T/T5A090000644000175000017500000000024611566750314011232 0ustar jtnjtnT5A09 (A) What is the name for a current that reverses direction on a regular basis? A. Alternating current B. Direct current C. Circular current D. Vertical current share/T/T0A050000644000175000017500000000045011566750314011216 0ustar jtnjtnT0A05 (C) Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of a 5-ampere fuse? A. The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current B. The power supply ripple would greatly increase C. Excessive current could cause a fire D. All of these choices are correct share/T/T8D060000644000175000017500000000021111566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT8D06 (B) What does the abbreviation PSK mean? A. Pulse Shift Keying B. Phase Shift Keying C. Packet Short Keying D. Phased Slide Keying share/T/T3A080000644000175000017500000000055211566750314011227 0ustar jtnjtnT3A08 (C) What is the cause of irregular fading of signals from distant stations during times of generally good reception? A. Absorption of signals by the "D" layer of the ionosphere B. Absorption of signals by the "E" layer of the ionosphere C. Random combining of signals arriving via different path lengths D. Intermodulation distortion in the local receiver share/T/T6C030000644000175000017500000000014511566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT6C03 (B) What is component 2 in figure T1? A. Resistor B. Transistor C. Indicator lamp D. Connector share/T/T3C040000644000175000017500000000035411566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT3C04 (B) Which of the following propagation types is most commonly associated with occasional strong over-the-horizon signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands? A. Backscatter B. Sporadic E C. D layer absorption D. Gray-line propagation share/T/T5A040000644000175000017500000000023011566750314011216 0ustar jtnjtnT5A04 (B) What is the name for a current that flows only in one direction? A. Alternating current B. Direct current C. Normal current D. Smooth current share/T/T7D060000644000175000017500000000042511566750314011233 0ustar jtnjtnT7D06 (C) Which of the following might damage a multimeter? A. Measuring a voltage too small for the chosen scale B. Leaving the meter in the milliamps position overnight C. Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting D. Not allowing it to warm up properly share/T/T8B100000644000175000017500000000042511566750314011225 0ustar jtnjtnT8B10 (C) What do the initials LEO tell you about an amateur satellite? A. The satellite battery is in Low Energy Operation mode B. The satellite is performing a Lunar Ejection Orbit maneuver C. The satellite is in a Low Earth Orbit D. The satellite uses Light Emitting Optics share/T/T7A130000644000175000017500000000033011566750314011221 0ustar jtnjtnT7A13 (A) Where is an RF preamplifier installed? A. Between the antenna and receiver B. At the output of the transmitter's power amplifier C. Between a transmitter and antenna tuner D. At the receiver's audio output share/T/T1C050000644000175000017500000000073111566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT1C05 (A) [97.303(h)] What must you do if you are operating on the 23 cm band and learn that you are interfering with a radiolocation station outside the United States? A. Stop operating or take steps to eliminate the harmful interference B. Nothing, because this band is allocated exclusively to the amateur service C. Establish contact with the radiolocation station and ask them to change frequency D. Change to CW mode, because this would not likely cause interference share/T/T7A010000644000175000017500000000025711566750314011226 0ustar jtnjtnT7A01 (C) What is the function of a product detector? A. Detect phase modulated signals B. Demodulate FM signals C. Detect CW and SSB signals D. Combine speech and RF signals share/T/T7A040000644000175000017500000000030511566750314011223 0ustar jtnjtnT7A04 (D) What circuit is pictured in Figure T7, if block 1 is a frequency discriminator? A. A double-conversion receiver B. A regenerative receiver C. A superheterodyne receiver D. An FM receiver share/T/T8B060000644000175000017500000000032711566750314011233 0ustar jtnjtnT8B06 (D) What can be used to determine the time period during which an amateur satellite or space station can be accessed? A. A GPS receiver B. A field strength meter C. A telescope D. A satellite tracking program share/T/T2A030000644000175000017500000000023111566750314011213 0ustar jtnjtnT2A03 (A) What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 70 cm band? A. Plus or minus 5 MHz B. Plus or minus 600 kHz C. Minus 600 kHz D. Plus 600 kHz